Marketing Management
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Marketing Management explores the foundational principles and advanced strategies used in the contemporary marketing landscape. The course emphasizes understanding customer needs, market segmentation, targeting, and positioning, as well as the development of effective marketing mixes (product, price, place, promotion). Students will analyze real-world case studies to examine how organizations conduct market research, develop marketing plans, and adapt to dynamic global environments. The course aims to equip participants with critical thinking and decision-making skills to manage marketing operations efficiently and ethically in competitive markets.
Recommended Textbook
Marketing Research 6th Edition by Alvin C. Burns
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Marketing Research
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rachel would like to create a new department within her firm. She wishes that her firm could provide information that will help link consumers outside the firm to individuals in the firm. The individuals inside the firm would make decisions used to identify marketing opportunities and problems; generate, refine, and evaluate marketing actions; monitor marketing performance; and perhaps improve the understanding of marketing as a process. Rachel should name this department:
A) the department of consumer public information
B) the marketing research department
C) the marketing performance and evaluation department
D) the marketing opportunities department
Answer: B
Q2) Marketing research is synonymous with market research.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Marketing is a part of, or a subcategory of, marketing research.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Marketing Research Process
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Questions
Q1) Carolyn Wolf is considering conducting a significant amount of marketing research to determine how to wrap boxes of products that she sends to several trade shows during the year. Carolyn's boss suggests that she should not conduct the research because:
A) competitors have not conducted such research
B) the value of the research will likely outweigh its cost
C) the cost of this research will likely outweigh its value
D) the CEO of the company has not asked for the research
E) the marketing manager is not favorable toward research
Answer: C
Q2) Jeff Williams is the marketing director for Acme Ford. Jeff receives the customer satisfaction scores for the month and notices that they are below objectives and are significantly lower than they have been in the last two years. This means that there is a gap between:
A) what did happen and what could have happened
B) what was supposed to happen and what did happen
C) what already has happened and what will happen in the future
D) what will happen in the future and what happened in the past
E) what happened in the past and what could have happened in the past
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Marketing Research Industry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Full-service supplier firms:
A) take over customer firms
B) are known as companies that excel in providing customer service
C) have the ability to conduct the entire marketing research project
D) are always internal supplier firms
E) provide services at a reduced cost due to economies of scale
Answer: C
Q2) An example of deception in marketing research is to observe shoppers in a supermarket without their permission.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Although "sugging" is considered unethical, it is not illegal.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) "Phony RFPs" are considered unethical.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Defining the Problem and Determining Research Objectives
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Q1) A researcher determines she must collect data from likely buyers of a proposed new product on a scale that measures the probability that they will purchase the product. This is an example of:
A) an opportunity
B) use of research when it is not needed
C) a research objective
D) the problem
E) an RFR, "request for research"
Q2) Which of the following has these common elements? Introduction, Scope of Proposal, Deliverables, Evaluation Criteria, Deadline and Bidding specifics.
A) The research report
B) Opening remarks given by marketing researchers to clients
C) ITB's or RFP's
D) IBM's or ICBM's
E) The research process
Q3) Once decision alternatives are stated, it is appropriate to determine the "consequences" of the alternatives.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Research Design
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Q1) If the research objective is to gain background information, it is likely that the most appropriate research design would be:
A) exploitive
B) exhaustive
C) deductive
D) exploratory
E) causal
Q2) Which of the following is a type of exploratory research that refers to a review of available information about a former situation(s)that has some similarities to the present research problem?
A) secondary data analysis
B) experience surveys
C) projective techniques
D) case analysis
E) ex post facto studies
Q3) Knowledge of research design is helpful because certain designs can be matched with certain problems and this provides a blueprint for the researcher.
A)True
B)False
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Using Secondary Data and Online Information
Databases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Had it not been for the Baby Boomers, Elvis Presley might still be driving a truck in Memphis, Tennessee
A)True
B)False
Q2) External data may be grouped into which three sources?
A) published, syndicated services data, and databases
B) published, nonpublished data, and other electronic sources
C) syndicated services data, external data, and complex data
D) fields, records, databases
E) published, fields, CRMs
Q3) Which of the following was NOT discussed as a method of evaluating secondary data?
A) What was the purpose of the study?
B) How readily available is the information to the public?
C) Who collected the information?
D) How consistent is the information with other information?
E) How was the information obtained?
Q4) Within the Survey of Buying Power, EBI is defined as Elongated Billing Index.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Standardized Information Sources
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mary Elizabeth Yarbrough is a farmer in the San Francisco, California area. She grows herbs thought to be medicinal and other products thought to promote health and nutrition. Her business is quite large, but in the past she has found it hard to make decisions about which products to add, drop or to consider for future crops because she has a difficult time finding market data. However, she learned recently there is a firm by the name of SPINS that happens to be located in San Francisco that provides data collected by scanners in natural and organic food stores. Her problem, now solved, illustrates which disadvantage of scanner tracking data discussed in your textbook?
A) For those products distributed through small stores, not covered by Nielsen or Information Resources, there is no scanner tracking data.
B) Herbs, nor any product that is not endorsed by the American Medical Association, may be tracked via scanning devices.
C) Scanning data is useful only for products that are distributed nationally because all scanner data are reported as a percent of national distribution.
D) Scanner data, even from small stores, is reported quickly to decision makers.
E) None of the above is true; there is no discussion of this topic in your text.
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9
Chapter 8: Observation, Focus Groups, and Other
Qualitative
Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of research would likely be called "soft" research?
A) qualitative research
B) quantitative research
C) pluralistic research
D) focus group research
E) Socratic research
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of a non-traditional focus group?
A) meet in a dedicated room
B) use a one-way mirror for client viewing
C) meet for about 2 hours
D) have 6-12 persons
E) may have 25 or even 50 respondents
Q3) Using a device attached to a family's TV or recording a sales presentation in a laboratory are examples of undisguised observation techniques.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Focus group moderators are sometimes called Qualitative Research Consultants.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Survey Data-Collection Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) Telephone surveys, although yielding high-quality samples, do not have fast turnaround times. This is why they are rarely used for political polling.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The three major ways to collect data are: have a person ask the questions, have a computer assist or conduct the questioning, or allow the respondents themselves to complete the survey.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is NOT a unique advantage to using person-administered surveys?
A) feedback
B) rapport
C) quality control
D) speed
E) adaptability
Q4) Online surveys are making profound changes in the marketing research landscape.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Measurement in Marketing Research
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rick Irizarry of Irizarry Insurance Company is conducting a survey of potential customers. One of his questions asks how much customers would be willing to pay in annual premium for a $100,000 life insurance policy. Check appropriate category:
___ $1 to $10 month
___ $11 to $20 month
___ $21 to $30 month
___ $31 to $40 month
___ $41 to $50 month
Rick should consider the level of the measurement scale to be:
A) nominal
B) ordinal
C) interval
D) ratio
E) none of the above
Q2) A common response scale for the construct of awareness is a dual-choice categorical response.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Designing the Questionnaire
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Q1) One leading question can get the same information as a series of organized, interlocking, nonleading questions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Questionnaire design is really a process of several interrelated steps.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Research has demonstrated that questionnaire design is so important that it directly affects the quality of the data collected.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The question: "Because the Founding Fathers of the United States provided citizens the right to keep and bear arms in the Bill of Rights, shouldn't you be against gun control legislation?" is:
A) a loaded question
B) a question that will trigger confusion
C) a double-barreled question
D) appropriate if you are "for" gun control legislation
E) appropriate if you are "against" gun control legislation
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Chapter 12: Determining How to Select the Sample
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Q1) A retail store selects customers at random and gives them a card asking them to go to the store's Web site and complete a survey. This is known as invitation online sampling.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Systematic sampling is one of the most prevalent types of sampling techniques used in place of simple random sampling and its use has been increasing.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If a random start is used in terms of visitors to a Web site, and then a skip interval is used to skip to the next visitor to ask to participate in a survey, this is an example of:
A) random online intercept sampling using simple random sampling
B) online panel sampling
C) statistical efficiency in online sampling
D) random online intercept sampling using systematic sampling
E) subjective sampling
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14
Chapter 13: Determining the Size of a Sample
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Sample Questions
Q1) A graph of the relationship between accuracy and size of the sample shows that accuracy decreases as sample size increases.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A sample that has been determined by using a cost-basis approach would be when:
A) the manager has discussed the statistical analysis with the research project director B) the manager has discussed the competitor's marketing results with the research project director
C) the manager has discussed the previous marketing study with the research project director
D) the manager has discussed the budget with the research project director and they have decided to spend "all they can afford" on the project E) none of the above
Q3) The only perfectly accurate sample is a census.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 14: Data Collection in the Field, Nonresponse Error, and Questionnaire Screening
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Q1) When respondents have a tendency to respond favorably or unfavorably regardless of the question, it is known as:
A) yea- or nay-saying
B) endzoning
C) unreliable response
D) research with low variability
E) None of the above; the respondent is obviously favorable or unfavorable toward the topic being evaluated.
Q2) Reversal of scale endpoints may be useful for controlling:
A) sampling error
B) falsehoods
C) nonresponse
D) attention loss
E) misunderstandings
Q3) Reversal of scale endpoints is helpful in order to change the results to more closely match the research objectives. If the objectives are met, the client will have greater satisfaction and will likely use the services of the research firm again.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Basic Data Analysis: Descriptive Statistics
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Sample Questions
Q1) If we take the square root of the summated, squared differences between each observation and the mean divided by the number of observations less one, we have a frequency distribution.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following command sequences in SPSS would allow you to generate a frequency distribution?
A) SPSS; FREQ; RUN
B) ANALYZE; DESCRIPTIVE STATISTICS; FREQUENCIES
C) ANALYZE; GENERATE; FREQ DIS
D) STATISTICS; ANALYZE; SUMMARIZE; DESCRIPTIVES
E) STATISTICS; FREQUENCY DISTRIBUTION
Q3) You can use SPSS to obtain the codes used for a dataset. You do this by opening the data file and going to:
A) CODE; DEFINITIONS; OUTPUT
B) UTILITIES-FILE INFO or UTILITIES-VARIABLES
C) UTILITIES; DEFINITIONS; CODES
D) DEFINITIONS; UTILITIES; VARIABLES; CODES; IDENTIFICATION LABELS
E) None of the above; SPSS is not your statistical package; it is SCSS.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Generalizing a Sample's Findings to its
Population and Testing Hypotheses About Percents and Means
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Q1) A hypothesis test gives you the probability of support for your hypothesis based on our sample evidence and sample size.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The z value associated with a 99 percent confidence interval is either a + or - 2.58.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The proper command sequence in SPSS to generate a confidence interval for a percentage is:
A) ANALYZE; COMPARE PERCENT; ONE-SAMPLE t TEST
B) ANALYZE; COMPARE MEANS; CONFIDENCE INTERVAL; PERCENT
C) ANALYZE; COMPARE PERCENT; CONFIDENCE INTERVAL
D) ANALYZE; COMPARE PERCENT; ESTIMATE
E) None of the above: SPSS does not perform percent estimation.
Q4) Parameter estimation is used to compare the sample statistic with what is believed to be the population value prior to undertaking the study.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Testing for Differences Between Two Groups or
Among More Than
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Q1) SPSS will report analysis of differences tests in terms of t tests.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The assumption of equal variances between two samples for differences testing, is evaluated by:
A) the test of variances
B) Levene's Test for Equality of Variances
C) Levene's Test for Heterogeneity
D) The Staniklos-Shockley Test of Equal Common Variance
E) None of the above; there is no such assumption.
Q3) Duncan's multiple range test, Scheffe's test, and Tukey's test are used for:
A) determining the significance of association among groups of related variables
B) determining the differences between means when ANOVA has produced a significant F value
C) determining the differences between means when ANOVA has produced an insignificant F value
D) determining significant differences among three or more percentages
E) None of the above; none of these are statistical tests.
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Chapter 18: Determining and Interpreting Associations
Among Variables
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Q1) The logic of the chi-square test would argue that, for a significant relationship to exist:
A) there should be large differences between the observed and expected frequencies
B) there should be few differences between the observed and expected frequencies
C) there should be no differences between the observed and expected frequencies
D) there should be negative differences between the observed and expected frequencies
E) there should be only one difference between the observed and expected frequencies
Q2) Regardless of the size of the correlation value, if it is not significant, it is meaningless.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Chi-square analysis is a form of a "goodness of fit" test.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Frequencies tables, part of cross-tabulation, contain raw data.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Regression Analysis in Marketing Research
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Q1) The National Football League office discovered data covering attendance at professional football games in the late 1940s and early 1950s. The game with the highest attendance was between the St. Louis Cardinals and the New York Giants. The office also found considerable information that someone had collected on each game day, such as the level of GDP, the DOW, numbers of persons employed, number of new businesses formed during the week preceding the game, and the population. A student intern took the information and built a regression model to predict game attendance for the upcoming season. The model:
A) should accurately predict game attendance
B) should not predict game attendance accurately because the variable levels of today (i.e., population, DOW, etc.) are out of range of those used to build the regression model
C) should predict game attendance accurately because the variable levels of today (i.e., population, DOW, etc.) are out of range of those used to build the regression model
D) should predict game attendance accurately because the variable levels (i.e., population, DOW, etc.) are within range of those used to build the regression model
E) does not have enough information
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21
Chapter 20: The Marketing Research Report: Preparation and
Presentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Significant findings and recommendations from research are meaningless unless you can:
A) write them in a physically attractive final report
B) communicate them to your client
C) communicate them to your client in a way that your client knows what you have said
D) provide supporting documentation in your report's appendix
E) provide a detailed bibliography
Q2) Which of the following is not a part of the front matter?
A) introduction
B) title fly
C) table of contents
D) abstract/executive summary
E) list of illustrations
Q3) In a marketing research report, recommendations should:
A) always be included
B) never be included
C) be included if agreed upon by the researcher/client
D) be carefully edited
E) be based on familiarity with the client
Page 22
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