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Marketing Management explores the fundamental concepts, strategies, and techniques essential for effective marketing in todays dynamic business environment. The course covers topics such as market analysis, consumer behavior, market segmentation, product development, pricing strategies, distribution channels, integrated marketing communications, and the development of comprehensive marketing plans. Emphasizing both theory and real-world application, students will analyze case studies, engage in group projects, and develop critical decision-making skills to address contemporary marketing challenges. The course prepares students to design, implement, and manage marketing strategies that achieve organizational goals and create value for customers.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Marketing Research 7th Edition by Gilbert A. Churchill
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Q1) Which of the following currently uses market research?
A)Salespeople
B)Politicians
C)Clergy
D)Presidents of not-for-profits institutions
E)All of the above.
Answer: E
Q2) Which of the following is TRUE?
A)Much of the research conducted by advertising agencies deals directly with creating the production schedule.
B)Marketing research really began to grow when firms could no longer sell all they could produce.
C)The growth in the number of new marketing research departments has escalated recently.
D)Marketing research is dominated by international,especially European firms,and is has only a minor collection of firms in the United States.
E)All of the above are true.
Answer: B
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Q1) Which of the following would suggest that more of a marketing information perspective rather than a project perspective on research is needed?
A)An investigation of the potential demand for a new product the firm is developing.
B)An examination of the structure of the channels of distribution serving a market the firm is considering entering.
C)An examination of each salesperson's performance versus the individual's sales quota for last year.
D)The investigation of which of two pieces of advertising copy is more favorably received by consumers.
E)An investigation to determine which of three package designs produces the greatest sales.
Answer: C
Q2) The explosion in databases and the emergence of DSS have eliminated traditional marketing research projects for gathering marketing intelligence.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Project strategy for marketing research specifies the types of studies that are to be conducted and for what purposes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Compare and contrast the various approaches or methods of ethical reasoning.
Answer: The utility approach is a method that focuses on society as the unit of analysis and stresses the greatest good for the greatest number.The justice approach considers whether or not the costs and benefits of a proposed action are distributed fairly among individuals and groups,attempts to be fair to everyone involved,and focuses on the consequences of behaviors.The rights approach focuses on the individual as the unit of analysis and specifically on the rights to which every individual is entitled.
Q3) The ____________________ is a method of ethical reasoning that focuses on society as the unit of analysis and stresses the consequences of an act on all those directly or indirectly affected by it.
Answer: utility approach
Q4) A(n)____________________ is a subset of the population.
Answer: sample

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Q1) A document that describes,as specifically as possible,the nature of the problem for which research is sought and that asks providers to offer proposals,including cost estimates,about how they would perform a job is called a(n)____________________.
Q2) Which of the following types of research should be avoided?
A)Unethical research
B)Research for which a decision has already been made and a manager is not going to change his or her mind
C)Any research where resources are unavailable to do the research appropriately
D)All of the above should be avoided.
E)Both a and b only should be avoided.
Q3) Well-planned and executed strategy-oriented marketing research should produce
A)new marketing strategies.
B)a set of alternative decisions for management.
C)a choice among strategic alternatives.
D)a list of business priorities.
E)None of the above.
Q4) A decision problem is the problem/opportunity as seen by a(n)____________________.
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Q1) Exploratory research begins with A)vague topics of interest.
B)specific hypotheses.
C)tentative hypotheses.
D)cause-and-effect hypotheses.
E)Both b and d.
Q2) The crucial principle of research is
A)the framework or plan for a study that guides the collection and analysis of data.
B)that 20% of the factors cause 80% of the problems.
C)to assess sampling error because it has the greatest impact on the study's results.
D)to isolate the variables and analysis technique at the first opportunity.
E)that the design of the investigation should stem from the problem.
Q3) In general,the first step in conducting exploratory research should be
A)assembling a focus group.
B)performing an experience survey.
C)conducting a literature search.
D)performing an analysis of selected cases.
E)narrowing a group of hypotheses to one specific hypothesis for investigation.
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Q1) Mrs.Fields Cookie Company has decided to test market their new sugar-free,carbohydrate-free,and fat-free chocolate chip cookies.A major question the company hopes to answer with the test market project concerns customer acceptance of this somewhat novel product.Which method of test marketing would be most appropriate if it decides to distribute its "new" cookies through its normal channel of distribution?
A)Controlled test market
B)Standard test market
C)Simulated test market
D)Electronic test market
E)None of the above.
Q2) When referring to the question as to what populations and settings can the observed effect be generalized,one is referring to
A)internal validity.
B)turnover analysis.
C)external validity.
D)longitudinal analysis.
E)cross-sectional analysis.
Q3) Compare and contrast descriptive and causal research designs.
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Q1) The ____ is the largest gatherer of statistical information in the world.
A)United Nations
B)Federal Reserve System Board of Governors
C)U.S.Bureau of Labor Statistics
D)Bureau of the Census of the United States Department of Commerce
E)Internal Revenue Service
Q2) Name at least one of the three criteria researchers should use in judging the accuracy of secondary data: ____________________.
Q3) Compare and contrast primary and secondary data.
Q4) Joe is conducting research for the marketing department of Major League Baseball about the effects of sports strikes on ticket sales.The regression model he had developed are from information and data he found in sports journals,periodicals,and newspapers.Joe is using what kind of data in his research?
A)Primary data
B)Secondary data
C)Survey data
D)Focus group data
E)Experimental data
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Q1) The "National Panel Diary" (NPD)is an advertisement readership service.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The main concern of the Starch Readership Service is to provide information on the demographic characteristics of a particular publications readership.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following does NOT describe BehaviorScan?
A)It reflects purchasing behavior that is not subject to recording errors by the panel member.
B)It can link purchase behavior to the demographic characteristics of panel members.
C)It can link purchase behavior to members' known exposure to promotional deals,newspaper ads,and point-of-purchase displays.
D)It can link television-viewing behavior with product-purchasing behavior.
E)It lacks targetable television capability,maximizing the problem of having noncomparable experimental and control groups.
Q4) The first electronic census took place in ____________________.
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Q1) Which of the following is TRUE?
A)A motive may refer to any inner state that channels behavior toward goals.
B)A general advantage of the questionnaire approach over the observational approach is its versatility or wide scope.
C)The communication method is considered versatile because with it a researcher can collect information on demographics,life-styles,attitudes,knowledge,intentions,and behavior.
D)Both a and b.
E)a,b,and c.
Q2) Which of the following is an advantage of the observational method over the communication method of gathering primary data?
A)Versatility
B)Speed
C)Cost savings
D)Objectivity
E)None of the above.
Q3) Verbal expressions of an attitude are called ____________________.
Q4) ____________________ refers to an individual's overall evaluation of something.
Q5) Discuss the two basic means of obtaining primary data.
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Questions
Q1) Questions which are open-ended but predetermined represent
A)a highly unstructured questionnaire.
B)completely predetermined responses.
C)a highly structured questionnaire.
D)an intermediate degree of structure.
E)an intermediate degree of disguise.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of depth interviews as opposed to fixed-alternative questions?
A)They take longer to complete.
B)They allow more observations to be made.
C)They require more interviewers.
D)They are more difficult to tabulate.
E)They are more difficult to analyze.
Q3) With unstructured-undisguised questionnaires the purpose of the study is A)open ended.
B)not communicated to the respondents.
C)clear but the responses to the questions are open ended.
D)clear but the responses to the questions are dichotomous.
E)to define the responses that are open-ended.
Q4) Compare and contrast the main methods of administering questionnaires.
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Q1) In terms of observational studies,ethical dilemmas are most likely to arise when observation is
A)structured.
B)disguised.
C)performed by mechanical means.
D)undisguised.
E)unstructured.
Q2) In indirect observation,the researcher is observing attitudes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A primary disadvantage of disguised research is that
A)there is a large potential for bias.
B)the structured approach cannot be used.
C)it will be hard to undisguise the data.
D)people will change their behavior.
E)background data is difficult or impossible to collect.
Q4) The electrical resistance of the skin associated with sweating that accompanies emotional arousal is measured by a(n)____________________.
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Q1) If a respondent says his income is "Over $100,000 per annum" when,in fact,it is "$50,000 per annum",the difference between the true and actual measurement of income in this case could be said to LACK
A)reliability.
B)validity.
C)Both a and b.
D)Neither a nor b.
E)nominal scale.
Q2) The magnitude of the differences in objects is shown when which types of scales are used?
A)Interval or ordinal
B)Ratio or ordinal
C)Ordinal or nominal
D)Interval or ratio
E)Nominal or interval
Q3) Reliability is necessary,but not sufficient for establishing the validity of a measure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss,in detail,the two types of error that may affect measurement scores.
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Q1) Measure reliability seems to decrease as the number of scale positions increase.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Compare and contrast the most widely used attitude scaling techniques in marketing research.Be sure to explain why researchers prefer them
Q3) The ____ adjective pair "helpful-unhelpful" is used in a(n)____ scale.
A)anchored,summated-ratings
B)anchored,semantic differential
C)bipolar,semantic-differential
D)bipolar,snake
E)None of the above.
Q4) In order to impart meaning to the score from a Stapel scale,the score must be
A)statistically analyzed.
B)compared to the score from a graphic scale.
C)compared to the mean score or some norm.
D)graphically portrayed in a "snake diagram."
E)converted from a raw score to a standard score.
Q5) ____________________ scales consist of pairs of bipolar words or phrases that can be used to describe the attitude object.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The question,"Do you exercise often? seldom? sometimes?" is A)leading.
B)concrete.
C)ambiguous.
D)contains an implied alternative.
E)contains an implied assumption.
Q2) The question,"Do you feel the government should be forced to stop picking our pockets with excessive taxes and return a portion of the taxes collected to taxpayers?"
A)Is leading.
B)Contains an implicit alternative.
C)Is double-barreled.
D)Both a and c.
E)None of the above.
Q3) For long reference periods,which of the following is FALSE?
A)Telescoping error is relatively small.
B)Recall loss is relatively large.
C)Telescoping error may outweigh recall loss.
D)The two effects counterbalance each other.
E)Recall loss may outweigh telescoping error.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT TRUE for simple random sampling?
A)Each element has a known chance of being selected.
B)Each element has a non-zero chance of being selected.
C)Each element has an equal chance of being selected.
D)Each combination of n population elements has an equal chance of being selected.
E)All of the above are true statements.
Q2) Which of the following regarding probability samples is FALSE?
A)Evaluation of the precision of a sample result is important to most researchers and therefore they seek to use probability samples whenever possible.
B)In general,probability sampling requires personnel who are more skilled and experienced than nonprobability sampling.
C)Probability samples will usually cost substantially more than a nonprobability sample of the same size on a per observation basis.
D)One real advantage that probability samples have over nonprobability samples is their greater economic efficiency.
E)Elements of the sample are selected objectively.
Q3) A(n)____________________ is a subset of elements from a larger group of objects.
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the estimated range of incomes for 30 medium size businesses is $60,000,a rough estimate of one standard deviation would be
A)$10,000.
B)$12,000.
C)$8,000.
D)$8,500.
E)$9,000.
Q2) Exhibit 16.4 A researcher is attempting to determine the average annual expenditures per household on compact discs.Suppose $600 was considered the upper limit and $0 the lower limit.There are no past studies on which to base an estimate of s. Refer to Exhibit 16.4.If the desired precision is +$25 and the desired confidence interval is 95%,what is the necessary sample size?
A)240
B)540
C)92
D)64
E)None of the above.
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Q1) Which of the following is TRUE?
A)The percentage of not-at-homes has been decreasing for a long time.
B)Answering machines help interviewers schedule callback times.
C)It is much easier to find a "responsible adult" at home than a specific respondent.
D)One to two calls are often needed to reach three-fourths of the sample of households.
E)To maintain consistency,callbacks should be made at the same time as the original call.
Q2) The contact rate can be used to
A)compare the performance of interviewers.
B)measure the interviewer's persistence in making a contact.
C)measure the wisdom the interviewer displays in scheduling a callback.
D)Both a and b.
E)a,b,and c.
Q3) Duplication in the list of sampling units results in sampling error.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Name the type of nonsampling error that occurs due to data editing,coding,or analysis errors: ____________________
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Q1) Which of the following statements about open-ended questions is FALSE?
A)Precoding is not necessary.
B)Response categories are provided for respondents.
C)There are multiple legitimate responses.
D)When categorizing open-ended responses,it is often necessary to include an "other" category.
E)All of the above statements about open-ended questions are true.
Q2) Which of the following statements about the coding process is FALSE?
A)During the coding process,data are categorized.
B)Raw data are transformed into symbols during the coding process.
C)Coding involves judgment on the part of the coder.
D)The coding process occurs almost automatically.
E)All of the above statements about the coding process are true.
Q3) Which of the following statements is(are)true regarding coding?
A)The classes should always be mutually exclusive and exhaustive.
B)Multiple responses should never be coded.
C)Coding closed-ended questions is more difficult than coding open-ended questions.
D)Alphabetic codes should be assigned to the classes.
E)Both a and b are true statements.
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Q1) Which of the following would NOT be an example of a situation involving univariate analysis?
A)A publisher of a magazine is interested in determining what proportion of the magazine's readers is male.
B)A restaurant would like to know the average income of its typical diner.
C)A car dealership is particularly interested in whether or not people who own vans are more or less likely to finance auto purchases compared with people who don't own vans.
D)A service provider needs to know her customer's average level of satisfaction with the services provided.
E)All of the above are examples for which univariate analysis could be performed.
Q2) Type I error
A)occurs when a true null hypothesis is rejected.
B)is usually referred to as significance level.
C)is symbolized by alpha (?).
D)a,b,and c.
E)None of the above are correct.
Q3) Discuss the most commonly used descriptive statistics.
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Q1) Suppose the ordinary least-squares approach to a regression analysis produced the following Y = 20 - 39X
R<sup>2</sup> = .90
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)For every unit change in X there is a corresponding negative change in the average value of Y of 39 units.
B)90 percent of the variation in Y is associated with variation in X.
C)The slope of the line is 20.
D)The average value of Y given x = 10 is -370.
E)If X = 0,then Y = 20.
Q2) Carters,a marketer of children appeal,knows that as girls increase in age,their dress size tends to get larger.This is an example of a causal type of relationship?
A)True
B)False
Q3) If the F-value in ANOVA produces a significantly high p-value (a.k.a."Sig." in SPSS)of 0.11 or more,then it is appropriate to proceed with a post-hoc test (e.g. ,Duncan).
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The basics of the sampling plan used in the research project are typically presented in the ____ of the written report.
A)summary
B)conclusion
C)body
D)introduction
E)appendix
Q2) Definitions of unfamiliar terms used in the report should be defined in the A)introduction.
B)summary.
C)body.
D)conclusions.
E)appendix.
Q3) Which of the following characteristics should NOT affect the content of the research report?
A)The reader's technical sophistication.
B)The reader's interest.
C)The circumstances surrounding the research.
D)The intended use of the report.
E)The researcher's technical sophistication.
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