Marketing Management Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Marketing Management explores the fundamental concepts, strategies, and analytical tools essential for effective marketing decision-making in dynamic business environments. The course covers key topics such as market segmentation, targeting, positioning, consumer behavior, product and brand management, pricing strategies, distribution channels, and integrated marketing communications. Students will examine real-world case studies to develop critical thinking and strategic planning skills, enabling them to create and implement marketing plans that align with organizational objectives and respond to evolving market trends. The course emphasizes ethical considerations and the impact of digital transformation on modern marketing practices.
Recommended Textbook
Marketing Research An Applied Orientation 6th Edition by Naresh K Malhotra
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Marketing Research
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Q1) Limited-service suppliers ________.
A)specialize in one or a few phases of the marketing research project
B)are research studies conducted for different client firms but in a different way
C)collect and sell common pools of data designed to serve information needs shared by a number of clients.
D)offer a wide variety of marketing research services tailored to suit a client's specific needs
Answer: A
Q2) More information can be obtained from MIS than from ad hoc marketing research projects, but MIS is limited in the amount and nature of information it provides and the way this information can be used by the decision maker.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) DSS differs from MIS in that the DSS is more rigidly structured than the MIS. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Defining the Marketing Research Problem and Developing an Approach
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Q1) Regulatory policies and norms within which organizations must operate, refer to the ________ factor of the environmental context of the problem.
A)legal environment
B)economic environment
C)objectives
D)buyer behavior
Answer: A
Q2) Research questions ask what general information is required with respect to the problem components.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) ________ are refined statements of the specific components of the problem.
A)Hypotheses
B)Research questions
C)Marketing research problems
D)Analytical models
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Research Design
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Q1) ________ is a type of non-sampling error arising from respondents who do respond but give inaccurate answers, or their answers are mis-recorded or mis-analyzed. It may be defined as the variation between the true mean value of the variable in the net sample and the observed mean value obtained in the marketing research project.
A)Random sampling error
B)Non-response error
C)Non-sampling error
D)Response error
Answer: D
Q2) Jerry and the team working on the Roger Tire Company marketing research project are developing ways to test their hypothesis that drivers of larger trucks prefer dual belted radial tires. What type of research are they conducting?
A)simple research
B)exploratory research
C)descriptive research
D)causal research
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Exploratory Research Design: Secondary Data
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Q1) Which of the following is a disadvantage of audit services (Table 4.3 in the text)?
A)interviewer errors; respondent errors
B)data is lacking in terms of content, quantity, and quality
C)data may not be representative; quality of data limited
D)coverage may be incomplete; matching of data on the competitive activity may be difficult
Q2) It is possible to locate information on a particular topic in several different publications by using ________.
A)directories
B)indexes
C)guides
D)statistical published data
Q3) Surveys are the primary means of obtaining information about consumers' motives, attitudes, and preferences.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the advantages and uses of secondary data.
Q5) What are the major advantages of secondary internal data?
Q6) Discuss the disadvantages of different types of scanner data.
6
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Chapter 5: Exploratory Research Design: Qualitative Research
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Q1) Focus groups can be misused and abused by considering the results as conclusive. A)True
B)False
Q2) One advantage of focus groups is serendipity because ideas are more likely to arise out of the blue in a group than in an individual interview.
A)True
B)False
Q3) List at least five (5)applications of depth interviews. Give a specific example of each.
Q4) Online focus groups are appropriate for every research situation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ________ is one of the three general steps that should be followed when analyzing qualitative data. In this step, the researcher chooses which aspects of the data are emphasized, minimized, or set aside for the project at hand.
A)Data display
B)Data reduction
C)Data determination
D)Conclusion drawing and verification
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Chapter 6: Descriptive Research Design: Survey and Observation
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Q1) Decisions related to "monetary versus non-monetary" and "prepaid versus promised amount" relate to which portion of the mail interview package?
A)outgoing envelope
B)cover letter
C)questionnaire
D)incentive
Q2) An example of structured observation would be an auditor performing inventory analysis in a store.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A primary method of observation using the Internet is to count the number of times a Web page is visited.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The use of physical stimuli is not limited in ________.
A)traditional telephone interviews
B)CATI
C)e-mail surveys
D)mall-intercept interviews
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Chapter 7: Causal Research Design: Experimentation
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Q1) Which of the following is a reason why experiments may be hard to administer?
A)It may be impossible to control for the effects of the extraneous variables.
B)Competitors may deliberately contaminate the results of a field experiment.
C)Both A and B are reasons why experiments may be hard to administer.
D)Neither A nor B is a reason why experiments may be hard to administer.
Q2) The one-group pretest-posttest design may be symbolized as O<sub>1 </sub>X<sub>2</sub> O<sub>2.</sub> In this design, a group of test units is measured
A)once
B)twice
C)not at all
D)none of the above
Q3) Which of the following is true of the one-shot case study preexperimental design (X O<sub>1</sub>)?
A)It does not provide a basis of comparing the level of O<sub>1</sub> to what would happen when X was absent.
B)There is no random assignment of test units.
C)Both A and B are correct.
D)In this design, a group of test units is measured twice.
Q4) Briefly define internal and external validity.
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Chapter 8: Measurement and Scaling: Fundamentals and Comparative Scaling
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Q1) In measurement, when assigning numbers to the characteristics there must be a one-to-one correspondence between the numbers and the characteristics being measured.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Transitivity of preference is an assumption made in order to convert constant sum data to rank order data. It implies that if brand A is preferred to brand B and brand B is preferred to brand C, then brand A is preferred to brand C.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Comparative scales involve the direct comparison of stimulus objects.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Constant sum scale data are sometimes treated as metric. A)True
B)False
Q5) The origin characteristic means that the scale has no unique or true zero point.
A)True
B)False
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Q6) Discuss measurement and scaling. What are they and how are they related?
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Chapter 9: Measurement and Scaling: Noncomparative Scaling Techniques
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Q1) ________ is the degree to which a study based on a sample applies to a universe of generalizations.
A)Validity
B)Generalizability
C)Reliability
D)None of the above
Q2) A ________ is a scale for measuring attitudes that consists of a single adjective in the middle of an even-numbered range of values, from -5 to +5, without a neutral point (zero).
A)semantic differential scale
B)Likert scale
C)continuous rating scale
D)Stapel scale
Q3) Profile analysis involves determining the average respondent ratings for each item.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Figure 9.4 in the text showed the development of a multi-item scale. Discuss the development process.
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Q5) Explain how continuous rating scales can be easily implemented on the Internet.
Chapter 10: Questionnaire and Form Design
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true about difficult questions?
A)Difficult questions should be placed at the end of the section on basic information.
B)Difficult questions should be placed at the end of the identification section.
C)Difficult questions should be placed at the end of the classification section.
D)All of the statements are correct.
Q2) ________ is information that relates directly to the research problem.
A)Qualifying information
B)Identification information
C)Basic information
D)Classification information
Q3) A standardized questionnaire or form will ensure comparability of the data, increase speed and accuracy of recording, and facilitate data processing.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All aspects of the questionnaire should be tested, including question content, wording, sequence, form and layout, question difficulty, and instructions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Sampling: Design and Procedures
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Q1) Probability sampling is used to select the initial respondents for snowball sampling.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following conditions does not favor the use of a sample (Table 11.1 in the text)?
A)There are budget and time limit constraints.
B)The population is large.
C)The cost of nonsampling errors is high.
D)The cost of sampling errors is high.
Q3) A subgroup of the elements of the population selected for participation in the study is a ________.
A)judgmental sample
B)sample
C)sampling unit
D)sampling frame
Q4) When is it meaningful to sample potential respondents who are surfing the Internet?
Q5) Discuss the uses of nonprobability and probability sampling.
Q6) Discuss the advantages of systematic sampling.
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Chapter 12: Sampling: Final and Initial Sample Size
Determination
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Q1) ________ is a method to adjust for nonresponse by assigning the characteristic of interest to the nonrespondents based on the similarity of the variables available for both nonrespondents and respondents.
A)Weighting
B)Trend analysis
C)Subjective estimates
D)Imputation
Q2) ________ is a statistical procedure that attempts to account for nonresponse by assigning differential weights to the data depending on the response rates.
A)Weighting
B)Trend analysis
C)Subjective estimates
D)Imputation
Q3) Discuss what can be done to reduce not-at-homes.
Q4) The number of interviews that must be completed is the ________.
A)incidence rate
B)initial sample size
C)completion rate
D)final sample size
15
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Chapter 13: Fieldwork
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Questions
Q1) "Do not summarize or paraphrase the respondent's answers." would be instructions included in the ________ aspect of field worker training?
A)terminating the interview
B)probing
C)recording the answer
D)asking questions
Q2) All of the following are commonly used probing techniques except ________.
A)using objective/neutral questions or comments
B)ask each applicable question
C)boosting or reassuring the respondent
D)eliciting clarification
Q3) Training ensures that all interviewers administer the questionnaire in the same manner so that the data can be collected uniformly.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List and discuss the major areas of the fieldwork/data collection process.
Q5) Cheating involves falsifying part of a question or the entire questionnaire.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Data Preparation
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Q1) If possible, standard codes should be used for missing data.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ________ involves a manipulation of scale values to ensure comparability with other scales or otherwise make the data suitable for analysis.
A)Standardization
B)Variable respecification
C)Scale transformation
D)Weighting
Q3) For multivariate statistical techniques, when there is ________, cluster analysis and multidimensional scaling can be used.
A)variable interdependence
B)one dependent variable
C)more than one dependent variable
D)interobject similarity
Q4) The selection of data-transcription method is guided by the type of interviewing method used and the availability of equipment.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Frequency Distribution, Cross-Tabulation, and Hypothesis Testing
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Q1) The ________ tests the goodness of fit of the observed number of observations in each category to the number expected under a specified binomial distribution.
A)Mann-Whitney U test
B)sign test
C)binomial test
D)runs test
Q2) The difference between the smallest and the largest values in a distribution is the
A)mean
B)median
C)mode
D)range
Q3) If the samples used in the Mann-Whitney U test are from the same population, the distribution of scores from the two groups in the rank list should be ________.
A)random
B)u-shaped
C)normal
D)uniform
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Chapter 16: Analysis of Variance and Covariance
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Q1) Also referred to as SS<sub>error</sub>, ________ is the variation in Y due to the variation within each of the categories of X.This variation is not accounted for by X.
A)SS<sub>x </sub>
B)SS<sub>within </sub>
C)SS<sub>between </sub>
D)SS<sub>y </sub>
Q2) An advanced analysis of variance procedure in which the effects of one or more metric-scaled extraneous variables are removed from the dependent variable before conducting the ANOVA is called ________.
A)analysis of covariance (ANCOVA)
B)one-way analysis of variance
C)n-way analysis of variance
D)decomposition of the total variation
Q3) The most commonly used measure in ANOVA indicating the relative importance of factors is omega squared, ( <sup>2</sup>).
A)True
B)False
Q4) List the procedure for conducting one-way analysis of variance.
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Chapter 17: Correlation and Regression
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Q1) In multiple regression, if the overall null hypothesis is rejected, we know which specific coefficients ( <sub>i</sub>s)are nonzero.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ________ is best to use to determine how strongly sales are related to advertising expenditures.
A)Multiple regression analysis
B)Partial correlation coefficient
C)ANOVA
D)Product moment correlation (r)
Q3) In the equation COV<sub>xy</sub>/ S<sub>x</sub>S<sub>y</sub>, S<sub>x</sub> and S<sub>y</sub> represent ________.
A)the standard deviation of X and Y
B)the variances of X and Y
C)the means of X and Y
D)the strength of the effects of X and Y
Q4) Standardized variables have a mean of 1 and a variance of zero.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Discriminant and Logit Analysis
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Q1) In the discriminant analysis model, the coefficients, or weights (b), are estimated so that the groups differ as much as possible on the values of the discriminant function. This occurs when the ratio of between-group sum of squares to within-group sum of squares for the discriminant scores is at a maximum.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The hit ratio is the number of variables found to be significant by the discriminant analysis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In discriminant analysis, rejecting the null hypothesis means there is significant discrimination between groups.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The binary logit model is also called ________.
A)stepwise regression
B)logistic regression
C)OLS regression
D)none of the above
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Chapter 19: Factor Analysis
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Q1) When selecting variables to serve as surrogate variables, you should look for the variable with the highest loading on a factor.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Generally, the number of factors determined by a scree plot will be one or a few less than that determined by the eigenvalue criterion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If the goal of factor analysis is to reduce the original set of variables to a smaller set of composite variables for use in subsequent multivariate analysis, it is useful to ________.
A)compute factor scores for each respondent
B)compute discriminant scores for each respondent
C)select surrogate variables
D)both A and B are correct
Q4) It is possible to compute as many principal components as there are variables; in doing so, parsimony is gained.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 20: Cluster Analysis
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Q1) Measuring similarity in terms of distance between pairs of objects is the most common approach used in cluster analysis for grouping similar objects together.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not a procedure to check the quality of clustering results?
A)Perform cluster analysis on the same data using different distance measures.Compare the results across measures to determine the stability of the solutions.
B)Delete variables randomly.Perform clustering based on the reduced set of variables.Compare the results with those obtained by clustering based on the entire set of variables.
C)Use the same method of clustering and compare the results.
D)Split the data randomly into halves.Perform clustering separately on each half.Compare cluster centroids across the two subsamples.
Q3) Which is best to use when selecting a clustering procedure: hierarchical or nonhierarchical clustering?
Q4) What are the steps in conducting cluster analysis (Figure 20.3 in the text)?
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Chapter 21: Multidimensional Scaling and Conjoint Analysis
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Q1) The interpretation of results in correspondence analysis is similar to that in principal components analysis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ________ is a computer program developed for conducting MDS.
A)MONANOVA
B)PREFMAP
C)LINMAP
D)SIMGRAF
Q3) Conjoint analysis could be used for all of the marketing applications below except
A)determining the relative importance of attributes in the consumer choice process
B)estimating market share of brands that differ in attribute levels
C)used as a general data reduction tool
D)determining the composition of the most preferred brand
Q4) Preference data order the brands or stimuli in terms of respondents' preference for some property.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Structural Equation Modeling and Path Analysis
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Q1) In moving from the measurement model to the structural model the exogenous constructs each become endogenous.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An exogenous construct is represented in an structural path model as a an oval with no one-headed arrows going into it.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________ are the actual items that are measured using a survey questionnaire.
A)Constructs
B)Measured variables or indicators
C)Latent factors
D)Observed factors
E)Estimated Parameter
Q4) Generally, we use SEM to find a suitable model.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe path analysis and its relationship to SEM.
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Chapter 23: Report Preparation and Presentation
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Q1) ________ are an attractive way of illustrating trends and changes over time.
A)Line charts
B)Pictographs
C)Bar charts
D)Histograms
Q2) Discuss why the report and its presentation are important parts of the marketing research project.
Q3) A list of tables, list of graphs, list of appendices, and list of exhibits are found in which part of the marketing research report?
A)table of contents
B)letter of transmittal
C)letter of authorization
D)executive summary
Q4) The conclusions and recommendations section should only include a summary of the statistical results.
A)True
B)False
Q5) To what length should the researcher go when writing the conclusions and recommendations section of the marketing research report?
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Chapter 24: International Marketing Research
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Q1) When conducting international marketing research, marketing environment considerations include all of the following except ________.
A)the efficiency of the distribution system
B)the quality of the product
C)the public's attitude toward advertising
D)government control of media
Q2) Gallup China will face many challenges in China. Which of the statements below is not one of those challenges?
A)rapidly increasing competition
B)consumer awareness and sophistication
C)government regulation
D)the forming of bonds with the Chinese people in order to be able to conduct successful research
Q3) Conceptual equivalence is a type of ________ equivalence.
A)construct
B)operational
C)scalar
D)linguistic
Q4) Explain why back translation and parallel translation are needed.
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