Manufacturing Management
Question Bank
Course Introduction
Manufacturing Management focuses on the principles and practices involved in planning, organizing, directing, and controlling manufacturing operations. The course covers key topics such as production systems, process analysis, workflow design, inventory control, quality management, logistics, and supply chain strategies. Students explore methods for improving efficiency, productivity, and product quality while addressing challenges related to cost, sustainability, and technological advancements. Real-world case studies and contemporary issues in manufacturing provide insight into the practical application of management techniques and decision-making skills required for effective leadership in modern manufacturing environments.
Recommended Textbook Operations Management 11th Edition by William J. Stevenson
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Operations Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) The greater the degree of customer involvement, the more challenging the design and management of operations.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following statements about variation is FALSE?
A)Variation prevents a production process from being as efficient as it can be.
B)Some variation can be prevented.
C)Variation can either be assignable or random.
D)Any variation makes a production process less productive.
E)Random variation generally cannot be influenced by managers.
Answer: D
Q3) Operations managers, who usually use quantitative approaches, are not really concerned with ethical decision-making.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Competitiveness, Strategy, and Productivity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not typically considered a cure for poor competitiveness?
A)remove communications barriers within organizations
B)minimize attention to the operations function
C)put less emphasis on short-term financial results
D)recognize labor as a valuable asset and act to develop it
E)improve quality
Answer: B
Q2) Increasing the service offered to the customer makes it more difficult to compete on the basis of ______.
A)order qualifiers
B)customization
C)quality
D)price
E)flexibility
Answer: D
Q3) Productivity is defined as the ratio of output to input.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Forecasting
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Sample Questions
Q1) Use of simple linear regression analysis assumes that:
A)Variations around the line are random.
B)Deviations around the line are normally distributed.
C)Predictions are to be made only within the range of observed values of the predictor variable.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Answer: D
Q2) What is this year's forecast using a two-year weighted moving average with weights of .7 and .3?
A)19,400
B)18,600
C)19,000
D)11,400
E)10,600
Answer: A
Q3) What is the linear regression trend line for these data (t = 0 for spring, three years ago)?
Answer: (y=17 + 2.33t)
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Product and Service Design
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Sample Questions
Q1) Elements of the service process in which there is little to no contact with the customer are referred to as ____________.
A)robust
B)delayed differentiators
C)back-of-the-house
D)user-friendly
E)mission-consistent
Q2) Reliability can be defined in terms of a particular point in time or in terms of length of service.
A)True
B)False
Q3) "Design for production" takes into account the capabilities of the organization to produce or deliver a given product or service.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The process of dismantling and inspecting a competitor's product to discover improvement is called reverse engineering.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Strategic Capacity Planning for Products and Services
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Sample Questions
Q1) If her available land has design and effective capacities of 3,000 and 2,000 rosebushes per year respectively, and she plans to grow 1,200 rosebushes each year on this land, what will be the utilization of this land?
A)0%
B)40%
C)60%
D)67%
E)100%
Q2) Design capacity refers to the maximum output that can possibly be attained.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A reason for the importance of capacity decisions is that capacity:
A)limits the rate of output possible
B)affects operating costs
C)is a major determinant of initial costs
D)is a long-term commitment of resources
E)all of the above
Q4) Capacity planning requires an analysis of needs; what kind, how much and when.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Process Selection and Facility Layout
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Sample Questions
Q1) A disadvantage of a product layout can be high in-process inventory costs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Right-sized equipment tends to be larger than equipment used in traditional process layout.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Accounting, purchasing, and inventory control are fairly routine with process layouts.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Product layouts can more easily adapt to variations in product requirements than process layouts can.
A)True
B)False
Q5) For eight hours of operating time per day and a desired output rate of 960 units per day, what is the minimum number of stations needed to achieve the appropriate cycle time?
Q6) What is the minimum possible cycle time?
Q7) What is the total flow between departments B and D?
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Chapter 7: Work Design and Measurement
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Sample Questions
Q1) One disadvantage of specialization is worker dissatisfaction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The chart used to review the overall sequence of an operation by focusing on either the movements of the operator or materials is called a _________.
A)SIMO-chart
B)Gantt chart
C)Worker-materials chart
D)Flow process chart
E)Multi-activity chart
Q3) Predetermined time standards involve the use of published data regarding how long various activities are expected to take.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What number of observations would be required in a time study in order to obtain a 95 percent confidence that the average time observed was no more than 0.6 minutes from the true mean, assuming a standard deviation of cycle time of 1.8 minutes?
Q5) What is the observed time for this task?
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Chapter 8: Location Planning and Analysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) For service organizations, the dominant factors in location analysis usually are market-related.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Global Positioning Systems (GPS) use the Center of Gravity method to establish starting grid co-ordinates.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Factor rating is limited to quantitative information concerning location decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Location options don't usually include:
A)expansion
B)a contract
C)adding new facilities
D)moving
E)doing nothing
Q5) For what range of output would you prefer site B?
Q6) For what range of output would you prefer site C?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Management of Quality
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Sample Questions
Q1) The PDSA cycles is also referred to as the Baldrige Wheel.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cause-and-effect diagrams are sometimes called:
A)Pareto diagrams
B)fishbone (Ishikawa) diagrams
C)run charts
D)control charts
E)none of the above
Q3) A quality circle is a cross-functional team focused on quality.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Juran describes quality management as a trilogy that consists of quality planning, quality control, and quality improvement.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Product design choices are usually the result of inputs from accounting and human resources.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Quality Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) A p-chart would be used to monitor _______.
A)average shrinkage
B)dispersion in sample data
C)the fraction defective
D)the number of defects per unit
E)the range of values
Q2) Suppose the long-run average of this coating process is 0.09 millimeters.Further suppose this process' standard deviation is 0.015 millimeters.What proportion of the output from this process will fail to meet specifications?
Q3) Range charts and p-charts are both used for variable data.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An R value of zero (on a range chart) means that the process must be in control since all sample values are equal.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A c-chart is used to monitor the number of defects per unit for process output.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Aggregate Planning and Master Scheduling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a basic option for altering the availability of capacity in a service environment?
A)overtime
B)hiring/layoff
C)part time
D)inventory
E)All of these are basic capacity options.
Q2) What quantity is available for commitment to new customers prior to the receipt of the MPS quantity in week 3?
A)14
B)32
C)12
D)20
E)impossible to say without additional information.
Q3) What are total costs for the six periods?
Q4) What are total overtime costs?
Q5) Master schedulers are employed primarily by service organizations.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What are total regular time costs?
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Chapter 12: MRP and ERP
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lumpy demand for components results primarily from the periodic scheduling of batch production.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Net requirements equal gross requirements minus safety stock.
A)True
B)False
Q3) MRP output reports are divided into two main groups - daily and weekly.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Comparing known and expected capacity requirements with projected capacity availability is the job of _______.
A)planned releases
B)load reports
C)lot sizing
D)work loading
E)time fencing
Q5) Back flushing takes place after the production has been completed.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Inventory Management
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Sample
Questions
Q1) The injection molding department of a company uses 40 pounds of a powder a day.Inventory is reordered when the amount on hand is 240 pounds.Lead time averages five days.It is normally distributed and has a standard deviation of two days.What is the probability of a stockout during lead time?
Q2) All of the following are possible reasons for using the fixed order interval model except:
A)Supplier policy encourages use.
B)Grouping orders can save in shipping costs.
C)The required safety stock is lower than with an EOQ/ROP model.
D)It is suited to periodic checks of inventory levels rather than continuous monitoring.
E)Continuous monitoring is not practical.
Q3) EOQ inventory models are basically concerned with the timing of orders. A)True B)False
Q4) Safety stock is held because we anticipate future demand. A)True B)False
Q5) For the economic order quantity, what is the average inventory level?
Q6) For the economic order quantity, what are average weekly carrying costs?
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Jit and Lean Operations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lean purchasing requires frequent contract bidding by multiple sources to ensure the buyer of competitive prices.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Successful lean implementation requires much more than slogans and idealistic goals such as zero inventories and zero defects.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The term that refers to the automatic detection of defects is:
A)kaizen
B)kanban
C)autonomation
D)automation
E)100% inspection
Q4) The single-minute exchange of die is a system for reducing defective product.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Increased setup times equal increased work in process inventories.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Supply Chain Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a barrier to integration of separate organizations in the supply chain? (I) conflicting objectives of the companies in the chain. (II) different level of capacity of the companies in the chain. (III) reluctance of the organizations in the chain to allow other organizations access to their data.
A)I only
B)I and II
C)II and III
D)I and III
E)I, II and III
Q2) The goal of supply chain management is to synchronize supply and demand of all of the organizations that are part of the chain.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In supply chain organizations, functions must operate independently of each other.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Scheduling
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Sample Questions
Q1) A Gantt chart is a basic scheduling tool that is most useful in low-volume systems.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Scheduling pertains to:
A)hiring workers
B)process selection
C)buying machinery
D)timing the use of specific resources
E)determining the lowest cost
Q3) The EDD priority rule usually does well with regard to _______.
A)Cost
B)Lateness
C)Overtime
D)Waste
E)Makespan
Q4) If these jobs were scheduled in the sequence shown, when would idle time occur at machine B?
Q5) What is the result of modifying the row and column reductions table?
Q6) What is the result of the row and column reductions?
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Project Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Given this information about activity 3-4: ES = 10, EF = 15, LS = 16, and LF = 21, we can determine that the amount of slack associated with the activity is:
A)0
B)1
C)5
D)6
E)11
Q2) What is the probability that this project will be completed within 130 days?
A).8413
B).90
C).9544
D).9772
E).9987
Q3) What is the estimated expected (mean) time for project completion?
A)41 days
B)70 days
C)100 days
D)120 days
E)221 days
Q4) What is the total cost of reducing this project by two weeks?
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Chapter 18: Management of Waiting Lines
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Sample Questions
Q1) On average, how many parties with player's cards are waiting to be seated?
A)0.52
B)0.41
C)0.88
D)1.23
E)1.75
Q2) Customers arrive at a video rental desk at the rate of one per minute (Poisson).Each server can handle 0.40 customers per minute (Poisson).
(A) If there are four servers, determine:
(1) The average time it takes to rent a video tape
(2) The probability of three or fewer customers in the system
(B) What is the minimum number of servers needed to achieve an average time in the system of less than three minutes?
Q3) What is the average number of all items waiting in line for service?
Q4) The goal of waiting line management is to eliminate customer waiting lines.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the overall average arrival rate?
Q6) What is the average number of low priority items waiting in line for service?
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Linear Programming
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the maximum profit?
A)$0
B)$30,000
C)$42,000
D)$45,000
E)$54,000
Q2) For the products A, B, C and D, which of the following could be a linear programming objective function?
A)Z = 1A + 2B + 3C + 4D
B)Z = 1A + 2BC + 3D
C)Z = 1A + 2AB + 3ABC + 4ABCD
D)Z = 1A + 2B/C + 3D
E)all of the above
Q3) What is the optimum production combination and its profits?
Q4) In the range of feasibility, the value of the shadow price remains constant. A)True B)False
Q5) An example of a decision variable in an LP problem is profit maximization. A)True B)False
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Chapter 20: Extension 4: Reliability
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Sample Questions
Q1) Availability cannot be increased without improving the time between breakdowns.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The time between failures for an electrical appliance is exponentially distributed with a mean of 25 months.What is the probability that the next failure won't occur before 30 months have elapsed?
A)Not in excess of .2
B)In excess of .2 but not in excess of .3
C)In excess of .3 but not in excess of .4
D)In excess of .4 but not in excess of .6
E)In excess of .6
Q3) A system consists of two components, each of which must activate if the system is to activate.One component has a reliability of .99.The other has a reliability of .95.What is the overall system reliability?
A).99
B).95
C).94
D).90
E)Cannot be determined with this information.
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Chapter 21: Extension 5: Decision Theory
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Sample Questions
Q1) The expected monetary value criterion (EMV) is the decision-making approach used with the decision environment of:
A)certainty
B)risk
C)uncertainty
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q2) If she uses the minimax regret criterion, which advertising strategy will she use?
A)print
B)mixed
C)television
D)either print or mixed
E)either mixed or television
Q3) What is the expected value for the optimum decision alternative?
A)$15,000,000
B)$9,060,000
C)$8,400,000
D)$7,200,000
E)$6,000,000
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Extension 7: Learning Curves
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Sample Questions
Q1) It took exactly 10 hours to perform the first kidney transplant on a 100 percent learning curve.The second kidney transplant will take how many hours to perform?
A)8.0 hours
B)10.0 hours
C)12.0 hours
D)A 100 percent learning curve cannot exist.
E)5 hours
Q2) Learning curves are mostly relevant for complex, new activities that have not been done often.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the appropriate learning curve?
A)70 percent
B)75 percent
C)80 percent
D)85 percent
E)90 percent
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24
Chapter 23: Extension 8: The Transportation Model
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a transportation problem with three locations and two destinations, the objective function is as follows: Min 20X<sub>11</sub> + 18X<sub>21</sub> + 23 X<sub>31</sub> + 16X<sub>12</sub> + 14X<sub>22</sub> + 12X<sub>32</sub>.How much does it cost to ship one unit from location 2 to destination 1?
A)18
B)12
C)23
D)16
E)None of the above.
Q2) In a transportation problem with three locations and two destinations, the objective function is as follows: Min 20X<sub>11</sub> + 18X<sub>21</sub> + 23 X<sub>31</sub> + 16X<sub>12</sub> + 14X<sub>22</sub> + 12X<sub>32</sub>.How much does it cost to ship one unit from location 1 to destination 2?
A)18
B)12
C)23
D)16
E)14
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Extension 10: Acceptance Sampling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following would not be a reason for using acceptance sampling?
A)high cost of passing defectives.
B)large number of items.
C)destructive testing.
D)boredom and fatigue that would accompany complete inspection.
E)low cost of passing defectives.
Q2) If he uses an acceptance sampling plan of n = 5 and c = 2, what is the probability that, if this batch is 40% defective, it will be rejected and receive 100% inspection prior to shipment?
A)0.1270
B)0.2730
C)0.3174
D)0.6826
E)0.7270
Q3) Acceptance sampling plans might call for selection of:
A)one or more samples
B)a variable number of samples based on actual results
C)random inspections
D)outside audits by testing agencies
E)100% inspection
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Chapter 25: Extension 14: Maintenance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major approaches used in plans to deal with breakdowns include all of the following except:
A)standby equipment
B)inventories of spare parts
C)operator repair of minor problems
D)readily available repair personnel
E)All of these are major approaches.
Q2) It is best to replace a failing piece of equipment with one that will have identical capabilities as the equipment being replaced since we are already familiar with that machine.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Preventive maintenance is generally scheduled on the basis of:
A)planned inspections
B)passage of time
C)number of operating hours
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
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