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Marketing for Managers is designed to provide future business leaders with a comprehensive understanding of marketing principles and their strategic applications in organizational settings. This course covers essential topics such as market analysis, segmentation, targeting, consumer behavior, branding, and the development of effective marketing strategies. Emphasis is placed on the integration of marketing with other business functions and the use of marketing tools to influence customer perceptions, drive demand, and create competitive advantage. Through real-world case studies, interactive discussions, and practical projects, students will develop the analytical and decision-making skills required to address marketing challenges and lead successful marketing initiatives within any organization.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of Marketing A Marketing Strategy Planning Approach 14th Edition by Perreault
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Sample Questions
Q1) Marketing will not happen unless:
A) e-commerce is flourishing.
B) collaborators are present to simplify exchange.
C) intermediaries are present to facilitate exchange.
D) two or more parties each have something they want to exchange for something else.
E) an economy is market-directed rather than command.
Answer: D
Q2) A firm with a marketing orientation is MOST likely to:
A) view advertising as an unnecessary expense.
B) recognize that effective advertising is the key to sales.
C) advertise how a product meets customers' needs.
D) focus advertising on product features.
E) not use any advertising.
Answer: C
Q3) Adoption of the marketing concept is now universal.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) When Sony Corp., an electronics producer, purchased the Pebble Beach golf course in California, it was pursuing what type of opportunity?
A) Diversification
B) Market development
C) Market penetration
D) Product development
Answer: A
Q2) Of the four types of opportunities firms can pursue, market penetration often appeals to marketers because:
A) it requires the creation of new products.
B) it involves selling current products in familiar markets.
C) it involves selling current products in unfamiliar markets.
D) it doesn't require a more effective use of the marketing mix.
E) it is guaranteed to succeed.
Answer: B
Q3) Most companies implement only one marketing strategy at a time.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Compared to some countries in Latin America, the rate of inflation in the U.S. is low.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Gross domestic product (GDP) is the:
A) total cost of producing all goods and services sold in a year.
B) total market value of goods and services provided in an economy in a year by both residents and nonresidents of that country.
C) total market value of goods (but not services) consumed in an economy in a year.
D) total market value of goods and services consumed in a year.
E) total market value of goods (but not services) produced in an economy in a year. Answer: B
Q3) Company objectives should shape the direction and operation of the whole business.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Planning marketing strategies for international markets:
A) is usually most effective when the marketing manager uses the same marketing strategy for all markets.
B) is often easier than planning domestic strategies because economic, political, and other uncontrollable variables are less important.
C) is "easy" because each country should be treated as one target market.
D) None of these alternatives is true.
Q2) Tom and Sally Jones are preparing to purchase a new car. He currently has a Toyota Camry and she has a Honda Accord. They now have two children under age 5, so they plan to trade in Sally's car to purchase a minivan. Sally and Tom decided on a Honda Odyssey because Sally is familiar with Hondas and thinks they are very reliable. In this purchase situation, Tom and Sally's family life cycle stage is a _____________ segmenting dimension, and the benefit Sally seeks (reliability) is a _____________ segmenting dimension.
A) geographic; demographic
B) demographic; behavioral
C) geographic; behavioral
D) demographic; geographic
E) behavioral; demographic
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Q1) Learning is a change in a person's thought processes caused by prior experience.
A)True
B)False
Q2) _____ is a person's point of view toward a product, an advertisement, a salesperson, a firm, or an idea.
A) An attitude
B) A belief
C) A preference
D) An impression
E) A cue
Q3) Most economists assume that consumers are "economic buyers" who logically evaluate choices to get the greatest satisfaction from spending their time and money.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Motivation theory suggests that only one need can be satisfied at a time.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A report on a seller's website that describes how one of its customers solved a specific problem by using the seller's products is called a(n):
A) white paper.
B) outsource.
C) executive summary.
D) case study.
E) mission statement.
Q2) Once a suppler relationship has been established, purchases of the "straight rebuy" variety will most likely be transacted by:
A) a meeting with all buying center members.
B) a meeting with top executives only.
C) personal e-mails to the purchasing manager.
D) e-commerce computer systems.
E) phone.
Q3) Just-in-time relationships between buyers and sellers usually require operational linkages and information sharing.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Reshma Ananda, a marketing manager for the Grocery SuperStore retail chain, fired up a computer program that gave her ready access to information about product availability and customer buying. The program helped her immediately set prices for bananas and cherries. This type of computer program is called ______.
A) a decision support system
B) data warehouse management
C) an Internet
D) PRICE analysis software
E) raw data manager
Q2) A marketing manager wants to know why her sales are down. She talks with several sales reps and finds that a competitor has introduced a successful new product. This "research" seems to be part of
A) the situation analysis.
B) the problem solution stage.
C) obtaining problem-specific data.
D) the data interpretation stage.
E) the problem definition stage of the research process.
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Q1) Expense items which have had more processing than raw materials and become part of a finished product are component parts and materials.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If a brand consistently delivers on a promise that purchasers consider important, those purchasers are likely to develop a _______ for the brand.
A) disliking
B) trust
C) demand
D) mistrust
E) tolerance
Q3) Which of the following statements is not characteristic of a good?
A) Goods are tangible items that can be touched.
B) Goods can be produced and then stored to sell at some future time.
C) Goods are typically manufactured at the location where the customer makes the purchase.
D) Goods can be owned by the customer.
E) Goods are typically mass-produced.
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Q1) If an individual is injured by a defective or unsafely designed product, the seller's legal obligation to pay damages is called product liability.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An ROI estimate is needed during the ______________ step of the new-product development process.
A) commercialization
B) development
C) idea evaluation
D) screening
E) All of these steps need an ROI estimate.
Q3) Product managers are especially common in small, single-product companies.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A product that is new in any way for the company concerned is a new product, according to the text.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A wholesaler might help a producer by reducing the producer's need for market research.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The 80/20 rule-that 80 percent of a company's sales often come from just 20 percent of its customers-is a good reason for marketers to use:
A) selective distribution
B) intensive distribution
C) exclusive distribution
D) international distribution
E) multichannel distribution
Q3) Intermediaries are needed LEAST when the desired degree of market exposure is:
A) intensive.
B) ideal.
C) selective.
D) exclusive.
E) none of these choices is correct.
Q4) Digital products cost more to distribute than physical products.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Shipping by air
A) is most useful for smaller, high-value items.
B) may reduce handling costs.
C) generally involves higher transportation costs than other modes of transportation.
D) offers greater delivery speed.
E) All of these alternatives are correct for shipping by air.
Q2) Regarding airfreight, which of the following statements is NOT true?
A) Airfreight may reduce the total cost of distribution.
B) Inventory costs usually increase, since only small quantities can be shipped at a time.
C) Very bulky items cannot be shipped economically.
D) Airfreight is opening up new markets for many perishable items.
E) There are usually fewer problems from theft and damage with airfreight.
Q3) Private warehouses (compared to public warehouses) are most appropriate when a firm has a regular need to store a large quantity of goods.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) When a department store manager decides to offer its female shoppers a free trial of Clinique's new skin cream, this is a decision about:
A) Product
B) Place
C) Promotion
D) Price
Q2) Which of the following is LEAST likely to be sold by a supercenter?
A) Trash compactor
B) Photo finishing
C) Lawn care materials
D) Aspirin
E) Milk
Q3) Franchising now accounts for about a third of all retail sales.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Category killers is another name for single-line mass-merchandisers.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The pulling approach emphasizes the importance of securing the wholehearted cooperation of channel members to promote the product in the channel and to the final user.
A)True B)False
Q2) Integrated direct-response promotion has expanded beyond direct-mail advertising to include other media.
A)True B)False
Q3) A producer might use a "pulling policy" rather than a "pushing policy" if:
A) intermediaries are reluctant to handle a new product.
B) it is offering a very "high-tech" product to a small product-market.
C) its sales force has been very successful getting wholesalers and retailers to handle its product.
D) it has a very limited promotion budget.
E) All of these alternatives are correct.
Q4) The traditional view of promotion has focused on communication initiated by the buyer.
A)True B)False
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Q1) According to the text, to recruit, motivate, and keep good salespeople, a firm has to
A) provide encouragement by giving trophies and certificates.
B) give public recognition.
C) develop an effective compensation plan.
D) offer a promotion.
E) reinvent its marketing strategies.
Q2) Some firms are adopting new software and hardware technologies to get a competitive advantage in personal selling.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The prepared sales presentation involves developing a good understanding of the individual customer's needs before trying to close the sale.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A producer's order taker may explain details, handle complaints, and train the customer's employees.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In its ads, Clorox touts the effectiveness of its Disinfecting Wipes by claiming that they disinfect better than those made by Windex, a competing brand. This is:
A) reminder advertising.
B) comparative advertising.
C) selective advertising.
D) institutional advertising.
E) primary advertising.
Q2) Advertisers often decline to work with agencies who handle competing accounts. A)True
B)False
Q3) Considering that only a small percentage of cell phone users in many developed countries have smartphones, advertisers are wary about the effectiveness of delivering online ads on smartphones.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most Internet ads seek a delayed response. A)True
B)False
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Q1) A "skimming pricing policy":
A) should be used if a firm expects strong competition very soon.
B) is most useful when demand is very elastic.
C) is typically used during the sales decline stage of the product life cycle.
D) usually involves a slow reduction in price over time.
E) means temporary price cuts to speed new products into a market.
Q2) Some manufacturers give ______________ to retailers to pass on to the retailers' salesclerks to encourage aggressive selling of specific items or lines.
A) advertising allowances
B) cash discounts
C) slotting allowances
D) "push money"
E) quantity discounts
Q3) Push money allowances are intended to make the retailers' salespeople sell particular products very aggressively.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) "Demand-backward" pricing:
A) starts with an acceptable final consumer price and works backward to what producers can charge.
B) ignores demand estimates.
C) is only sensible when the channel captain is a large retailer.
D) is an average-cost pricing approach.
E) None of these alternatives is correct.
Q2) Cost-oriented approaches are the most common price setting approach.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If a retailer adds a 25-cent markup to a product which costs the retailer $1.00, then according to the text the retailer's markup is 20 percent.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Price lining tends to result in faster turnover, fewer markdowns, quicker sales, and simplified buying.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following does NOT support the idea that MICRO-marketing often DOES cost too much?
A) Product planners frequently develop me-too products.
B) Many firms focus exclusively on their own internal problems.
C) Many firms try to maximize profits.
D) Managers routinely seize on whatever strategy seems easiest.
E) None of these, i.e. all of these do support the idea that MICRO-marketing often DOES cost too much.
Q2) Environmental problems pose a major hazard to society and they are a particular threat to many firms working in the environmental engineering and management industry.
A)True
B)False
Q3) MICRO-marketing will probably continue to cost too much as long as:
A) the marketing concept is not accepted.
B) firms fail to identify new opportunities.
C) firms do "mass marketing."
D) some managers believe that anyone can run a business successfully.
E) All of these are reasons why MICRO-marketing will probably continue to cost too much.
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