
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Management Science is an interdisciplinary course that focuses on applying quantitative and analytical methods to decision-making processes in organizations. Students learn to use mathematical modeling, statistical analysis, and optimization techniques to solve complex business problems and improve organizational performance. The course covers topics such as linear programming, decision analysis, simulation, forecasting, and project management. By bridging the gap between theory and practical application, Management Science equips students with the skills necessary to support data-driven decision-making in various managerial contexts.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Operations Management 3rd Canadian Edition by Larry P. Ritzman
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Q1) From an operations perspective,a corporate strategy involves which of the following?
A) Developing the firm's operations with a global perspective
B) Monitoring and evaluation of the chain
C) Targeting resources of the competitors
D) Accounting for the sale activities of the firm
Answer: A
Q2) Name the two competitive priorities for quality,and give an example of each. Answer: The two competitive priorities are high-performance design,which is the determination of the level of operations performance required in making a product or performing a service,and consistent quality,which measures the frequency with which the product or service meets design specifications.Examples will vary.
Q3) The first step of needs assessment is market analysis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) ________ is the frequency with which the product or service meets design specifications.
Answer: Consistent quality
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Q1) The competitive orientation to supplier relations is that the buyer and supplier are partners.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) ________ are inventories needed for the production of goods and services; they are considered the inputs to the transformation process.
Answer: Raw materials
Q3) Because of the bull-whip effect,ordering patterns in supply chains typically show less variance the further upstream you move in the supply chain.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Forward placement is a reduction in inventory and safety stock because of the merging of variable demands from customers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Vertical integration is the degree to which a firm's own production system or service facility handles the entire supply chain.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) A firm's supply chain is sometimes called the value chain.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Processes are found in all functions of an organization.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) A policy that involves holding items in inventory for immediate delivery,thereby minimizing customer delivery times is called ________ .
Answer: make-to-stock policy
Q5) ________ is the selection of the inputs,operations,work flows,and methods that transform inputs into outputs.
Answer: Process management
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Q1) ________ is the maximum rate of output for a process.
Q2) Which one of the following statements about capacity is best?
A) Capacity is the average rate of output for a facility.
B) Short-term capacity plans deal with investments in new facilities and equipment.
C) A line flow process usually measures its capacity in terms of output rates.
D) The utilization rate is expressed as the ratio of maximum output rate to capacity.
Q3) Using the information from Table 4.2,if the operation currently has 18 machines and the manager is willing to expand capacity by 20 percent through short-term options,what is the capacity gap (in terms of number of machines)if you assume the optimistic demand forecasts?
A) less than or equal to 10
B) more than 10 but less than or equal to 12
C) more than 12 but less than or equal to 14
D) more than 14
Q4) Define each of the following capacity strategies: expansionist,and wait-and-see.
Q5) Explain the distinction between effective capacity and peak capacity.
Q6) Explain the relationship between throughput time and the level of work-in-process (WIP)inventory in a production process.
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Q1) An inventory system answers two important questions: when to order and how much to order.Which of the following statements correctly explains how a Q system (continuous review system)or a P system (periodic review system)answers these questions?
A) Under a Q system, a fixed quantity is ordered every P time period.
B) Under a Q system, an order is placed to replenish the inventory position up to the target level T when the inventory position reaches the reorder point R.
C) Under a P system, a fixed quantity Q is ordered when the inventory position reaches the reorder point R.
D) Under a P system, an order is placed to replenish the inventory position up to the target level T every P time period.
Q2) A perpetual inventory system is a system of inventory control in which the inventory records are always current.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________ is the predetermined minimum level that an inventory position must reach before a fixed quantity (Q)is ordered.
Q4) Customer orders waiting to be processed are called ________.
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Q1) "Conformance to specifications" implies that
A) there is no need to scrap or rework any product because it always meets specifications.
B) quality standards are specified for products or services.
C) quality performance is measured by the product's value.
D) quality level will be high.
Q2) The ________ is a cycle used by firms actively engaged in continuous improvement to train their work teams in problem solving.
Q3) One function of control charts for variables is to monitor the mean of the process distribution.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the role that quality circles serve as a means for improving quality and competitiveness.
Q5) The International Standard ISO 26000:2010 produced a guidance document for social responsibility.
A)True
B)False
Q6) How can "quality be free"?
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Q1) The rewards system normally needs to be revamped when a just-in-time (JIT)system is implemented.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The goal of single-digit setup is to have a setup completed in less than 10 hours.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Mixed-model assembly is a type of assembly that produces a mix of models in smaller lots.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When mixed model scheduling is used on an assembly-line
A) large lot sizes are the result.
B) JIT is not possible.
C) nonuniform workload will result in the feeding of work centres.
D) a uniform workload will result in the feeding of work centres.
Q5) Any deviation from the optimum process that delivers perfect product on time,every time,is ________.
Q6) Discuss supplier relations as they pertain to lean systems.
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Q1) The correct sequence of the four major phases in projects life cycle is; organization,planning,execution and closeout.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Identify and briefly explain the four categories of project risks.
Q3) ________ is the shortest time in which an activity can be completed,if all goes exceptionally well.
Q4) All activities on the critical path must be crashed,or expedited,in order to reduce the overall project completion time.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Using Table 3.8,what is the critical path of the above project?
A) B-C-E-F
B) B-C-F
C) A-D-F
D) A-C-E-F
Q6) The optimistic time is the probable time required to perform the activity.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Line balancing is the assignment of work to stations in a line so as to achieve the desired output rate with the smallest number of workstations.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Use the information in Table 9.5.What is the total load-distance score for the two plants if plant 1 is located at the center of gravity serving A,B,and C,and plant 2 is at the center of gravity serving D and E? Assume Euclidean distance.
A) less than or equal to 240
B) more than 240 but less than or equal to 260 C) more than 260 but less than or equal to 280
D) more than 280
Q3) One common performance criteria for layouts is capital investment.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the fixed-position layout,the product is fixed in place,and the workers,tools,and equipment come to the product.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In developing a regression equation of the form Y = a + bX,the intent is to use values of X to predict the likely outcome for the dependent variable Y.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A(n)________ is a measure that indicates whether a method of forecasting is accurately predicting actual changes in demand.
Q3) Which one of the following statements about the patterns of a demand series is FALSE?
A) The five basic patterns of most business demand series are the horizontal, trend, seasonal, cyclical, and random.
B) Estimating cyclical movement is difficult. Forecasters do not know the duration of the cycle because they cannot predict the events that cause it.
C) The trend, over an extended period of time, always increases the average level of the series.
D) Every demand series has at least the following two components: horizontal and random.
Q4) What is focus forecasting?
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Q1) One distinction between manufacturing and services that affects scheduling is that services have difficulty creating inventories to buffer against demand uncertainties.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Subcontracting is never on an alternative,when implementing aggregate planning.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How do Gantt charts assist schedulers in arriving at feasible schedules?
Q4) One distinction between manufacturing and services that affects scheduling is that service operations demand often is less predictable.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A business plan is a schedule that specifies the timing and size of production quantities for each product in the product families.
A)True
B)False
Q6) ________ are actions that can be taken to adjust production and supply in order to accommodate demand requirements.
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Q1) Which of the following statements on MRP is TRUE?
A) The payoffs from MRP tend to be greater when there are more BOM levels and larger lot sizes.
B) When MRP systems are enhanced to include financial reporting they are called basic MRP systems, or "little mrp."
C) The fixed order quantity (FOQ) eliminates remnants.
D) MRP is an inventory control system that derives the gross requirements of the end items from purchase commitments with vendors.
Q2) For items manufactured in-house,one component of lead time is processing time.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Use the information from Table 13.7.If a L4L lot-sizing rule is used,how many planned order releases are there for item XYZ?
A) 0 or 1
B) 2 or 3
C) 4 or 5
D) more than 5
Q4) Describe how ERP systems are designed.
Q5) What are the key inputs to an MRP system?
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Q1) The site selection team you formed last quarter meets with you in the conference room to present the results of their thoughtful analysis.They have collectively logged 200,000 frequent flyer miles while conducting their investigation.The conference room table sags under the weight of their massive report and all team members sport deep tans.As the leader drones on about their completely objective approach to the problem,he projects a slide containing the following information about their location of choice.
Rio de Janeiro Weight (A) Score (B) Weighted Score (A xB)
Infrastructure 20 8 160
Utility Costs 25 5 125
Labor Skill 25 6 150
Labor Cost 20 7 140
Political climate 10 4 40
Final Weighted Score 615
What questions do you,a conscientious vice-president level executive,have for the team about this portion of their analysis?
Q2) If probabilities for events can be estimated,then the situation faced by the decision maker is called ________.
Q3) What assumptions are made when using break-even analysis?
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Q1) What are the problems and advantages of managing by the numbers?
Q2) Explain the time-value-of-money concept.
Q3) Which of the following is an accelerated depreciation method?
A) Straight-line depreciation
B) MACRS
C) Net present value
D) After-tax cash flow
Q4) An annuity is a series of payments of a fixed amount for a specified number of years.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Depreciation
A) is an allowance for the consumption of capital.
B) acts as a tax shield.
C) is not a legitimate cash flow.
D) All of the above.
Q6) The amount that must be invested now to accumulate to a certain amount in the future at a specified interest rate is called the ________.
Q7) The ________ is the discount rate that makes the NPV of a project zero.
Q8) ________ is an allowance for the consumption of capital.
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Q1) Use the information in Table H.1.Assume that work element 1 receives a performance rating factor of 1.2 and all other elements receive a rating of 1.1.If work element 2 is performed every other cycle but every other element is performed every cycle,and the company has an allowance time of 0.10,what is the standard time for the complete cycle?
A) Fewer than 45 seconds
B) Greater than or equal to 45 seconds but fewer than 50 seconds
C) Greater than or equal to 50 seconds but fewer than 55 seconds
D) Greater than or equal to 55 seconds
Q2) A work standard is the time required for a trained worker to perform a task following a prescribed method with normal effort and skill.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An advantage of the elemental standard data approach is that there is
A) a reduction in the number of time studies needed.
B) no need to estimate allowances.
C) no need to use time-study methods.
D) no need to estimate the variable characteristics of jobs.
Q4) What are the four steps in a time study?
Q5) Are time standards more useful for manufacturing or service processes? Why?
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Q1) Given that the fifth unit took 10 hours to build and the learning rate is 90 percent,how much time will it take to build units 11 through 15? Refer to the copy of Table G.1 above.
A) Fewer than or equal to 38 hours
B) Greater than 38 hours but fewer than or equal to 40 hours
C) Greater than 40 hours but fewer than or equal to 42 hours
D) Greater than 42 hours
Q2) The fourth unit took 10 hours to produce and the learning rate is expected to be 80 percent.How long will it take to produce the tenth unit? Refer to the copy of Table G.1 above.
A) Fewer than or equal to 7.0 hours
B) Greater than 7.0 hours but fewer than or equal to 8.0
C) Greater than 8.0 hours but fewer than or equal to 9.0
D) Greater than 9.0
Q3) Which one of the following is an assumption of learning curves?
A) The cumulative time of production decreases as production increases.
B) Time reduction per unit increases as cumulative production increases.
C) The same learning curve should be used when a company increases its level of automation.
D) The reduction in time per unit follows an exponential curve.
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Q1) Which one of the following results best describes the purpose of CIM technologies?
A) Increased productivity
B) Improved quality
C) Increased flexibility
D) All of these
Q2) Which one of the following statements about computer-aided design is NOT true?
A) The designer creates drawings on a display monitor and instructs the computer to show several views of the subject according to the specific dimensions.
B) The computer can simulate the reaction of a part to strength and stress tests.
C) Analysts can use CAD to store, retrieve, and classify data about various parts.
D) Analysts can use the system to identify new EDI applications.
Q3) ________ are stand-alone pieces of equipment,each controlled by its own microcomputer.
Q4) A(n)________ is a computer-controlled method of sorting and retrieving materials and tools using racks,bins,and stackers.
Q5) How can CAD,CAM,or FMS be used in a service enterprise?
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Q1) A single-sampling plan by attributes is needed for a purchased component.Given the following information,what is the consumer's risk ?? Table I.1 is above.
Sample size = 50
Acceptance number (c)= 3
Acceptance quality level (AQL )= 0.01
Lot tolerance proportion defective (LTPD)= 0.04
A) Greater than or equal to 0 but less than or equal to 0.25
B) Greater than 0.25 but less than or equal to 0.50
C) Greater than 0.50 but less than or equal to 0.75
D) Greater than 0.75 but less than or equal to 1.00
Q2) A quality manager has established a sampling plan that calls for a sample size of 50 units and an acceptance number of 1 The supplier has agreed to a contract that calls for an AQL of 0.02 and an LTPD of .07.What is the consumer's risk? Table I.1 is appended to this exam.
A) Less than 0.08
B) Between 0.08 and 0.10
C) Between 0.10 and 0.12
D) Greater than 0.12
Q3) ________ is the quality level desired by the consumer.
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Q1) A manager has been given the table shown below and is asked to generate random numbers.Which of the following statements is TRUE?
\(\begin{array}{|c|c|}
\hline\text { Range } & \text { \# Customers } \\
\hline 00-49 & 0 \\
\hline 50-79 & 1 \\
\hline 80-99 & 2 \\
\hline \end{array}\)
A) There are no customers in the store 49 percent of the time.
B) The probability of having one customer in the store is 0.30.
C) The relative frequency of having two customers in the store is 0.80.
D) If we randomly choose the numbers 0 through 99 enough times, about 99 percent of the time we will have two customers in the store.
Q2) Simulation models are
A) useful when waiting-line models are too complex.
B) useful for conducting experiments using the real system.
C) preferred because they find optimal solutions.
D) usually inexpensive relative to other approaches.
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Q1) A(n)________ is the minimum quantity needed to receive a discount.
Q2) As an inventory manager,you must decide on the order quantity for an item.Its annual demand is 300 units.Ordering cost is $20 each time an order is placed,and the holding cost is 30 percent of the per-unit price.Your supplier provided the following price schedule.
\[\begin{array} { | c | c | }
\hline \text { Price per Unit } & \text { Order Quantity } \\
\hline \$ 6.00 & 000 - 149 \\
\$ 5.00 & 150 - 199 \\
\$ 4.00 & 200 \text { and more } \\
\hline
\end{array}\]
What ordering-quantity policy do you recommend?
A) Fewer than or equal to 50 units
B) Greater than 50 units but fewer than or equal to 149
C) Greater than 149 units but fewer than or equal to 199 units
D) More than 199 units
Q3) Briefly explain why the economic production lot size (ELS)is actually larger than the EOQ when there are noninstantaneous replenishments.
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Q1) ________ is the amount by which the left-hand side falls short of the right-hand side in a linear programming model.
Q2) A(n)________ is a value that the decision maker cannot control and that does not change when the solution is implemented.
Q3) ________ are the limitations that restrict the permissible choices for the decision variables.
Q4) For the line that has the equation 4X<sub>1</sub> + 8X<sub>2 </sub>= 88,an axis intercept is
A) (0, 22).
B) (6, 0).
C) (6, 22).
D) (0, 11).
Q5) Only corner points should be considered for the optimal solution to a linear programming problem.
A)True
B)False
Q6) ________ represent choices the decision maker can control.
Q7) For an = constraint,only points ________ are feasible solutions.
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Q8) Each coefficient or given constant is known by the decision maker with ________.

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Q1) Your employer is considering a choice between a single-line and a multiple-line arrangement.The operation involves multiple servers and a single-phase service.When would each arrangement be ideal?
Q2) A Laundromat where there are washing machines and dryers is an example of a
A) single-channel, single-phase arrangement.
B) single-channel, multiple-phase arrangement.
C) multiple-channel, single-phase arrangement.
D) multiple-channel, multiple-phase arrangement.
Q3) It is impossible for management to affect the rate of customer arrivals.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Use the information in Scenario C.2.How many minutes per hour is the attendant not serving customers?
A) Fewer than or equal to 13
B) Greater than 13 but fewer than or equal to 17
C) Greater than 17 but fewer than or equal to 21
D) Greater than 21
Q5) What are priority rules? Provide examples and indicate why a manager would choose to adopt one over another.
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