Management Science
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Management Science is a multidisciplinary field that applies analytical methods and quantitative techniques to aid decision-making and solve complex managerial problems within organizations. Through the integration of mathematical modeling, statistics, optimization, and information technology, this course equips students with tools to analyze business operations, allocate resources efficiently, and improve overall organizational effectiveness. Students learn how to approach real-world challenges with a structured, data-driven mindset, enabling them to develop strategies for planning, forecasting, scheduling, and process improvement across diverse industries.
Recommended Textbook
Decision Sciences and Operations Management Coursemate 4th Edition by David A. Collier
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Chapter 1: Goods, Services, and Operations Management
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Q1) Which is generally related to service operations?
A)tangible product
B)need for flexible capacity
C)separation of production from consumption
D)large amount of inventory
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is not a key activity of an operations manager?
A)translating market knowledge into goods, services, and processes
B)continually learning and adapting to global and environmental changes
C)managing cash flows and strategic investments
D)exploiting technology to improve productivity
Answer: C
Q3) Service organizations generally
A)are in close proximity to the customer
B)rely on physical inventory
C)take advantage of patents
D)can delegate human behavior and marketing skills
Answer: A
Q4) What are the four key current challenges in OM that managers need to understand?
Answer: 11ea89ff_22e5_c2ff_8b44_5b96df0726be_TB2054_00
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Chapter 2: Value Chains
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is false? To increase value, an organization must
A)decrease price or cost while holding perceived benefits constant.
B)change both perceived benefits and price in the same proportion.
C)increase perceived benefits while holding price or cost constant.
D)increase perceived benefits while reducing price or cost.
Answer: B
Q2) Nearly all value chains are managed from a centralized operational structure because of the inherent inefficiencies that are found in decentralized operational structures.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Define value and discuss three 3) ways for organizations to increase value.
Answer: Value is the perception of the benefits associated with a good, service or bundle of goods and services in relation to what buyers are willing to pay for them. A simple way of expressing value is: Perceived benefits/price cost) to the customer. To increase value, an organization must...
a) increase percerved benefits while holding price or cost constant
b) increase perceived benefits while reducing price or cost or
c) decrease price or cost while holding perceived benefits constant
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Chapter 3: Measuring Performance in Operations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Assurance is the willingness to help customers and provide prompt recovery to service upsets.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Value chain measures would generally be less valuable to
A)top management
B)middle managers
C)first-line supervisors
D)employees to monitor any control
Answer: A
Q3) Measuring and reporting performance results can be a motivator for many workers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Service quality measures are generally based on data collected from observing front-line operations.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Operations Strategy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Professor Terry Hill's operations strategy framework provides a systems perspective of how operations is linked to corporate and marketing strategies.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Being able to access the Internet in an automobile at any speed and in any location would be considered an order satisfier.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In an automobile, which of the following would not be considered an order winner?
A)Self-parking capability
B)Voice-activated music system
C)Front-seat airbags
D)Collision-avoidance system
Q4) A flexibility strategy requires capacity for both design and demand flexibility.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the concept of search, experience, and credence attributes.
Q6) What do we mean by core competencies?
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Chapter 5: Technology and Operations Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Computer integrated manufacturing systems result in
A)decreased engineering design costs
B)decreased equipment utilization
C)reduced work-in-process
D)improved quality
Q2) Rogers Manufacturing Company makes high quality canvas tents. Their production manager is considering a change from its manual system of stitching to an automated system. The following are the costs for the two systems: \[\begin{array} { l l l }
\underline{\text { System} } & \underline{ \text { Fixed Cost }} & \underline{ \text { Variable Cost }} \\
\text { Manual } & \$ 35,000 & \$ 12.50 \\
\text { Automated } & \$ 80,000 & \$ 8.50 \end{array}\]
a. What would the savings be if demand is 70,000 tents and the automated system is used?
b. What would the savings loss) be if demand is 20,000 tents and the automated system is used?
Q3) List some of the key issues that organizations face in using technology.
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Chapter 6: Goods and Service Design
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Sample Questions
Q1) Japan's Genichi Taguchi argued that any variation within the specification limits is equally good in terms of quality and long-run cost.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain the importance of service recovery and service guarantees.
Q3) Which of the following is not a principal dimension of a servicescape?
A)spatial layout and functionality
B)signs, symbols and artifacts
C)facility location
D)ambient conditions
Q4) An ATM machine provides four sequential steps in processing a transaction. Over the last quarter, the reliability of each of these steps was 0.92, 0.97, 0.95 and 0.90. What is the overall reliability of the machine? How much can reliability be improved if the reliability of the fourth step is increased to 0.98?
Q5) Quality Function Deployment QFD) starts with
A)Competitive evaluation
B)Technical requirements
C)Voice of the customer
D)Technical requirement priorities
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Chapter 7: Process Selection, Design, and Analysis
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Q1) A Department of Motor Vehicle DMV) testing center has ten (10) testers who test 75 drivers per day. Each tester can test eight (8) drivers per day. What would the service rate need to be in order to achieve 85% utilization?
Q2) In using the Product-Process Matrix, the most appropriate match between products and processes occurs along the diagonal of the matrix.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain how a product's life cycle has important implications in terms of process design and choice.
Q4) Which of the following is least related to Value Stream Mapping?
A)Non-value activity
B)Time
C)Cost
D)Reengineering
Q5) Configurations of standard parts, subassemblies, or services that can be selected by customers from a limited set are called "make to order" goods and services.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Facility and Work Design
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Sample Questions
Q1) Flow-blocking and lack-of-work delays can be reduced by assigning an appropriate level of capacity at each workstation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cycle time in assembly line balancing is the maximum amount of time it takes to process a part at some workstation along the line.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Considering ergonomics, which of the following does not fit?
A)Improving productivity
B)Group technology
C)Designing equipment and instrumentation
D)Considering physical capability of people
Q4) A ____ layout is an arrangement based on self-contained groups of equipment needed to produce a particular set of goods or services.
A)Product
B)Process
C)Cellular
D)Fixed position
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Chapter 9: Supply Chain Design
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Sample Questions
Q1) Distribution centers are warehouses that act as intermediaries between suppliers and factories.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Supply Chain Operations Reference SCOR) Model function that entails all order management activities from processing customer orders to routing shipments, managing goods at distribution centers and invoicing the customer is called ____.
A)Return
B)Source
C)Make
D)Deliver
Q3) Explain the concept of postponement and provide an example of it.
Q4) Which one of the following statements is true about vendor-managed inventory VMI)?
A)VMI is a form of outsourcing.
B)VMI often increases the bullwhip effect.
C)VMI is used only in responsive supply chains.
D)VMI is identical to contract manufacturing.
Q5) Describe some common supply chain metrics used to evaluate performance.
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Chapter 10: Capacity Management
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Q1) Define Economies of Scale and Diseconomies of Scale. Explain how they relate to capacity decisions.
Q2) Revenue management systems are vital to most manufacturing organizations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An organization that would typically use a revenue management system is
A)Computer manufacturer
B)Fast food restaurant
C)Car rental company
D)Package delivery service
Q4) Safety capacity is intended for all of the following except
A)power outages
B)equipment breakdowns
C)seasonal demand
D)material shortages
Q5) A capacity straddle strategy is related to
A)One large capacity increase
B)Small capacity increases that match average demand
C)Small capacity increases that lead demand
D)Small capacity increases that lag demand
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Chapter 11: Forecasting and Demand Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) All time series contain random variation but may not contain trend or seasonal components.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Define regression analysis and explain how it is an approach to forecasting.
Q3) Single exponential smoothing is a forecasting technique that uses a weighted average of past time-series values to forecast the value of the time series in the next period.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A long-range forecast typically covers a planning horizon of 3 to 12 months.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In an exponential smoothing model, larger values of alpha i.e., closer to 1) place less emphasis on recent data and more on older data.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Because of random variations, forecasts are never 100% accurate.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Managing Inventories
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Sample Questions
Q1) RFID tags are often used to track stock keeping units in supply chains.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An airline seat is an example of an asset held for future use or sale.
A)True
B)False
Q3) "A" items typically comprise a high percentage of total dollar usage but a low percentage of unit volume.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not a component of holding cost?
A)Taxes
B)Insurance
C)Material handling
D)Order processing
Q5) Inventory position refers to the physical quantity of items on hand in an inventory system.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Provide some examples of when the single period inventory model is applicable.
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Chapter 13: Resource Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Resource management deals primarily with managing inventories in a value chain.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Define a Master Production Schedule MPS) and explain how it differs from a final assembly schedule.
Q3) Short-term changes in facilities and equipment are seldom used in traditional aggregate planning methods because of the capital costs involved.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An) ____ is a statement of how many finished items are to be produced and when they are to be produced.
A)Aggregate Plan
B)Master Production Schedule
C)Material Requirements Plan
D)Capacity Requirements Plan
Q5) "Level 3" planning represents aggregate planning at higher management levels of an organization.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Operations Scheduling and Sequencing
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Q1) A print shop has five large commercial printing jobs to finish. They are trying to decide whether to use the shortest processing time SPT) or the first-come first-served (FCFS) sequencing rule. Data on estimated processing time in hours) and time to promised completion in (hours) is as follows jobs shown in (order of arrival):
\[\begin{array} { c c c }
\text { Job } & \text { Processing time } & \text { Thme to promised completion } \\
\text { A } & 4 & 8 \\
\text { B } & 9 & 30 \\
\text { C } & 5 & 17 \\
\text { D } & 8 & 8 \\
\text { E } & 11 & 12
\end{array}\]
a. What is the average flow time in hours using the FCFS rule?
b. What is the average job lateness in hours using the FCFS rule?
c. What is the average flow time in hours using the SPT rule?
d. What is the average job lateness in hours using the SPT rule?
Q2) Describe Johnson's sequencing rule for the two-resource sequencing problem.
Q3) Differentiate between scheduling and sequencing.
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Chapter 15: Quality Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) In applying Six Sigma to services, the four key measures of performance include all of the following except
A)accuracy
B)empathy
C)cost
D)customer satisfaction
Q2) In the act stage of the Deming cycle, improvements become standardized and the plan is implemented as a "current best practice" and communicated throughout the organization.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Each day, a golf resort handles 700 golfers. Each guest encounters 22 "moments of truth" during a typical day. The resort is open seven days a week. If they receive 12 complaints per week, what is the epmo measure?
Q4) The Gap Model helps managers to link quality management practices within the value chain to customer expectations.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define root cause and describe root cause analysis.
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Chapter 16: Quality Control and Spc
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Q1) A c-chart is used to monitor the fraction nonconforming, whereas a p-chart monitors the number of nonconformances per unit.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Honda wants to monitor the number of blemishes scratches, blisters, etc.) on the fenders of its cars using a statistical process control chart. The most appropriate type of SPC chart is
A)x-bar.
B)R-bar chart.
C)C<sub>pk</sub> chart
D)c-chart
Q3) As long as no points are outside of the control limits in a control chart, the process would be considered to be in control
A)True
B)False
Q4) Define "quality at the source."
Q5) Discuss the difference between a continuous metric and a discrete metric, give examples of each, and list the common control charts associated with each.
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Chapter 17: Lean Operating Systems
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Q1) Toyota classified waste into seven major categories. Those categories include all of the following except
A)Motion
B)Ordering
C)Inventory
D)Waiting
Q2) According to the Toyota Motor Company, waiting time is a necessary evil in production and is not classified as waste.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Firms use the "5S" principles to create a clean and organized work environment.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Six Sigma addresses visible problems in processes; lean production is more concerned with less visible problems.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the seven major categories of waste as defined by Toyota.
Q6) How does Total Productive Maintenance TPM) affect lean operating systems?
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Chapter 18: Project Management
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Q1) With the Activity-On-Node AON) network, the nodes define the precedence relationships and the arcs define the work activities.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When the beta probability distribution is used to characterize uncertain activity times, the distribution of the project completion time will also have a beta probability distribution.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe how a project fits into each of the three common organizational structures.
Q4) Which of the following is least related to Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT)?
A)Beta distribution
B)Variance
C)Most probable time
D)Crashing
Q5) Describe the four major steps in the project-planning process.
Q6) Explain the purpose of Gantt charts.
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Chapter 19: Work Measurement, Learning Curves, and Standards
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Q1) Work samplings
A)Are based on normal distribution
B)Are used for repetitive work activities
C)Determine the allowance factor
D)Require a systematic non-random) sample
Q2) Personal fatigue and delay allowances are added to ____ to arrive at ____.
A)Standard time; normal time
B)Standard time; desired time
C)Normal time; desired time
D)Normal time; standard time
Q3) The groups best suited to set work standards are managers with input from industrial engineers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A job had a normal time of 2.43 minutes, an allowance of 20% and a forecast demand of 120 units per day. How long should it take to produce one day's output?
Q5) How do predetermined standards differ from time studies?
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Q6) Discuss several factors that can affect the application of the learning curve or experience curve and/or the amount of learning that occurs.
Chapter 20: Queuing Analysis
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Q1) Which of the following is not a key assumption of the multiple-server queuing model?
A)The waiting line has two or more identical servers
B)The arrivals wait in two or more lines
C)The mean service rate, \(\mu\), is the same for each server
D)No balking or reneging is allowed
Q2) ____ is the process of a customer evaluating the waiting line and server system and deciding not to join the queue.
A)Triage
B)Reneging
C)Balking
D)Value-based queuing
Q3) The mean arrival rate is used to express demand; the mean service rate is used to express a system's capacity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe seven operating characteristics of a waiting line no formulas).
Q5) Many analytical queuing models exist, each based upon unique assumptions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Modeling Using Linear Programming
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Q1) Ending inventory from the previous month) + current production) - ending inventory this month) =
A)Production rate change
B)This month's demand
C)Amount of overtime/under-time
D)Next month's inventory
Q2) If for a given (month overtime units O<sub>t</sub>) = under-(time units U<sub>t</sub>),
A)Non-negativity would not allow this
B)Only possible with subcontracting
C)There was no over- or under-time
D)Will work if one is positive and the other is negative in the same magnitude
Q3) If R<sub>m</sub> = increase in the total production level during Month 'm' compared to Month m-1 and D<sub>m</sub> = decrease in the total production level during Month 'm' compared to Month m-1, which of the following statements can be correct?
A)R<sub>m</sub> = D<sub>m</sub> = 0
B)Both R<sub>m</sub> and D<sub>m</sub> positive
C)Both R<sub>m</sub> and D<sub>m </sub>negative
D)One variable can be positive and the other negative
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Chapter 22: Simulation
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Q1) The queuing model operating characteristics formula only characterizes short-term average results and, in many practical situations, managers are interested in understanding long-term dynamic behaviors of queuing systems
A)True
B)False
Q2) In general, as the number of probabilistic components of a system increases, the more likely it is that simulation will be the best analysis approach.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A disadvantage of simulation models is that the structuring is highly dependent on the expertise of the modeler.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is correct regarding a simulation model for inventory management?
A)Only demand can vary
B)The goal is to minimize waiting time
C)Looks at a combination of order quantity and reorder point
D)Does not allow backorders of stockouts
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Chapter 23: Work Measurement, Learning Curves, and Standards
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Q1) The expected value of perfect information represents the maximum amount a company should be willing to pay for any information about events, no matter how good it is.
A)True
B)False
Q2) With some modification, the decision rules for one-time decisions without event probabilities can be applied to situations where the payoff is cost.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The expected value concept weighs each payoff for an alternative in proportion to the likelihood that the payoff will occur.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Define the four major elements of a decision problem.
Q5) Managers don't often have the information necessary to find optimal solutions to business problems.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain the structure and purpose of a decision tree.
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