Marketing for Hospitality and Tourism
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Marketing for Hospitality and Tourism explores the unique challenges and strategies involved in promoting hospitality and tourism services. This course covers the fundamentals of marketing theory as applied to hotels, restaurants, travel companies, and tourist attractions. Students will analyze consumer behavior, segmentation, branding, and positioning within the context of a global and competitive marketplace. Emphasis is placed on the development and execution of marketing plans, pricing strategies, digital marketing, and the use of technology to reach and engage target audiences. Real-world case studies and hands-on projects provide practical experience, preparing students to effectively drive business success in the dynamic hospitality and tourism sectors.
Recommended Textbook
hospitality marketing management 5th edition by robert d. reid
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Operations Management
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Q1) While service and manufacturing firms contribute more to the economy and offer more jobs at all levels, ________________________ are also important to our lives and the economy.
Answer: Agriculture, fishing, and forestry; construction, and extraction (mining, oil and natural gas, industrial gases).
Q2) Which famous economist once suggested that, "The production problem has been solved."?
A)John Nash
B)Irving Fisher
C)John Kenneth Galbraith
D)Adam Smith
E)John Maynard Keynes
Answer: C
Q3) When did operations management emerge as a formal field of study?
A)during the late 1950s and early 1960s
B)during the late 1970s and early 1980s
C)during World War II
D)during the nineteenth century
E)during the early 1900s
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Operations Strategy and Competitiveness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rapid technological change includes the risk of ________________________ . Answer: obsolescence.
Q2) A firm produces 100 units using 800 labor hours. What is its labor productivity?
A)0.125 units/hour
B)8 units/hour
C)100 units/hour
D)800 units/hour
E)-0.125 units/hour
Answer: B
Q3) Estimating productivity requires measurements of ________________________ and ________________________.
Answer: results and effort; output and input, etc.
Q4) __________ ________ is used to improve the process of creating goods and services.
Answer: Process technology
Q5) If a company's inputs for producing a certain product increase by 10% and the output increases by 25%, what is the percentage productivity increase for that product?
Answer: 13.6%
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Chapter 3: Product Design and Process Selection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which product and service strategy is used to produce standard components that can be combined to customer specifications?
A)assemble-to-deliver
B)make-to-stock
C)assemble-to-order
D)make-to-order
E)make-to-package
Answer: C
Q2) Product design decisions are:
A)purely tactical decisions.
B)mixed tactical and strategic decisions.
C)strategic in nature.
D)only made by the OM department.
E)rarely made.
Answer: C
Q3) Substituting technology for people has been argued to reduce what in the service delivery?
Answer: uncertainty of service delivery
Q4) Name a company that hurt its business success by changing its Operations Type.
Answer: Babcock & Wilcox is one example.
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Chapter 4: E-Commerce and Supply Chain Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of technology provides "point-of-sale information?"
A)Automatic guided vehicles (AGV)
B)Automatic storage and retrieval systems (ASRS)
C)Barcode scanners
D)Flexible manufacturing systems (FMS)
E)Computer aided design/computer aided manufacturing (CAD/CAM)
Q2) Will's omelet factory produces 2,500 omelets a day. They've determined that their daily fixed costs are $4,000 with a variable cost of fifteen cents per omelet. (a)What is the total cost to make a day's omelets, and (b)what should Will charge for each omelet to make a 10% profit, rounded to the next whole dollar?
Q3) Early supplier involvement refers to the involvement of critical suppliers for what?
A)Strategic planning
B)Assembly line design
C)Speedy delivery planning
D)Selection of new suppliers
E)New product design
Q4) Rationing and shortage gaming occur when supply exceeds demand.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Total Quality Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) ISO 14000 is for evaluating
A)Automotive suppliers
B)Minority suppliers
C)Raw materials
D)A company's environmental responsibility
E)Service suppliers
Q2) Who is the "grandfather of quality control?"
A)Walter Shewhart
B)W. Edwards Deming
C)Joseph Juran
D)Phillip Crosby
E)Genichi Taguchi
Q3) In six-sigma the level of defects is reduced to approximately
A)0
B)1.4 parts per million
C)2.4 parts per million
D)3.4 parts per million
E)4.4 parts per million
Q4) What are the seven categories for Malcolm Baldrige Award criteria?
Q5) Who are the seven primary quality gurus?
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Chapter 6: Statistical Quality Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the upper control limit for a c-chart if the total defects found over 20 samples equals 150?
A)7.5
B)2.739
C)15.72
D)20
E)30
Q2) Describe how finance is associated with SQC.
Q3) If the upper control limit for a c-chart is 28 and the lower control limit is 4, what is the average number of defects per sample?
A)16
B)12
C) 5.29
D) 7.29
E) 4
Q4) Define attribute (as a product characteristic).
Q5) Statistical quality control is a subset of statistical process control.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Six sigma programs strive to set control limits at ________________________.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Just-In-Time and Lean Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does a company need to successfully implement JIT?
Q2) An employee who will not help a customer because "it is not my job" violates the JIT belief of
A)Simplicity
B)A broad view of operations
C)Continuous improvement
D)Visibility
E)Pull production
Q3) In a JIT environment, workers need to
A)Protect themselves from their boss's whims
B)Be prepared to be reprimanded
C)Keep their ideas to themselves
D)Always work in pairs
E)Feel secure in their jobs
Q4) Just-In-Time relies on cross-functional worker skills.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Part of JIT philosophy is to design operations that are highly efficient but flexible in order to accommodate changing ______________________.
Page 9
Q6) Name three ways that quality at the source includes more than manufacturing.
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Chapter 8: Forecasting
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Sample Questions
Q1) Moving average forecasts with a larger number of observations are more responsive than those with a smaller number of observations.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Suppose that you are using the four-period simple moving average method to forecast sales, and sales have been increasing by 20% every period. How will your forecasts perform?
A)Forecasts will be lower than actual.
B)Forecasts will be higher than actual.
C)Forecasts will equal actual.
D)Forecasts will be decreasing.
E)Forecasts will be increasing by 5.0% every period.
Q3) The first step in forecasting is:
A)determine what data is available
B)decide what to forecast
C)evaluate and analyze appropriate data
D)select and test the forecast model
E)establish the forecast accuracy requirements
Q4) What is one of the simplest ways to combine forecasts?
Q5) What is the exponential smoothing formula?
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Chapter 9: Capacity Planning and Facility Location
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Q1) Two sizes are being considered for a new facility, medium and large. Discuss best operating level in this context.
Q2) When discussing the capacity of a facility, we need what two types of information?
A)the amount of available capacity and the productivity of workers
B)the speed of the machines and the availability of labor
C)the amount of available capacity and the effectiveness of capacity use
D)the investment in equipment and the availability of labor
E)the investment in equipment and the number of workers
Q3) Investments in building or purchasing long-term production facilities are inherently risky due to __________.
A)uncertainty in forecasting future demands
B)unexpected changes in interest rates
C)durability of materials
D)corporate mergers
E)rapid technology changes
Q4) Under ideal conditions the firm can achieve 125% of design capacity on a daily basis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Facility Layout
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Sample Questions
Q1) Consider a production line that has a station with two machines, and each unit produced at the station needs to be processed by both of the machines. (A unit cannot be worked on by both machines simultaneously.)Each machine has a production capacity of 4 units per hour. What is the lowest possible cycle time of the station?
A)4 minutes per unit
B)8 minutes per unit
C)7.5 minutes per unit
D)30 minutes per unit
E)15 minutes per unit
Q2) What are the two primary tools used to identify closeness measures during the layout design process?
A)REL chart and from-to matrix
B)MRP chart and from-to matrix
C)x-bar chart and from-to matrix
D)MRP chart and x-bar chart
E)x-bar chart and REL chart
Q3) A predecessor can be worked in parallel with a successor.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Work System Design
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of standard times for costing allows the company to do all except which of the following?
A)evaluate quantitative methods
B)evaluate new product proposals
C)evaluate use of new equipment
D)evaluate new techniques for building a product
E)evaluate individual operator proficiency
Q2) Establishing a performance factor is an attempt to:
A)fudge the actual times.
B)punish the worker who does not perform fast enough.
C)counterbalance any unusual patterns noted.
D)allow management to 'encourage' greater productivity.
E)use the ISO 9000 approval process.
Q3) The approach that details the tasks of a job and how to do them is
A)work measurement
B)job evaluation
C)methods analysis
D)job design
E)work sampling
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Chapter 12: Independent Demand Inventory Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Consider a firm with an annual demand of 6000 units, a setup cost of $20 per order, and an annual holding cost per unit of $2. If the company purchases 1200 units every time that they order, what are the total annual setup and holding costs?
Q2) Manufacturing's cost efficiency is not affected by inventory decisions. A)True B)False
Q3) A computer company has annual demand of 20,000. They want to determine EOQ for circuit boards which have an annual holding cost (H)of $10/unit, and an ordering cost (S)of $75. The purchasing lead time is 5 days. What is the TC and reorder point ( R)?
A)300 units, $3,000
B)400 units, $5,477
C)200 units, $2,000
D)350 units, $5, 277
E)400 units, $5,350
Q4) Inventory management is a key component of effective supply chain performance. A)True
B)False
Q5) What inventory function protects against supply shortages?
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Chapter 13: Aggregate Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a way to increase capacity?
A)Change depreciation methods.
B)Use overtime.
C)Employ temporary workers.
D)Subcontract.
E)Use alternative manufacturing processes.
Q2) The comparison of aggregate plans is difficult when they produce different quantities and have different ending inventories.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The master production schedule is reviewed:
A)annually
B)semi-annually
C)quarterly
D)monthly
E)weekly
Q4) In evaluating the current situation, the point of departure is the size of the change that is needed.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Resource Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the objectives of second-generation ERP systems?
Q2) Under what conditions are action notices generated?
Q3) Scheduled receipts are _________________________________________.
A)planned orders
B)planned orders offset by lead time
C)gross requirements offset by lead time
D)gross requirements minus inventory
E)replenishment orders that have been placed but not yet received
Q4) The lead time can be less than the cumulative lead time when
A)the company has inventory on hand
B)the order has already been shipped
C)the supply chain is well tuned
D)there is no safety time
E)the order is expedited
Q5) ____________________ uses a database that supports processes across functional areas.
Q6) ERP systems are more commonly found in small companies than in large ones.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Scheduling
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Sample Questions
Q1) A local priority rule sets priority based only on the jobs waiting at that individual work center.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Define what slack is.
Q3) Slack can be calculated if _______________________.
A)infinite loading and finite loading are used together
B)infinite loading and forward scheduling are used together
C)finite loading and backward scheduling are used together
D)finite loading and forward scheduling are used together
E)forward scheduling and backward scheduling are used together
Q4) Marketing uses flow time metrics to determine if deliveries are made on time.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Operational schedules that consider work center capacity use ________________.
Q6) Makespan is a measure of WIP.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Define job tardiness.
Q8) Discuss how companies can benefit from both infinite and finite loading. Page 17
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Chapter 16: Project Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) A feeding buffer protects a ______ path from delays in a __________.
A)shortest, buffer overflow
B)noncritical, critical path
C)critical, noncritical path
D)critical, longest variance
E)noncritical, longest variance
Q2) Removing safety time from the individual activities and putting the total safety time at the end of the critical path creates a(n)___________________.
A)project safety net
B)project buffer
C)overconfident project manager
D)activity shortage
E)larger number of activities
Q3) Who is responsible for the success and failure of a project?
A)CEO
B)Program Manager
C)Project Manager
D)Project Sponsor
E)Functional Manager
Q4) PERT stands for ___________________.
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Chapter 16: Spreadsheet Modeling: an Introduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the most important three dimensions along which a spreadsheet model should be evaluated?
A)aesthetic, correct, and flexible
B)aesthetic, documented, and flexible
C)correct, documented, and flexible
D)aesthetic, correct, and documented
E)correct, documented, and random
Q2) In Excel, the command to print row and column headings is checked under which menu/submenu?
A)Print
B)Page Setup
C)Tools
D)View
E)Insert
Q3) Many seemingly complex spreadsheet models really comprise only a handful of truly distinct formulas.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe and discuss the two different types of model inputs.
Q5) Data tables perform _____________ what-if ___________ quickly and easily.
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Chapter 17: Spreadsheet Modeling: an Introduction
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Q1) Discuss how the Solver Sensitivity Report is fundamentally different than the other reports.
Q2) The Answer Report Target Cell, Adjustable Cell, and Constraint sections all include:
A)base value, original value
B)original value, final value
C)base value, final value
D)original value, test value
E)bounded value, un-bounded value
Q3) In Excel Solver, the Decision Cells correspond to the decision variables in the algebraic model.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What does LP stand for?
A)Linear Partition
B)Linear Program
C)Large-Scale Program
D)Linear Parameter
E)Linear Parallelism
Q5) What are the four steps to setting up an optimization problem with Excel Solver?
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Chapter 18: Waiting Line Models
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Sample Questions
Q1) The university replication facility provides copier repair service for the university and for local businesses. Over the last year the mean arrival rate is 55 copiers a month. The repair facility uses two identical repair technicians who can repair an average of 30 copiers each month. The university is considering changing out the copiers and expects that the average arrival time will drop to 25 copiers per month. This will allow them to reassign one of the technicians to other tasks. Assume the change has occurred and the system is set up as a single channel; first come first serve, single server system.
a)What is the utilization of the service center?
b)What is the average number of copiers waiting in the system?
c)What is the average number of copiers in the waiting line?
d) What is the average time a copier is waiting to be repaired
e) What is the average time the copier is in the waiting line?
f)What is the probability that 6 copiers will be in the system at a given time?
Q2) Consider a single-line, single-server waiting line system. Suppose that customers arrive according to a Poisson distribution at an average rate of 50 per hour, and the average (exponentially distributed)service time is 45 seconds per customer. What is the average time spent in the system (in minutes)?
Q3) List possible priority rules for waiting line systems.
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Chapter 19: Master Scheduling and Rough-Cut Capacity Planning
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Q1) Changes to the MPS that are requested inside of the demand time fence must be approved by a higher authority.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Discuss why a negative number in the available-to-promise row is always a problem.
Q3) Which of the following is not a correctly stated step of the CPOPF method?
A)Determine the appropriate planning factors using historical data.
B)Multiply the MPS quantities by the appropriate planning factor.
C)Sum capacity requirements for each resource by time period.
D)Allocate capacity requirements to group work centers based on historical percentages.
E)Evaluate the workload at each resource to validate MPS feasibility.
Q4) In an MPS record, the forecast row shows the forecasted supply for the product.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the master scheduler's objectives when developing the MPS.
Q6) In an MPS record, MPS shipments arrive at the beginning of the time period.
A)True
B)False Page 23
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