Management Science Exam Answer Key - 2405 Verified Questions

Page 1


Course Introduction

Management Science

Exam Answer Key

Management Science is a multidisciplinary field that applies analytical methods, mathematical modeling, and quantitative techniques to solve complex decision-making problems in business and organizations. The course covers topics such as linear programming, decision analysis, forecasting, simulation, and optimization, enabling students to develop critical thinking and problem-solving skills. Through case studies and real-world applications, students learn how to use data-driven approaches to improve operational efficiency, resource allocation, and strategic planning, preparing them for effective management and leadership roles in today's data-oriented environment.

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Operations Management 11th Edition by William

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Introduction to Operations Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) Operations and sales are the two ________ functions in businesses.

A)strategic

B)tactical

C)support

D)value-adding

E)line

Answer: E

Q2) Service involves a much higher degree of customer contact than manufacturing.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q3) A systems approach means that we concentrate on efficiency within a subsystem and thereby assure overall efficiency.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q4) The use of models will guarantee the best possible decisions.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Chapter 2: Competitiveness, Strategy, and Productivity

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Sample Questions

Q1) The external elements of SWOT analysis are:

A)strengths and weaknesses

B)strengths and threats

C)opportunities and threats

D)weaknesses and opportunities

E)strengths and opportunities

Answer: C

Q2) Which of the following is not a key step toward improving productivity?

A)developing productivity measures for all operations

B)improving the bottleneck operations

C)establishing reasonable goals for improvement

D)considering incentives to reward workers

E)converting bond debt to stock ownership

Answer: E

Q3) An organization that is twice as productive as its competitor will be twice as profitable.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Chapter 3: Forecasting

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Q1) What is this year's forecast using trend adjusted (double) smoothing with alpha = 0.2 and beta = 0.1, if the forecast for last year was 56, the forecast for two years ago was 46, and the trend estimate for last year's forecast was 7?

Answer: (61.76)

Q2) In trend-adjusted exponential smoothing, the trend adjusted forecast (TAF) consists of:

A)an exponentially smoothed forecast and a smoothed trend factor

B)an exponentially smoothed forecast and an estimated trend value

C)the old forecast adjusted by a trend factor

D)the old forecast and a smoothed trend factor

E)a moving average and a trend factor

Answer: A

Q3) Given forecast errors of 5, 0, - 4, and 3, what is the bias?

A)- 4

B)4

C)5

D)12

E)6

Answer: B

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Chapter 4: Product and Service Design

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Q1) Which of the following is not one of the phases of product design and development?

A)specify product specifications

B)conduct market test

C)specify process specifications

D)conduct design review

E)performance applied research

Q2) One way to increase reliability is to:

A)improve component design

B)increase the number of service stations

C)increase mean repair time

D)increase the number of dependent components

E)none of the above

Q3) Delayed differentiation and modular design are tactics for mass customization.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The demand for a product and the rate of technological change have significant impact on the length of a given phase of the product life cycle.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 5: Strategic Capacity Planning for Products and Services

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Q1) If this new blood analysis machine has design and effective capacities of 6,000 and 5,000 blood analyses per year, respectively, and Dr.J.expects to be 80% efficient in his use of this machine, how many HIV blood analyses does he plan to perform each year?

A)3,200

B)4,800

C)4,000

D)1,000

E)5,000

Q2) Outsourcing some production is a means of _________ a capacity constraint.

A)Identifying

B)Modifying

C)Supporting

D)Overcoming

E)Repeating

Q3) For what range of output would you prefer to make?

Q4) Utilization is defined as the ratio of effective capacity to design capacity.

A)True

B)False

Q5) What is the break-even quantity (produced and sold)?

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Chapter 6: Process Selection and Facility Layout

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Sample Questions

Q1) Product layouts can more easily adapt to variations in product requirements than process layouts can.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The type of layout in which workers, materials, and equipment are moved to the product as needed is:

A)process

B)product

C)fixed-position

D)batch

E)mass

Q3) Which one of the following is not considered an important factor in service layout design?

A)cost minimization and product flow

B)frequency of orders

C)customer attitude and image

D)all are important

E)none are important

Q4) What is the distance from area 3 to area 1?

Q5) What is the minimum possible cycle time?

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Chapter 7: Work Design and Measurement

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Sample Questions

Q1) Micromotion studies should be limited to periodic activities where breakthrough improvements are possible.

A)True

B)False

Q2) A pay system that rewards workers who undergo training that increases their skills is called a "knowledge-based pay system."

A)True

B)False

Q3) An advantage of work sampling, compared to a stopwatch time study, is that observations are spread out over a period of time in work sampling.

A)True

B)False

Q4) For a confidence level of 95.44% and a maximum error of .04, what should be the sample size for estimating the proportion of time spent performing activity A?

Q5) Increasing compensation is always a way to improve worker satisfaction. A)True

B)False

Q6) What is the observed time for this task?

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Chapter 8: Location Planning and Analysis

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Sample Questions

Q1) The method for evaluating location alternatives which minimizes shipping costs between multiple sending and receiving locations is:

A)cost-volume analysis

B)transportation model analysis

C)factor rating analysis

D)linear regression analysis

E)MODI analysis

Q2) What are total costs for site B for a quantity of 5,000 units per year?

Q3) For what quantity would you be indifferent between selecting site A or site B?

Q4) If the selection criteria is to be the greatest composite score, management should choose:

A)location A

B)location B

C)location C

D)either B or C

E)to reject all locations

Q5) Given the information below on scores of three location alternatives, which alternative would you recommend? Why? A.

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Chapter 9: Management of Quality

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Sample Questions

Q1) ISO 9000 currently requires _____ of a certified organization.

A)Quarterly reporting

B)Product diversity

C)Annual audits

D)A minimum of four supervisory levels

E)Continuous improvement

Q2) TQM expands the traditional view of quality beyond looking only at the quality of the final product or service to looking at the quality of every aspect of the process.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Reducing the variations in our product or service is an important key to perceived quality.

A)True

B)False

Q4) One criticism of total quality management is that it may produce blind pursuit of quality to the neglect of other priority considerations.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 10: Quality Control

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the sample proportion of failures (p) for Prof.D?

A)0

B).04

C).11

D).13

E).16

Q2) A time-ordered plot of sample statistics is called a(n) ______ chart.

A)Statistical

B)Inspection

C)Control

D)SIMO

E)Limit

Q3) The primary purpose of statistical process control is to detect a defective product before it is shipped to a customer.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Suppose the long-run average of this coating process is 0.09 millimeters.Further suppose this process' standard deviation is 0.015 millimeters.What proportion of the output from this process will fail to meet specifications?

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Chapter 11: Aggregate Planning and Master Scheduling

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Q1) The master schedule indicates the quantity and timing for delivery of a product, but not the dates production will need to start.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Aggregate planning is intermediate-range capacity planning that typically covers a time horizon of one to three months.

A)True

B)False

Q3) What are total costs for the six periods?

Q4) Which of the following steps is necessary to ensure that a master schedule is valid?

A)worker scheduling

B)order promising

C)inventory counting

D)order booking

E)rough-cut capacity planning

Q5) Use either the transportation method or linear programming to develop an optimum aggregate plan, given the following data:

Q6) Prepare a master schedule based on the following information:

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Chapter 12: MRP and ERP

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Sample Questions

Q1) The output of MRP is:

A)gross requirements

B)net requirements

C)a schedule of requirements for all parts and end items

D)inventory reorder points

E)economic order quantities and reorder points

Q2) Periodic updating of an MRP system to account for all changes which have occurred within a given time interval is called:

A)pegging

B)planned order release

C)net change

D)regenerative

E)exception report

Q3) Using the product tree shown, determine the following:

(A) the quantity of component K that will be needed to assemble 80 units of P, assuming no on-hand inventory of any components exists.

(B) the quantity of component K needed to assemble 80 units of P, given on-hand inventory of 30 A's, 50 B's and 20 C's.

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Chapter 13: Inventory Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) Suppose that you are the manager of a production department that uses 400 boxes of rivets per year.The supplier quotes you a price of $8.50 per box for an order size of 199 boxes or less, a price of $8.00 per box for orders of 200 to 999 boxes, and a price of $7.50 per box for an order of 1,000 or more boxes.You assign a holding cost of 20 percent of the price to this inventory.What order quantity would you use if the objective is to minimize total annual costs of holding, purchasing, and ordering? Assume ordering cost is $80/order.

Q2) The inventory value of the supply chain exceeds the inventory value of the organization's work in process inventory.

A)True

B)False

Q3) If he were to order 16 cases of Stein beer at a time, what would be the daily total inventory costs, EXCLUDING the cost of the beer?

A)$2.00

B)$4.00

C)$1.28

D)$3.28

E)$2.56

Q4) For the economic order quantity, what are average weekly ordering costs?

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Chapter 14: Jit and Lean Operations

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Q1) In the lean approach, inventories are reduced gradually, instead of eliminating inventories as rapidly as possible.

A)True

B)False

Q2) A basic requirement for operating with the low inventories present in lean systems is:

A)Inventory space must be increased.

B)Inventory investment must be increased.

C)Major problems must be identified.

D)Major problems must have been solved.

E)Inventories must be reduced rapidly.

Q3) Preventive maintenance will eliminate the need to carry supplies of spare parts.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Process design supporting lean doesn't include ______.

A)Production flexibility

B)Duplicate facilities

C)Setup time reduction

D)Minimal inventory storage

E)Small lot sizes

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Chapter 15: Supply Chain Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) One important objective of purchasing is to:

A)set quality standards for purchased items

B)be knowledgeable about new products

C)maintain numerous sources of supply

D)obtain the lowest prices on all purchased items

E)determine the processes that should be used

Q2) Creating an effective supply chain requires linking the marketing, distribution, and supplier channels.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following is least likely to be a key consideration when a company chooses a supplier?

A)lead time and on-time delivery

B)reputation and financial stability

C)value analysis

D)quality and Quality assurance

E)flexibility of design change

Q4) In purchasing, one's only ethical obligation is to one's suppliers.

A)True

B)False

Page 17

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Chapter 16: Scheduling

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Sample Questions

Q1) Loading is the determination of which work centers should perform which jobs.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Scheduled due dates are the result of:

A)promises to customers

B)MRP processing

C)managerial decisions

D)all of the above

E)our competitor's promises

Q3) The theory of constraints has a goal of maximizing flow through the entire system.

A)True

B)False

Q4) If he uses the first come, first served (FCFS) priority rule to schedule these jobs, what will be the average completion time?

A)7.5 hours

B)5 hours

C)3 hours

D)2.5 hours

E)2 hours

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Chapter 17: Project Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) Shortening activity durations is called:

A)Expediting

B)Crashing

C)Vendor management

D)Null nodes

E)Trade-off analysis

Q2) Many activities have slack time; if we add these slack times together, this represents the potential improvement in early completion for the project.

A)True

B)False

Q3) What is the estimated slack time for activity A?

A)0 days

B)20 days

C)40 days

D)60 days

E)100 days

Q4) The task of identifying risks should involve everyone associated with the project.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 18: Management of Waiting Lines

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Sample Questions

Q1) In an infinite source model, the average number being served is equal to the ratio of the arrival rate to the service rate.

A)True

B)False

Q2) All infinite source queuing models require the system utilization to be less than 1.0.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Compared to a single channel a system with exponential service time, a single channel system with a constant service time causes a reduction of 50 percent in the average number waiting in line.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The goal of queuing analysis is to minimize:

A)the sum of customer waiting costs and capacity costs

B)the sum of customer waiting time and service time

C)capacity costs

D)customer waiting time

E)idle servers

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Chapter 19: Linear Programming

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Sample Questions

Q1) A change in the value of an objective function coefficient does not change the optimal solution.

A)True

B)False

Q2) What is the objective function?

A)$4.00 A + $1.00 B = Z

B)$0.25 A + $1.00 B = Z

C)$1.00 A + $4.00 B = Z

D)$1.00 A + $1.00 B = Z

E)$0.25 A + $0.50 B = Z

Q3) The theoretical limit on the number of constraints that can be handled by the simplex method in a single problem is: A)1 B)2 C)3 D)4

E)unlimited

Q4) What is the constraint for resource III?

Q5) What is the constraint for resource I?

Q6) Is the production combination 10 A's and 10 B's feasible?

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Chapter 20: Extension 4: Reliability

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Q1) A system consists of two components, each of which must activate if the system is to activate.One component has a reliability of .99.The other has a reliability of .95.The components are independent of one another with respect to reliability.What is the overall system reliability?

A).99

B).95

C).94

D).90

E)Cannot be determined with this information.

Q2) Availability cannot be increased without improving the time between breakdowns.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Redundancy is often more cost-effective than increasing individual component reliability.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Reliability is the probability that a product or system will function when activated. A)True

B)False

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Chapter 21: Extension 5: Decision Theory

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Q1) Which phrase best describes the term bounded rationality?

A)thinking a problem through clearly before acting

B)taking care not to exhaust limited resources

C)the result of departmentalized decision making

D)limits imposed on decision making by costs, time, and technology

E)the use of extremely structured steps in the decision making process

Q2) If she feels the chances of low, medium, and high compliance are 20%, 30%, and 50% respectively, what are the expected net revenues for the number of assistants she will decide to hire?

A)$26,000

B)$46,000

C)$48,000

D)$50,000

E)$76,000

Q3) If he uses the Laplace criterion, which alternative will he decide to select?

A)do nothing

B)expand

C)build new

D)either do nothing or expand

E)either expand or build new

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Chapter 22: Extension 7: Learning Curves

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Q1) Which unit, if any, will require approximately one-half the time of the first unit?

A)18<sup>th</sup> unit

B)19<sup>th</sup> unit

C)20<sup>th</sup> unit

D)21<sup>st</sup> unit

E)22<sup>nd</sup> unit

Q2) Which one of the following would learning curves probably affect the least?

A)pricing new products

B)negotiated purchasing

C)layout analysis

D)scheduling

E)capacity planning

Q3) An 80 percent learning curve means that with each doubling of repetitions there will be a 20 percent decrease in time per unit.

A)True

B)False

Q4) It takes a worker with a 90 percent learning curve 72.9 minutes to complete the fourth unit of a seven-unit job.Estimate the amount of time the worker spent on the first two units.

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Chapter 23: Extension 8: The Transportation Model

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Q1) An automobile manufacturer that has eight assembly plants and thousands of dealers throughout the United States can find the optimal distribution plan by using:

A)linear programming model

B)transportation model

C)weighted factor rating

D)either A or B

E)Global Information Systems

Q2) Which of the following is a constraint for the customer (campaign headquarters)?

A)2X<sub>11</sub> + 9X<sub>21</sub> + X<sub>31</sub> = 20

B)5X<sub>12</sub> + 3X<sub>22</sub> + 8X<sub>32</sub> = 70

C)X<sub>11</sub> + X<sub>12</sub> + X<sub>13</sub> = 50

D)X<sub>12</sub> + X<sub>22</sub> + X<sub>32</sub> = 70

E)all of the above

Q3) The transportation model is a special type of linear regression model.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The transportation model assumes similar, homogeneous goods.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 24: Extension 10: Acceptance Sampling

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Q1) A lot can be "accepted" or "rejected" in a multiple-sampling plan:

A)after one sample is taken

B)after two samples are taken

C)after three or more samples are taken

D)all of the above

E)none of the above

Q2) Due to the nature of acceptance sampling, the average outgoing quality limit (AOQL) occurs when the incoming fraction defective reaches a maximum.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Acceptance sampling is a form of inspection applied to items during an ongoing process.

A)True

B)False

Q4) An alternative to acceptance sampling is 100% inspection.

A)True

B)False

Q5) If the value for Average Outgoing Quality increases, this means that __________ defective units are being passed on.

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Chapter 25: Extension 14: Maintenance

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Sample Questions

Q1) Preventive maintenance is generally scheduled on the basis of:

A)planned inspections

B)passage of time

C)number of operating hours

D)all of the above

E)none of the above

Q2) If one operator performing preventive maintenance requires two hours to complete the job, then two operators working together should complete the preventive maintenance in one hour.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The optimum amount of preventive maintenance is where:

A)Total breakdown costs are a minimum.

B)Total preventive maintenance costs are a minimum.

C)Each maintenance component cost is a minimum.

D)Total maintenance costs are a maximum.

E)Total maintenance costs are a minimum.

Q4) Proactive maintenance is periodic.

A)True

B)False

27

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