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This course provides a comprehensive overview of manufacturing systems, exploring the organization, design, and management of production processes in modern industries. Students will learn about various types of manufacturing systems such as job shops, flow lines, and flexible manufacturing systems, as well as the integration of automation, robotics, and information systems for efficient production. Topics also include production planning and control, facility layout, material handling, quality assurance, lean manufacturing, and the impact of emerging technologies. Through case studies and practical examples, students gain insight into strategies for optimizing manufacturing operations and improving productivity in a competitive global market.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Operations Management 3rd Canadian Edition by Larry P. Ritzman
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Q1) Explain how productivity is measured.
Answer: Productivity is the value of outputs (goods and services)produced divided by the values of input resources (wages,cost of equipment,and the like)used to produce these outputs.The basic formula for computing productivity is Productivity = Output / Input
Many measures of productivity are possible,and may in fact involve rough approximations.For example,output may be measured in the number of units produced or the dollar value customers pay for outputs.The value of inputs can be measured based on costs or by the units such as labour hours.Typically companies will rely on several reasonable measures of productivity,monitoring trends to identify areas needing improvement.A measure of labour productivity is an index of the output per person or hour worked.Similarly,machine productivity is an index of the output a machine produces over a period of time (e.g.hour or day).Productivity measures can also account for several inputs simultaneously.Multifactor productivity is an index of the output provided by more than one of the resources used in production.For example,it may account for inputs of labour,materials,and overhead costs in one measure of productivity.When developing such a measure,quantities must be converted to a common unit of measure,typically dollars.
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Q1) Manufacturing firms typically enter into contracts with Tier 2 suppliers with the expectation that these suppliers will then incorporate the guidelines of these contracts into the agreements they in turn enter into with Tier 1 suppliers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Sole sourcing of an item is never a good tactic.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) ________ is the awarding of a contract for an item or service to only one supplier.
Answer: Sole sourcing
Q4) ________ is an inventory measure obtained by dividing the average aggregate inventory value by sales per week at cost.
Answer: Weeks of supply
Q5) The performance of a(n)________ process is directly linked to its capacity and variability of demand.
Answer: logistics
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Q1) The emphasis of reengineering is on the functional departments.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which one of the following statements about flexible automation is best?
A) Investment cost is lower when a transfer machine handles many operations.
B) Chemical processing plants and oil refineries mainly utilize programmable automation.
C) It is an automatic process that can be reprogrammed to handle various products.
D) It achieves top efficiency; accommodating new products is difficult and costly.
Answer: C
Q3) A continuous process is characterized by a high degree of job customization.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) ________ automation produces one type of product or part in a sequence of simple operations.
Answer: Fixed
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Q1) In a tire manufacturing plant,measuring capacity based on the number of tires produced per day is an example of an input measure of capacity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Using the information from Table 4.2,what is the minimum number of machines needed (assuming no reliance on short-term options)?
A) less than or equal to 22
B) more than 22 but less than or equal to 25
C) more than 25 but less than or equal to 28
D) more than 28
Q3) Wait time is not part of the throughput time for a specific item as it moves through a process.
A)True
B)False
Q4) As the total output increases,economies of scale lower costs because the total fixed costs required to produce the higher volume of output are lowered.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In a periodic review (P)inventory system,the lot size ordered may change from one order to the next but the time between orders is fixed.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Use the information in Table 5.8.What is the EOQ for this item?
A) greater than 0 but less than or equal to 1500 units
B) greater than 1500 but less than or equal to 3000 units
C) greater than 3000 but less than or equal to 4500 units
D) greater than 4500 units
Q3) ________ is the number of orders filled completely relative to the total number of orders.
Q4) A stockout is a customer order that cannot be filled when promised or demanded but is filled later.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What assumptions are made in calculating the economic order quantity?
Q6) As the holding cost (H)decreases,the economic order quantity (EOQ)increases.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Process capability can be addressed when
A) assignable causes are present.
B) a process is in statistical control.
C) a process is in statistical control but assignable causes are present.
D) the nominal value equals the tolerance regardless of assignable causes.
Q2) Which one of the following statements about total quality management is TRUE?
A) The consumer's perception of quality does not depend on psychological impressions.
B) Although poor quality increases overall costs, studies have failed to find any correlation between quality and market share.
C) Finding the best "percent defective" level is a trade-off between process costs and the losses caused by poor quality.
D) Quality prevention is concerned with detection of quality errors, whereas quality control is concerned with both the detection and prevention of quality problems.
Q3) Provide a synopsis of Deming's views of quality management.
Q4) Describe and explain the steps necessary for determining the capability of a process.List all data elements that are required for this purpose.
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Q1) The advantages of JIT systems include all but which one of the following?
A) reduction in space requirements
B) increase in productivity
C) reduction in inventory
D) reduction in machine utilization
Q2) Because most services cannot be inventoried,there is little place for JIT to help service organizations achieve competitive advantage.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When a push system is replaced by a pull system using small lot sizes,which one of the following is expected to happen?
A) WIP will increase.
B) Cycle time will decrease.
C) More units will be reworked to fix a quality problem.
D) More space will be required for inventory.
Q4) The goal of single-digit setup means having setup times shorter than 10 seconds. A)True
B)False
Q5) With respect to JIT systems,what is the advantage of standardized components?
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Q1) A(n)________ determines the sequence for undertaking activities.
Q2) Using Table 3.9,what is the probability that the project will be completed in 24 weeks or less? You will need to refer to a standard normal table to answer the question.
A) less than or equal to 55%
B) greater than 55% but less than or equal to 65%
C) greater than 65% but less than or equal to 75%
D) greater than 75%
Q3) Using Table 3.3,what is the largest amount of slack that any activity in the project has?
A) 0 weeks
B) 1 week
C) 2 weeks
D) 3 or more weeks
Q4) The earliest start time for an activity is equal to the
A) smallest earliest finish time of all of its immediate predecessors.
B) largest earliest finish time of all of its immediate predecessors.
C) smallest late start time of any of its immediate predecessors.
D) largest late finish time of all of its immediate predecessors.
Q5) Explain what it means to crash activities within a project.
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Q1) Which one of the following is usually an advantage of building a new facility,compared to on-site expansion?
A) reducing construction time and costs
B) keeping management together
C) reducing transportation costs
D) not splitting up operations
Q2) The space in a bank where customers line up for teller service is not an economic activity centre.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Using the information in Table 9.4.If a company desires to locate a manufacturing facility at the center of gravity,what would be the x- and y-coordinates of the facility?
A) x ? 14, y ? 14
B) x ? 14, y > 14
C) x ? 15, y ? 14
D) x ? 15, y > 15
Q4) A(n)________ layout arranges workstations or departments in a linear path.
Q5) Location factors can be divided into ________ and ________ factors
Q6) A(n)________ layout arranges the product in a fixed place.
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Q1) The advantage of the simple moving average forecast is that it allows you to emphasize recent demand over earlier demand.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Only a handful of organizations experience seasonal demand for their goods or services.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Use the information in Table 10.4.Suppose actual sales in June turn out to be 40 units.Use the three-month moving average method to forecast the sales in July.
A) less than or equal to 27
B) greater than 27 but less than or equal to 29 units
C) greater than 29 but less than or equal to 31 units
D) greater than 31 units
Q4) What is focus forecasting?
Q5) Define and discuss market research as it applies to forecasting.
Q6) Describe five methods that marketing and operation managers can use to jointly manage demand .
Q7) Explain what r = 0 means in regression analysis.
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Q1) A plant facing seasonal demand can stock anticipation inventory during light demand periods and use it during heavy demand periods.
A)True B)False
Q2) A TV repair service company has a seasonal demand for its service,and there is a general shortage of skilled TV repair persons.Which one of the following is a capacity production planning alternative suitable for this situation?
A) Hire and lay off workers to match the demand requirements.
B) Increase the backlog for short-term demand surges.
C) Offer reduced prices during the slack season.
D) Build anticipation inventories.
Q3) What are the complicating factors in workforce scheduling?
Q4) ________ is the allocation of resources over time to accomplish specific tasks.
Q5) ________ can supply services,make components and subassemblies,or even assemble an entire product to overcome short-term capacity shortages,
Q6) Subcontracting is never on an alternative,when implementing aggregate planning.
A)True B)False
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Q1) Use the information from Table 13.6.If the lot-sizing rule were L4L instead of FOQ = 30 units,what would be the planned order release quantity week 1?
A) 0 units
B) 10 units
C) 20 units
D) 40 units
Q2) The ability of one piece of software to interact with others is called interoperability.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The lot-sizing rule that generates the highest level of average inventory because it creates inventory remnants is
A) lot-for-lot (L4L).
B) periodic order quantity (POQ).
C) fixed order quantity (FOQ).
D) usage quantity.
Q4) What is an "action notice" in an MRP system?
Q5) A(n)________ item is the final product sold to a customer.
Q6) Discuss the master production schedule.
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Q1) Using the information in Table A.2,which alternative is best if further study revealed that the probability of high growth is 0.2,the probability of medium growth is 0.5,and the probability of low growth is 0.3?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
Q2) A(n)________ shows the amount of revenue for each alternative if each possible event occurs.
Q3) A chance event that has an impact on the outcome of the choice but is not under the manager's control is called a(n)________.
Q4) Why should a decision maker engage in sensitivity analysis?
Q5) A payoff table shows the amount for each alternative if each possible event occurs. A)True
B)False
Q6) ________ is a general approach to decision making when the outcomes associated with alternatives are often in doubt.
Q7) The ________ is the volume at which total revenues equal total costs.
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Q1) The ________ method of calculating annual depreciation is the simplest,and usually is adequate for internal planning purposes.
Q2) Cash flows should be converted to ________ amounts before applying the net present value,payback,or internal rate of return method to them.
Q3) Depreciation
A) is an allowance for the consumption of capital.
B) acts as a tax shield.
C) is not a legitimate cash flow.
D) All of the above.
Q4) The advantage of using the modified accelerated cost recovery system (MACRS)for depreciation is that it extends the lives of investments,giving a firm a longer period of time before the item must be replaced.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Depreciation is not a legitimate cash flow.
A)True
B)False
Q6) ________ is the cash that will flow into and out of the organization.
Q7) ________ is an allowance for the consumption of capital.
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Q1) Compare and contrast the method of time study to the method of work sampling.What are the strengths and limitations of each,and for which applications are they best suited?
Q2) Keith assembles peanut valves and the recorded data is displayed in the table.What is the select time for this job element if he is rated at 75%?
\[\begin{array} { | c | c | }
\hline \begin{array} { c }
\text { Time } \\
\text { (minutes) }
\end{array} & \text { Observations } \\
\hline 2.5 & 15 \\
\hline 3.0 & 23 \\
\hline 3.5 & 27 \\
\hline
\end{array}\]
A) Greater than or equal to 3 minutes
B) Less than 3 minutes but greater than or equal to 2.7 minutes
C) Less than 2.7 minutes but greater than or equal to 2.4 minutes
D) Less than 2.4 minutes
Q3) What are the four steps in a time study?
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Q1) Which one of the following is an assumption of learning curves?
A) The cumulative time of production decreases as production increases.
B) Time reduction per unit increases as cumulative production increases.
C) The same learning curve should be used when a company increases its level of automation.
D) The reduction in time per unit follows an exponential curve.
Q2) The fourth unit took 10 hours to produce and the learning rate is expected to be 80 percent.How long will it take to produce the tenth unit? Refer to the copy of Table G.1 above.
A) Fewer than or equal to 7.0 hours
B) Greater than 7.0 hours but fewer than or equal to 8.0
C) Greater than 8.0 hours but fewer than or equal to 9.0
D) Greater than 9.0
Q3) Why is the learning rate more pronounced for complex products than for simple products?
Q4) The mathematical model that is used to generate a learning curve is ________.
Q5) How are learning curves useful in financial planning?
Q6) The estimated time to produce the first unit is 100 hours.If a 90 percent learning rate is applicable,what is the estimated time of producing the tenth unit? Refer to the copy of Table G.1 above.
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Q1) What are the functions of and differences between a flexible manufacturing system and a flexible manufacturing cell?
Q2) Which one of the following is NOT a possible benefit from robot installation?
A) Less waste materials
B) More consistent quality
C) Longer lead time
D) Accepting zero wages and performing hazardous tasks without complaint
Q3) ________ are versatile,computer-controlled machines programmed to perform various tasks.
Q4) Which of the following statements regarding technological choice is best?
A) An FMS generally integrates workstations with a computer-controlled transport system for moving materials and parts.
B) A numerically controlled machine is a very efficient technology, particularly for a high-volume production process.
C) FMS is the most attractive technology for a high-volume assembly operation.
D) Industrial robots are quite limited in the tasks they can perform.
Q5) A(n)________ is a computer-controlled method of sorting and retrieving materials and tools using racks,bins,and stackers.
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of a type I error?
A) Buying a carton of eggs at the store and discovering that one was broken
B) Releasing a guilty defendant
C) Returning your computer for warranty repair when the fault was caused by user error
D) Passing defective materials from a supplier into your processes to keep your workers busy
Q2) A manufacturer wants a sampling plan in which AQL = 0.02,LPTD = 0.12,? = 0.05,and ? = 0.10.Which of the following values for n and c best satisfy these specifications? Table I.1 is appended to this exam.
A) n = 54, c = 3
B) n = 100, c = 2
C) n = 200, c = 1
D) n = 162, c = 0
Q3) Rectified inspection occurs when all defective items in the lot are replaced with good items if the lot is rejected and any defective items in the samples are replaced if the lot is accepted.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The manager of a branch bank wants to build a simulation model of the lobby operation to reduce the waiting time of her customers.The number of customers waiting in line at any point of time is an example of
A) a decision variable.
B) an uncontrollable variable.
C) a time-compressed variable.
D) a dependent variable.
Q2) Which of these is a special simulation language?
A) C++
B) FORTRAN
C) SLAM
D) VISUAL BASIC
Q3) Excel can be used to perform
A) discrete, next-event simulation.
B) continuous simulation.
C) analog simulation.
D) Monte Carlo simulation.
Q4) The two approaches to data collection for simulation are ________ and ________.
Q5) Why is simulation considered the method of last resort?
Q6) ________ are random events that the decision maker cannot control.
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Q1) The economic production lot size represents the maximum quantity of on-hand inventory for a manufacturer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A pencil supplier just introduced quantity discounts.The price schedule follows. \[\begin{array} { | c | c | }
\hline \text { Order Quantity } & \text { Price per Unit } \\
\hline 000 - 199 & \$ 4.00 \\
200 - 399 & \$ 3.00 \\
400 \text { and more } & \$ 2.00 \\ \hline
\end{array}\]
XYZ store's annual demand remains at 500 units and ordering cost at $10 per order.If annual holding cost is 10 percent of the pencils' per-unit price,what order quantity should XYZ select to minimize all costs?
A) Fewer than or equal to 150 units
B) Greater than 150 units but fewer than or equal to 199 units
C) Greater than 199 units but fewer than or equal to 399 units
D) Greater than 399 units
Q3) A(n)________ is the minimum quantity needed to receive a discount.
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Q1) The assumption of ________ allows a decision maker to combine the profit from one product with the profit from another to realize the total profit from a feasible solution.
Q2) ________ is an assumption that the decision variables must be either positive or zero.
Q3) A constraint is a limitation that restricts the permissible choices.
A)True B)False
Q4) For an = constraint,only points ________ are feasible solutions.
Q5) The ________ is the upper and lower limit over which the optimal values of the decision variables remain unchanged.
Q6) ________ are the limitations that restrict the permissible choices for the decision variables.
Q7) A(n)________ forms the optimal corner and limits the ability to improve the objective function.
Q8) Decision variables are represented in both the objective function and the constraints while formulating a linear program.
A)True B)False
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Q1) Use the information in Scenario C.1.What is the average number of people waiting in line and being seated?
A) 0.66
B) 1.00
C) 2.00
D) 3.00
Q2) Operations time refers to a time to complete a subset of activities at a workstation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A(n)________ selects the next customer to be served at the service facility.
Q4) Which of the following is LEAST likely to benefit from waiting line analysis?
A) Capacity planning
B) Inventory management
C) Budget planning
D) Scheduling
Q5) A bank that dedicates one window for commercial account customers and one window for personal account channel has two channels.
A)True
B)False
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