Management Theory
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Course Introduction
Management Theory explores the foundational concepts, principles, and frameworks that have shaped the evolution of management as a discipline. The course examines classical, behavioral, and contemporary theories, focusing on the work of influential thinkers such as Frederick Taylor, Henri Fayol, Max Weber, and modern contributors. Students will learn how different approaches to management ranging from scientific management to systems theory and contingency models apply to real-world organizational structures and processes. Emphasis is placed on understanding how these theories inform decision-making, leadership, motivation, and organizational effectiveness in todays dynamic business environment.
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MGMT6 New Engaging Titles from 4LTR Press 6th Edition by Chuck Williams
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Chapter 1: Management
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Q1) According to Mintzberg, which of the following are the three major roles managers fulfill while performing their jobs?
A) interpersonal roles, informational roles, and decisional roles
B) informational roles, ethical roles, and action roles
C) corporate roles, coordination roles, and informational roles
D) decisional roles, informational roles, and organizational roles
E) interpersonal roles, intrapersonal roles, and departmental roles
Answer: A
Q2) An accountant with ____ has the ability to create a budget, compare the budget to the actual income statement, and determine unnecessary expenses.
A) technical skill
B) human skill
C) conceptual skill
D) motivational skill
E) interpersonal skill
Answer: A
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Chapter 1: Management: Part A
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Q1) A(n) _________ is a manager who was successful early in their careers, but were knocked off the fast track by the time they reached the middle to upper levels of management.
A) overachiever
B) derailer
C) first-line manager
D) arriver
E) motivator
Answer: B
Q2) Managers who train and supervise the performance of nonmanagerial employees, and who are directly responsible for producing the company's products or services, are categorized as:
A) general managers
B) middle managers
C) first-line managers
D) team leaders
E) top managers
Answer: C
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Chapter 1: Management: Part B
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Q1) Which type of skills tends to be most important to the success of lower-level managers?
A) decisional skills
B) human skills
C) conceptual skills
D) motivation to manage
E) technical skills
Answer: E
Q2) Companies look for a total of four sets of skills in individuals to identify potential managers. These desired skills are technical skills, human skills, conceptual skills, and motivation to manage.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Managers are responsible for doing the basic work in the company.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: History of Management
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Q1) Refer to ISG. What advice should the shift supervisor, who is in charge of the six college students, take from the teachings of Henri Fayol that is most likely to improve productivity?
A) Eliminating bottlenecks is the key to job effectiveness.
B) Coordination is the key to job effectiveness.
C) Integrative conflict resolution is preferable to compromise or domination.
D) Division of work will get the job done more efficiently.
E) Always follow the chain of command.
Q2) According to Chester Barnard, for many managerial requests or directives, there is a zone of indifference. A zone of indifference means ____.
A) needs to be monitored to make sure it does not grow
B) can create apathy
C) requires few resources
D) derives from the concept of personal space
E) appears when the acceptance of managerial authority is automatic
Q3) The Hawthorne Studies proved that financial incentives were not necessarily the most important motivator for workers.
A)True
B)False
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Page 6
Chapter 2: History of Management: Part A
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Q1) Human relations management focused on managers' roles and authority.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following management theorists helped develop human relations management?
A) Max Weber
B) Mary Parker Follett
C) Henri Fayol
D) Frederick Taylor
E) Henry Gantt
Q3) According to the principles of scientific management, work and the responsibility for the work should be divided equally between workers and management.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Technological management involves managing the daily production of goods and services.
A)True
B)False
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Page 7
Chapter 2: History of Management: Part B
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Q1) A Gantt chart can be used to track informal communication paths.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements about the origins of management is true?
A) Job enrichment was developed during the last half of the twentieth century.
B) Management as a field of study is only about 125 years old.
C) Information management appeared with the first computers.
D) The use of management functions would have made the building of the Egyptian pyramids more efficient.
E) All of the above statements about the origin of management are true.
Q3) In a departure from mainstream management thinking, Mary Parker Follett believed:
A) rules and procedures should be applied without favoritism
B) group dynamics produces positive peer pressure
C) conflict could be beneficial
D) work specialization was the key to efficiency
E) pay should be performance-based
Q4) Human relations management focused on managers' roles and authority.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 3: Organizational Environments and Cultures
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Q1) Legislation concerning the disposal of biological wastes, the development of more sophisticated imaging machines, and longer patient life spans would all be part of the ____ for a public hospital.
A) internal environment
B) specific environment
C) socio-cultural environment
D) general environment
E) environmental differentiation
Q2) The best way to manage legal responsibilities is to retain a large staff of legal specialists to defend the company against any charges.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The general environment consists of the economy and the technological, socio-cultural, and political/legal trends that indirectly affect all organizations.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List and briefly define the four characteristics of successful organizational cultures.
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Chapter 3: Organizational Environments and Cultures: Part
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Q1) The __________ is the set of key values, beliefs, and attitudes shared by organizational members.
A) industry code of ethics
B) internal environment
C) organizational culture
D) organizational strategy
E) organizational vision
Q2) A key factor influencing the relationship between companies and their suppliers is:
A) how dependent they are on each other
B) how much they know about each other
C) how compatible their organizational cultures are
D) the type of product being manufactured
E) all of these
Q3) According to its rate of environmental change, an organization's environment can be either stable or dynamic, but not both.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 3: Organizational Environments and Cultures: Part
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Q1) External environments are the forces and events outside a company that have the potential to influence or affect it.
A)True
B)False
Q2) __________ is/are a primary source of organizational culture.
A) The company's founder
B) The organization's competitive strategy
C) The industry in which the organization operates
D) Employees
E) Customers
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of successful organizational cultures?
A) adaptability
B) consistency
C) involvement
D) a clear vision
E) all of these
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11
Chapter 4: Ethics and Social Responsibility
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Q1) What is ethical behavior? Briefly comment on its implications for conducting business internationally.
Q2) When media in India informed the public that Coca-Cola products bottled in India contained a high level of certain cancer-causing pesticides, they were acting in the role of ____.
A) overt constituents
B) covert constituents
C) secondary shareholders
D) secondary stakeholders
E) functional customers
Q3) Which of the following is a secondary stakeholder group?
A) governments
B) suppliers
C) the media
D) employees
E) shareholders
Q4) Companies will be considered unethical if they do not perform their discretionary responsibilities.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 4: Ethics and Social Responsibility: Part A
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Q1) Ethics is the set of moral principles or values that defines right and wrong for a person or group.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Workplace deviance can be categorized by how deviant the behavior is and:
A) how the behavior was motivated
B) where the motivation occurred
C) the target of the deviant behavior
D) the intent of the violator
E) organizational norms
Q3) What is social responsibility?
A) a business's obligation to pursue policies, make decisions, and take actions that benefit society
B) a business tactic used to create relationship bonds with customers
C) what companies are obliged legally to do to protect their external environments
D) a business's responsibility to its shareholders
E) the fact businesses are responsible for monitoring their social environments so they can satisfy the needs of their customers
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Chapter 4: Ethics and Social Responsibility: Part B
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Q1) __________ is unethical behavior that violates organizational norms about right and wrong.
A) Workplace deviance
B) Organizational deviance
C) Social irresponsibility
D) Social deviance
E) An ethical dilemma
Q2) Historically, __________ responsibility means making a profit by producing a product valued by society. It has been business's most basic social responsibility.
A) discretionary
B) ethical
C) legal
D) fiscal
E) economic
Q3) Ethics is the set of moral principles or values that defines right and wrong for a person or group.
A)True
B)False
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14
Chapter 5: Planning and Decision Making
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Q1) ____ can help organizations to maintain flexibility as they plan.
A) Environmental munificence
B) Options-based planning
C) Formalization
D) Liaisons
E) Group cohesiveness
Q2) ____ plans direct the behavior, efforts, and priorities of operative employees for periods ranging from one to six months.
A) Strategic
B) Tactical
C) Operational
D) Standing
E) Procedural
Q3) ____ occurs when managers choose an alternative that is good enough, rather than the best possible alternative.
A) Maximizing
B) Optimizing
C) Availability bias
D) Negative frame
E) Satisficing
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Chapter 5: Planning and Decision Making: Part A
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Q1) Both absolute comparisons and relative comparisons are methods for identifying decision criteria.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The process of decision making emphasizes the use of systematic procedures to arrive at optimal solutions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) One method of weighting decision criteria uses ______, which is a process where each decision criterion is compared directly to every other criterion.
A) absolute comparisons
B) relative comparisons
C) valences
D) minimum threshold rule
E) comparative ranking scales
Q4) Tactical plans specify how a company will use resources, budgets, and people to accomplish specific goals within its mission.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Planning and Decision Making: Part B
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Q1) The __________ approach to decision making is a method in which an individual or a subgroup is assigned the role of a critic.
A) dialectical inquiry
B) groupthink
C) devil's advocacy
D) Delphi
E) dyadic communications
Q2) One method of weighting decision criteria uses ______, which is a process where each decision criterion is compared directly to every other criterion.
A) absolute comparisons
B) relative comparisons
C) valences
D) minimum threshold rule
E) comparative ranking scales
Q3) S.M.A.R.T. goals are Specific, Meaningful, Active, Reachable, and Timely.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Organizational Strategy
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Q1) Resource similarity and ____ are factors that determine the extent to which firms will be in direct competition with each other.
A) market commonality
B) resource quality
C) related diversification
D) product differentiation
E) customer autonomy
Q2) Based on the research evidence, related diversification appears to be a better strategy for portfolio management than unrelated diversification.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Refer to The Rolling Stones. What kind of positioning strategy does Rolling Stones, Inc. use?
A) accommodative
B) consultative
C) differentiation
D) prospector
E) growth
Q4) Differentiate between competitive inertia and strategic dissonance.
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Chapter 6: Organizational Strategy: Part A
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Q1) Which of the following is a mechanism used to examine external threats and opportunities facing a firm as well as its internal strengths and weaknesses?
A) organizational scanning
B) internal marketing
C) shadow-strategy task forces
D) benchmarking
E) a situational analysis
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the five industry forces that determine an industry's overall attractiveness and potential for long-term profitability?
A) character of rivalry
B) existing complementary products
C) bargaining power of suppliers
D) threat of substitute products
E) bargaining power of buyers
Q3) Companies often choose a stability strategy when their external environment doesn't change much, or after they have struggled with periods of explosive growth.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Organizational Strategy: Part B
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Q1) In any organization, the __________ are the less visible, internal decision-making routines, problem-solving processes, and organization cultures that determine how efficiently inputs can be turned into outputs.
A) imperfectly imitable resources
B) valuable resources
C) distinctive competencies
D) core capabilities
E) sources of innovation
Q2) Which of the following is a mechanism used to examine external threats and opportunities facing a firm as well as its internal strengths and weaknesses?
A) organizational scanning
B) internal marketing
C) shadow-strategy task forces
D) benchmarking
E) a situational analysis
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20
Chapter 7: Innovation and Change
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Q1) Kodak is a company associated with photography and has decided to become a market leader in digital imaging. Kodak can encourage the development of a culture where workers perceive that new ideas are welcomed by offering challenging work and supervisory encouragement. In other words, the company can create a(n) ____.
A) creative work environment
B) open system
C) adaptive culture
D) culture of change
E) tall structure to encourage horizontal communications
Q2) An innovation stream begins with a technological discontinuity, which is a scientific advance or a unique combination of existing technologies creating a significant breakthrough in performance or function.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Provide one example of a common error made by managers when they lead change at each of the three steps of the change process.
Q4) Identify and briefly describe the three steps involved in the process of managing organizational change as defined by Kurt Lewin.
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Chapter 7: Innovation and Change: Part A
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Q1) Organizational innovation is defined as doing things differently in an organization.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Organizational decline is typically reversible at any of its five stages.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The research on technology cycles and technological innovation applies only to high-tech products developed in the bioengineering, robotics, and computer industries.
A)True
B)False
Q4) According to John Kotter's analysis of the errors managers make when leading change, the first and potentially most serious of these errors is:
A) not establishing a great enough sense of urgency
B) declaring victory too soon
C) not anchoring changes in the corporation's culture
D) not removing obstacles to the new vision
E) a poorly designed organizational mission
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Chapter 7: Innovation and Change: Part B
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Q1) The __________ approach to managing innovation assumes that innovation is a predictable process made up of a series of steps and that compressing the time it takes to complete those steps can speed up innovation.
A) compression
B) milestones
C) dialectical
D) generational
E) prototypical
Q2) Which of the following approaches is aimed at changing large systems, small groups, or individuals?
A) General Electric workout
B) the functional approach to change
C) organizational development
D) results-driven change
E) Lewin's change synthesis
Q3) Resistance to change results from organizational factors, such as the absence of promotion guidelines, bonuses, and praise.
A)True
B)False
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Page 23
Chapter 8: Global Management
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Q1) Russia imposed limits on how much poultry, beef, and pork could be imported into the nation from the European Union (EU) in retaliation to limits the EU placed on how much grain Russia could export. What type of nontariff barrier did Russia use to control the amount of poultry, beef, and port it imported from the EU?
A) quotas
B) subsidies
C) boycotts
D) customs classifications
E) duties
Q2) Global business is defined as____.
A) the buying and selling of goods and services to people from different countries
B) includes any sale of goods and services
C) only involves companies with more than 50 employees
D) refers to sales made to people from different cultures, different regions, and different nations
E) is unregulated
Q3) Briefly describe a regional trade agreement and a worldwide trade agreement.
Q4) Briefly explain how companies can assess the growth potential of new markets.
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Chapter 8: Global Management: Part A
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Q1) Historically, companies have generally followed the phase model of globalization.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a multinational firm, managers at company headquarters typically prefer an emphasis on __________ because it simplifies decisions.
A) local consistency
B) local adaptation
C) global adaptation
D) global consistency
E) domestic adaptation
Q3) An expatriate is someone who:
A) claims dual citizenship
B) lives and works outside of his or her own country
C) believes strongly in nationalization
D) is unhappy with his or her present residence
E) desires to be employed in a country outside of his or her own
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Chapter 8: Global Management: Part B
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Q1) A country or region that has an attractive business climate for companies that want to go global has:
A) a large population of unskilled workers
B) an effective and cost-efficient place to build an office or manufacturing site
C) a small youth population
D) natural boundaries
E) all of these
Q2) What are the strategies that can be used to minimize or adapt to the political risk inherent to global business?
A) protectionist, avoidance, and offensive strategies
B) creative, cooperative, and defensive strategies
C) cooperative, customary, and nationalistic strategies
D) avoidance, protectionist, and guerrilla strategies
E) control, avoidance, and cooperative strategies
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Chapter 9: Designing Adaptive Organizations
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Q1) Kimberly-Clark is subdivided into organizational units called Kimberly-Clark Health Care, which provides products to hospitals, Kimberly-Clark Professional, which sells to businesses, and Kimberly-Clark Consumer, which sells the company's products to customers. From this information, you know that Kimberly-Clark uses ____.
A) hierarchical functionalization
B) departmentalization
C) a nonlinear organizational structure
D) a product layout
E) product formatting
Q2) The term task description refers to the number, kind, and variety of tasks that individual workers perform in doing their jobs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Identify the five traditional approaches to organizational structure. Which one is best for a company to use? Explain your answer.
Q4) Define the concept of authority and list the four dimensions which have traditionally been characterized in organizations.
Q5) What is job specialization? Briefly explain its advantages and disadvantages.
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Chapter 9: Designing Adaptive Organizations: Part A
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Q1) A(n) __________ function is an activity that contributes directly to creating or selling the company's products.
A) staff
B) line
C) mechanistic
D) organic
E) charted
Q2) Except for the core business activities that they can perform better, faster, and cheaper than others, __________ outsource all remaining business activities to outside companies, suppliers, specialists, or consultants.
A) modular organizations
B) hierarchical organizations
C) boundaryless organizations
D) organizational networks
E) virtual organizations
Q3) The process view of an organization will typically be very similar to the structural, hierarchical view of the organization.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Designing Adaptive Organizations: Part B
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Q1) __________ is the vertical and horizontal configuration of departments, authority, and jobs within a company.
A) Departmental mapping
B) Organizational charting
C) Organizational structure
D) Organizational configuration
E) Functionalization
Q2) Organizational authority is traditionally characterized by:
A) chain of command
B) empowerment
C) behavioral informality
D) reengineering
E) all of these
Q3) The central concern of the job characteristics model (JCM) is:
A) internal motivation
B) synergy
C) task identification
D) time-motion studies
E) a value-added measure
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Chapter 10: Managing Teams
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Q1) ____ occurs when workers withhold their efforts and fail to perform their share of the work.
A) Self-limiting behavior
B) Social loafing
C) De-forming
D) Stonewalling
E) Mental atrophy
Q2) Define cross training. Briefly explain how cross training can lead to increased job satisfaction.
Q3) Refer to Mattel. Which of the following terms could also be used to describe Mattel's team?
A) tactical
B) peripheral
C) cross-functional
D) tangential
E) hierarchical
Q4) In general, skill-based pay is most effective for managing the performance of self-managing and self-directing teams.
A)True
B)False
Page 30
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Chapter 10: Managing Teams: Part A
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Q1) Structural accommodation means giving teams the ability to change organizational structures, policies, and practices if it helps them meet their stretch goals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the decision-making process, teams can do a much better job than individuals in defining the problem and generating alternative solutions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Since teams should be an end in themselves, it is appropriate to use them in most situations.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The achievement of stretch goals is made easier when the team members have:
A) localized synergy
B) bureaucratic immunity
C) strategic diversity
D) organizational accommodation
E) limited cohesiveness
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Chapter 10: Managing Teams: Part B
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Q1) Structural accommodation means giving teams the ability to change organizational structures, policies, and practices if it helps them meet their stretch goals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) __________ describes the average level of ability, experience, personality, or any other factor on a team.
A) Team diversity
B) Group synergy
C) Team level
D) Team conformity
E) Team performance
Q3) Which of the following types of teams have the authority to change their composition as well as all of their tasks and work methods?
A) self-designing teams
B) sequentially interdependent teams
C) semi-autonomous work groups
D) self-managing teams
E) self-autonomous teams
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Chapter 11: Managing Human Resource Systems
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Q1) If an HR manager were allowed to use just one selection test, cognitive ability tests would be the one to use.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Refer to Trends in Hiring Practices. The need for creative skills in order to work at Amy's would be listed as a ____ that the company's HR department would have developed for franchisees.
A) task specialization
B) job description
C) work empowerment norm
D) job specification
E) multitasking capability
Q3) Once a company finishes the downsizing process, it should never need to downsize again.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cognitive ability tests are also called aptitude tests.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List and briefly define the three basic kinds of compensation decisions.
Page 33
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Chapter 11: Managing Human Resource Systems: Part A
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Q1) Which training method is NOT used to practice, learn, or change job behaviors?
A) On-the-job training
B) Role-playing
C) Simulations and games
D) Lectures
E) Vestibule training
Q2) The only time that gender, age, religion, etc. can be used to make employment decisions is when they are considered a bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ).
A)True
B)False
Q3) __________ is the loss of high-performing employees who voluntarily choose to leave a company.
A) De-employment
B) Dysfunctional turnover
C) Reactive turnover
D) Regressive turnover
E) A "brain leak"
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Chapter 11: Managing Human Resource Systems: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) The __________ interview uses only standardized, job-related interview questions that are prepared ahead of time and asked of all candidates
A) formalized
B) structured
C) semi-structured
D) scripted
E) canned
Q2) Which of the following type of tests accurately predicts job performance in almost all kinds of jobs?
A) specific ability tests
B) cognitive ability tests
C) personality tests
D) achievement tests
E) work sample tests
Q3) Functional turnover is the loss of high-performing employees who choose to leave the organization.
A)True
B)False
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35
Chapter 12: Managing Individuals and a Diverse Work Force
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diversity exists in organizations when there is a variety of demographic, cultural, and personal differences among the customers who do business with them.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Bentley College launched a comprehensive diversity initiative, which includes frequent diversity retreats for faculty, staff, and student leaders. What basic type of diversity training is Bentley using?
A) diversity audits
B) awareness training
C) skills-based diversity training
D) diversity mentoring
E) acculturation
Q3) Differentiate between surface-level diversity and deep-level diversity. Describe the extent to which different programs, both voluntary programs and those required by the government, might address diversity management in each of these areas.
Q4) How is surface-level diversity different from deep-level diversity?
Q5) Why does fostering diversity in companies make good business sense?
Q6) What is affirmative action? How does it affect U.S. business?
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Chapter 12: Managing Individuals and a Diverse Work
Force: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ is the degree to which group members are psychologically attracted to working with each other to accomplish a common objective.
A) Social integration
B) Norm cohesiveness
C) Social cohesiveness
D) Integrative focus
E) Social attraction
Q2) Organizational plurality is consistent with:
A) the paradigm of commonality
B) the determination and fairness paradigm
C) the learning and effectiveness paradigm
D) the access and legitimacy paradigm
E) none of these
Q3) Affirmative action is required by law for all private employers, and diversity is voluntary.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Research has shown that performance capabilities decline with age.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Managing Individuals and a Diverse Work
Force: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a paradigm for managing diversity?
A) the paradigm of organizational diversity
B) the Machiavellian paradigm
C) the learning and effectiveness paradigm
D) the affirmative action paradigm
E) the sociocultural paradigm
Q2) The _________ paradigm focuses on the acceptance and celebration of differences to ensure that the diversity within the company matches the diversity found among primary stakeholders.
A) Discrimination and fairness
B) Fairness and effectiveness
C) Access and legitimacy
D) Business growth
E) Learning and effectiveness
Q3) Organizational plurality is consistent with:
A) the paradigm of commonality
B) the determination and fairness paradigm
C) the learning and effectiveness paradigm
D) the access and legitimacy paradigm
E) none of these
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Chapter 13: Motivation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Goal specificity is the extent to which a goal is hard or challenging to accomplish.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Define equity theory. List its basic components and give one example of each of these components.
Q3) A group of actors gather to read the critical reviews of the new play they presented to audiences last night. The actors are looking for ____ rewards.
A) extrinsic
B) psychological
C) assigned
D) intangible
E) intrinsic
Q4) Distributive justice refers to the perceived fairness of the process used to make reward allocation decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How can managers use reinforcement theory to motivate their employees?
Q6) Describe goal-setting theory. Briefly identify the theory's basic components.
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Chapter 13: Motivation: Part A
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Q1) According to the expectancy theory, __________ affect the conscious choices that people make about their motivation.
A) equity, value-added, and instrumentality
B) valence, expectancy, and instrumentality
C) expectancy, reinforcement, and instrumentality
D) instrumentality, equity, and expectancy
E) expectancy, equity, and reinforcement
Q2) Distributive justice refers to the perceived fairness of the process used to make reward allocation decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In a(n) __________ reinforcement schedule, consequences follow a behavior after different times, some shorter and some longer, that vary around a specified average time.
A) fixed interval
B) variable interval
C) fixed ratio
D) variable ratio
E) continuous ratio
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Chapter 13: Motivation: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Goal acceptance is most similar to the idea of:
A) goal congruity
B) goal commitment
C) goal valence
D) goal expectancy
E) groupthink
Q2) On the basis of research evidence, the two basic needs categories are:
A) tangible and intangible needs
B) physiological and psychological needs
C) higher-order and lower-order needs
D) extrinsic and intrinsic needs
E) realized and unrealized needs
Q3) The primary ways for creating reinforcement contingencies in organizations are:
A) extrinsic rewards and the schedules of reinforcement
B) extrinsic and intrinsic rewards
C) perceptions of equity and reward desirability
D) situational motivators
E) higher-order needs and organizational structure
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Chapter 14: Leadership
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the path-goal theory of leadership, ____ is very similar to considerate leader behavior.
A) directive leadership
B) supportive leadership
C) participative leadership
D) achievement-oriented leadership
E) people-oriented leadership
Q2) While transformational leaders use visionary and inspirational appeals to influence followers, transactional leadership is based on an exchange process.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What does management research say about who leaders are and what leaders do? What is the best leadership style for all situations and employees. Provide an example of a leader that you know of or have worked with and explain how this individual demonstrates some of the typical characteristics and behaviors identified by management research as typical of leaders.
Q4) Identify and define the components of visionary leadership.
Q5) List and briefly identify four of the eight traits that differentiate leaders from non-leaders.
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Chapter 14: Leadership: Part A
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the four leadership styles identified in the path-goal theory of leadership?
A) directive
B) supportive
C) participative
D) charismatic
E) achievement-oriented
Q2) According to the path-goal theory of leadership, __________ means setting challenging goals, having high expectations of employees, and displaying confidence that employees will assume responsibility and put forth extraordinary effort.
A) directive leadership
B) supportive leadership
C) participative leadership
D) achievement-oriented leadership
E) empowerment leadership
Q3) Whereas managers tend to have a short-term perspective, leaders tend to have a long-term perspective.
A)True
B)False
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Page 43
Chapter 14: Leadership: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fiedlers contingency theory assumes:
A) leaders are effective when their work groups perform well
B) leadership styles cannot be matched to the proper situation
C) leaders can change their leadership styles to fit the situation
D) favorable situations permit leaders to influence group members
E) leaders should be judged according to how they perform--not how their subordinates perform
Q2) One of the differences between managers and leaders is that managers focus on visions, missions, goals, and objectives, and leaders focus solely on productivity and efficiency.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is the best leadership style for all situations?
A) team management
B) middle of the road management
C) authority-compliance
D) country club management
E) none of these
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44
Chapter 15: Managing Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Refer to JetBlue. The JetBlue pilot who bought several dozen McDonald's Happy Meals engaged in ____.
A) involuntary listening
B) active hearing
C) passive listening
D) empathetic listening
E) voluntary hearing
Q2) Lopez was injured at work when a warehouse shelving unit fell on him. According to attribution theory, his co-workers assumed the accident was due to the shelves being improperly anchored to the wall. His coworkers are guilty of _______ .
A) fundamental attribution error
B) reactive perception error
C) error of culpability
D) proactive perceptual error
E) defensive bias
Q3) Identify and briefly describe the different kinds of communication channels in organizations. Specify the things that managers should know about using these channels in order to maximize their managerial effectiveness.
Q4) List and briefly define the four parts of the perception process.
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Chapter 15: Managing Communication: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) In general, blogs serve no value in the corporate world.
A)True
B)False
Q2) __________ is the withholding of information about organizational problems or issues by employees.
A) Organizational silence
B) Organizational filtering
C) Negative grapevining
D) Lower-level filtering
E) Communication shutdown
Q3) __________ is a kind of one-on-one communication used by managers to improve an employee's on-the-job performance or behavior.
A) Downward guidance
B) Coaching
C) Counseling
D) Leading
E) Supportive supervision
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Chapter 15: Managing Communication: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ is the tendency to overestimate our value by attributing successes to ourselves (internal causes) and attributing failures to others or the environment (external causes).
A) Closure
B) A defensive bias
C) A self-serving bias
D) The fundamental attribution error
E) Overreward
Q2) __________ is the withholding of information about organizational problems or issues by employees.
A) Organizational silence
B) Organizational filtering
C) Negative grapevining
D) Lower-level filtering
E) Communication shutdown
Q3) Managers with better listening skills are rated as better managers by their employees and are much more likely to be promoted.
A)True
B)False
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Page 47
Chapter 16: Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Refer to Walgreens. When Walgreens' managers changed how much inventory the company holds at a time, they were affecting the ____ perspective of the balance scorecard.
A) customer
B) innovation and learning
C) internal
D) feedback
E) external relations
Q2) When it comes to finances, the Balanced Scorecard focuses on one simple question. That question is ____.
A) How are we performing for our shareholders?
B) How do we look to our customers?
C) Are we making a profit?
D) What is the bottom line?
E) Are we retaining enough earnings to allow for market growth?
Q3) In the behavioral approach to managerial control, a company's widely shared values and beliefs guide workers' behavior and decisions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Control: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Control is an intermittent activity that requires periodic attention from managers once or twice a month.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In terms of the basic methods of control, __________ control is an improvement over __________ control because it attempts to eliminate or shorten the delay between performance and feedback about the performance.
A) feedback; concurrent
B) concurrent; feedback
C) feedback; feedforward
D) feedforward; feedback
E) concurrent; stasis
Q3) The only dimension needed to measure quality is its conformance to expectations. A)True
B)False
Q4) One significant advantage of economic value added (EVA) is that it clearly specifies what managers should or should not do to improve financial performance.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Control: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ is the extent to which it is possible to implement each step in the control process.
A) Control feasibility
B) Cybernetic feasibility
C) A quasi-control assessment
D) A balanced scorecard assessment
E) Information management
Q2) According to the text, which of the following levels of waste minimization produces the greatest minimization of waste?
A) waste prevention and reduction
B) recycle and reuse
C) waste treatment
D) waste disposal
E) waste remarketing
Q3) Normative controls should be used when:
A) cause-and-effect relationships are clear
B) workers have been taught self-control skills
C) responsibility for task accomplishment is given to autonomous work groups
D) it is necessary to standardize all operations
E) organizational culture, values, and beliefs are strong
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Chapter 17: Managing Information
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41988
Sample Questions
Q1) When Billy Ingram founded White Castle, much of the public thought that hamburgers were made from rotten beef and not fit for human consumption. Ingram ground fresh beef in front of customers to prove it was safe and was the first to successfully sell hamburgers to the middle class. Today Ingram is credited as the founder of the fast-food industry. Yet, today White Castle has 330 locations, and McDonald's has 25,000 stores. From this information, you know ____.
A) tactics are more influential than strategies
B) the competitive advantage White Castle achieved from being first was not sustainable
C) White Castle lost its pioneering differential
D) product diffusion rates were slow
E) none of these
Q2) Data mining is the ____.
A) automated, electronic capture of data
B) process of hypothesis testing in large databases
C) process of verifying known relationships in large amounts of data
D) process of discovering unknown patterns and relationships in large amounts of data
E) method used to identify and eliminate perishable data
Q3) Briefly distinguish between knowledge and information.
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Chapter 17: Managing Information: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Raw data contain useful information that communicate a clear and readily understandable message to the person for which the data were gathered.
A)True
B)False
Q2) To properly secure data and data networks, a manager should use:
A) virtual private networks
B) firewalls
C) authentication and authorization
D) Web-based SSL encryption
E) all of these
Q3) Data mining is the:
A) automated, electronic capture of data
B) process of hypothesis testing in large databases
C) process of verifying known relationships in large amounts of data
D) process of discovering unknown patterns and relationships in large amounts of data
E) method used to identify and eliminate perishable data
Q4) DSS programs can replace managerial decision making.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Managing Information: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n) __________ is a private company network that allows employees to easily access, share, and publish information using Internet software.
A) LAN portal
B) private company network (PCN)
C) intranet
D) electronic data sharing system
E) information network
Q2) Data mining is the:
A) automated, electronic capture of data
B) process of hypothesis testing in large databases
C) process of verifying known relationships in large amounts of data
D) process of discovering unknown patterns and relationships in large amounts of data
E) method used to identify and eliminate perishable data
Q3) Which of the following statements about knowledge is true?
A) Data and information are the same as knowledge.
B) Knowledge resides in information.
C) Knowledge is the understanding that one gains from information.
D) Knowledge is easier to acquire than data and information.
E) All of these statements about knowledge are true.
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Page 53
Chapter 18: Managing Service and Manufacturing Operations
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Sample Questions
Q1) At their core, companies are production systems that combine inputs such as labor, raw materials, capital, and knowledge to produce outputs such as finished goods or services.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Define the two common measures of productivity used by managers. Specify the circumstances under which each should be used.
Q3) ISO 14000 ____.
A) provides ISO certification for service providers
B) is a series of five international standards for achieving consistency in quality management and quality assurance in companies throughout the world
C) is a series of international standards for managing, monitoring, and minimizing an organization's harmful effect on the environment
D) is the interim ISO certification that is granted in the event that ISO 9000 certification is temporarily withdrawn
E) is only given to manufacturers who have achieved the highest possible level of product quality and assurance
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Chapter 18: Managing Service and Manufacturing
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a manufacturer makes a product continuously, it is using:
A) project manufacturing
B) continuous-flow production
C) line-flow production
D) batch production
E) job shops
Q2) A product's quality is determined by its:
A) reliability, homogeneity, and durability
B) reliability, validity, and effectiveness
C) serviceability, tangibility, and homogeneity
D) durability, reliability, and serviceability
E) consistency, tangibility, and durability
Q3) Inventory is defined as the number of finished products that a company has in its possession either in the factory, in warehouses, or on delivery vehicles.
A)True
B)False
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55
Chapter 18: Managing Service and Manufacturing
Operations: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a criterion on which companies are judged when applying for the Baldrige National Quality Award?
A) leadership
B) business results
C) customer and market focus
D) competitive advantage
E) process management
Q2) The term __________ refers to restoring customer satisfaction to strongly dissatisfied customers.
A) service recovery
B) service enhancement
C) customer focus
D) customer reengineering
E) relationship marketing
Q3) The first step in the service-profit chain is external service quality or the quality of treatment that employees receive from a company's internal service providers.
A)True
B)False
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