
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Management Principles introduces students to the foundational concepts and functions of management within organizations. This course explores the roles and responsibilities of managers, key management theories, and the essential skills required to effectively plan, organize, lead, and control organizational resources. Students will examine decision-making processes, organizational structures, leadership styles, motivation techniques, and strategies for achieving organizational goals. The course also emphasizes ethical considerations, communication practices, and the impact of globalization on managerial practices, preparing students for future leadership roles in diverse workplace environments.
Recommended Textbook
Human Resource Management 13th Edition by
Robert L. Mathis
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Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) The HR function in the organization is largely insulated from unethical behaviors.
B) The HR department is largely responsible for the unethical behaviors of employees in the organization.
C) HR management is the voice of organizational ethics.
D) HR management must focus on clearly illegal behaviors within the firm and leave ethics up to the conscience of each individual manager.
Answer: C
Q2) The collective value of the capabilities,knowledge,skills,life experiences and motivation of an organizational workforce is called
A) the organization's talent inventory.
B) total human resources.
C) human capital.
D) the organization's intellectual assets.
Answer: C
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Q1) A major cause of mergers and acquisitions failing to improve shareholder value is poorly-addressed HR issues.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Effectiveness compares inputs and costs to outputs and benefits.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which of the following government regulations do NOT affect HR planning?
A) pension laws.
B) tax benefits for job-training expenses.
C) regulations on the length of the work week.
D) reporting requirements for workers' compensation claims.
Answer: D
Q4) The intention of the Major Reduction in Force Act is to give employees advance notice of an impending layoff.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) The 1991 Civil Rights Act requires that plaintiffs bringing discrimination charges must A) prove that the negative impact on the employee was entirely due to his/her membership in a protected class..
B) identify the particular employer practice being challenged and that protected class status played some role.
C) identify majority-group members who benefited from the illegal actions.
D) provide evidence of financial harm caused by the employer's actions.
Answer: B
Q2) The most fundamental anti-discrimination employment law,the one that is considered the keystone for following legislation,is the
A) Fourteenth Amendment of the U.S. constitution.
B) Civil Rights Act of 1964.
C) Executive Order 11246.
D) Equal Pay Act of 1963.
Answer: B
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Q1) Because of strict U.S.labor laws protecting workers from exploitation,U.S.workers spend the fewer hours at work compared with almost every other developed nation in Europe and Asia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The three phases of business processes re-engineering are
A) analyze, diagnose, design
B) unfreezing, changing, refreezing.
C) rethink, redesign, retool.
D) job analysis, job description, job specification.
Q3) Job enlargement involves
A) broadening the scope of a job by expanding the number of different tasks to be performed.
B) increasing the depth of a job to provide more autonomy.
C) increasing the amount of impact the job has on other people.
D) shifting a person from job to job to increase variety.
Q4) Shift work is unavoidable when businesses need 24-hour coverage.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How does the increasing diversity of the workforce affect HR functions?
Page 6
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Q1) Turnover,especially dysfunctional turnover,can be seen as a symptom of underlying problems in the organization that must be fixed before turnover can be reduced.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Alicia is an assistant HR manager for one of the largest law firms in the state.She has been assigned to estimate and categorize the outflows from the law firm's ranks of paralegals.All of the following types of organizational turnover would be considered controllable turnover EXCEPT
A) termination of paralegals for poor performance.
B) layoff of surplus paralegals at a branch location.
C) promotion of a paralegal to a management position.
D) retirements of paralegals.
Q3) Piaffe Products has 15 employees quit during 2010 and an additional 10 are fired for poor performance.At midyear there are 50 employees.Piaffe's turnover rate is
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 30%
D) 50%
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Q1) Re-recruiting former employees or "boomerangers" is a way of avoiding "inbreeding" while still using an internal recruiting source.
A)True
B)False
Q2) There are two kinds of executive search firms.____ firms charge a fee regardless of the success of the search.
A) Contract
B) Commission
C) Contingency
D) Retainer
Q3) All of the following are drawbacks of promoting from within EXCEPT
A) when an internal candidate in promoted, it causes a cascade of vacancies within the firm..
B) internal recruiting costs tend to be higher than external recruiting costs because of the extensive databases and employee skills inventories required..
C) if the current workforce lacks diversity, EEO problems may be perpetuated.
D) an employee's good performance on one job may not be a good predictor of his/her performance on another job.
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Q1) What is the purpose of pre-employment screening?
A) to provide a realistic job preview and discourage potential applicants who would be dissatisfied with the job
B) to weed out applicants with arrest records and convictions
C) to determine if applicants meet the minimum qualifications for open jobs
D) to obtain information for EEO and Affirmative Action reports
Q2) The recruiter interviewing for customer service telephone representatives tells the applicants that many of the callers are upset and angry,and that some will even use offensive language when speaking with the representatives.The recruiter also informs the applicants that they will be required to be polite,helpful and professional in dealing with all callers,and that their calls will be monitored by their supervisor.They will also work in windowless cubicle in rooms holding 100 other customer service representatives.The applicants are allowed to listen to a selection of pre-recorded actual customer calls and shown the room in which they will work.This is an example of
A) pre-employment screening.
B) a stress interview..
C) a realistic job preview.
D) a situational interview.
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Q1) Which of the following is TRUE about on-the-job training (OJT)?
A) It is less disruptive to the work flow than other types of training.
B) It is flexible and relevant to what employees do.
C) It is more expensive than classroom training.
D) OJT is most effective when it arises spontaneously out of job activities.
Q2) Vera has been a receptionist at an office tower downtown for five years.She enjoys the work as she has gotten to be friends with some of the tenants and she can knit during the slow times.Now,her employer has put a computer at her reception desk and is training her to do some clerical tasks during her downtime.Vera is extremely perturbed at this change,especially since her pay is topped out.Vera's reaction is unusual,as most workers enjoy cross-training and the variety of new tasks.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The difficulty with evaluating results by measuring the effect of training on the achievement of organizational objectives is
A) pinpointing whether it actually was training that caused the changes.
B) that organizational results are not clearly quantifiable.
C) the criteria are hard to obtain.
D) the difficulty of interpreting subjective performance measures.
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Q1) Mannie is an excellent performer who was promoted to a management position 12 months ago.Unfortunately,Mannie's subordinates are unhappy and his department has experienced a surge in turnover of valuable staff in the year since Mannie took over the department.As the senior HR executive,you decide that at this point
A) Mannie would be a good candidate for leadership coaching.
B) Mannie should be sent to an assessment center to identify if he has management potential.
C) Mannie and his team should be sent on a survival wilderness course to build team spirit.
D) Mannie should either be demoted or terminated.
Q2) Which of the following is a concern about the use of assessment centers?
A) A clever participant can fake the tests and get an undeserved high management potential rating.
B) They tend to discriminate against minority individuals.
C) They are expensive considering that most psychological traits such as leadership and initiative can be accurately assessed by paper and pencil techniques.
D) Managers may use them as a way to avoid difficult promotion decisions.
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Q1) Performance appraisals at Swamp Blossom Designs,Inc.,always occur on the employee's anniversary of employment.A standard protocol is in place to report managerial impressions and observations on employee performance.This is an example of
A) objective evaluation.
B) subjective evaluation.
C) systematic appraisal.
D) informal appraisal.
Q2) The auditors in a public accounting firm are assigned to new project teams as their current projects end.Consequently,an auditor may work on one project for an entire year or the auditor may be assigned to several different shorter-term projects during a year.All of the following are behaviors that would be important to encourage through the performance appraisal system EXCEPT
A) competitiveness.
B) achievement orientation.
C) initiative.
D) information-seeking.
Q3) Describe the roles of performance appraisal and performance management.What is the role of performance management and appraisal in administrative decision making?
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Q1) If employees feel their pay is unfair,they are likely to do or feel all the following EXCEPT A) quit.
B) be dissatisfied with their jobs.
C) lose self-esteem.
D) change their job performance.
Q2) In order to show how the rate of compensation changes compares with the rate of changes in the organization's revenues overall
A) compensation metrics should be calculated each year and compared with previous years' metrics.
B) compensation metrics should be calculated for regular employees (excluding compensation for part time employees) and compared with previous years' metrics.
C) the board of directors should have compensation metrics calculated on a rotating basis: Human value added one year, return on human capital invested the next year, and so forth. This provides the "big picture" strategically.
D) total compensation should be charted against total revenues, and any upward change in total compensation should be analyzed.
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Q1) The most frequently used form of sales compensation is the A) salary only.
B) straight commission.
C) salary plus commission.
D) differential commission.
Q2) Amanda,a CEO of a large marketing firm,is paid bonuses based n quarterly organizational performance.This pay system undermines Amanda's inclination to take the long term view when making important strategic decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the usual composition of the compensation committee?
A) a subgroup of the Board of Directors including officers of the firm
B) a subgroup of the Board of Directors who are not officers of the firm
C) executives from other companies who serve on a committee that is separate from the Board of Directors, but which reports to it
D) compensation consultants and the head of HR
Q4) Should performance incentives for teams be equal for all team members or based on individual performance?
Q5) Describe the various methods of compensating sales employees.
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Q1) Caveat Emptor Services,Inc.,is a consulting firm that offers a service to employers that examines all medical work and charges.Caveat reviews the procedures done and the charges for the procedures.As necessary,Caveat obtains a second opinion about the medical procedures performed.Caveat is performing
A) medical monitoring.
B) reimbursement control.
C) a utilization review.
D) a medical services audit.
Q2) What is the basis for determining the employer's cost of unemployment compensation?
A) the type of business and industry and its known seasonal fluctuations in employment
B) the number of covered employees
C) the employer's total payroll cost
D) the number of claims filed by former employees
Q3) The biggest cost increases in benefits have been in pension programs,causing employers to reduce pensions for retirees.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) As an employee assistance program consultant,your client companies who use your substance abuse services most heavily are the companies that employ mostly
A) blue-collar, young, single men.
B) people over 55 working full or part-time in hourly jobs.
C) women between the ages of 18 and 30 in any occupation.
D) white-collar men in high-stress jobs.
Q2) Laura,the CEO of an EAP,has been asked to list the most common problems are that her company sees in its practice with organizations.Laura lists all of the following issues EXCEPT
A) workplace violence.
B) depression and anxiety.
C) marital and relationship problems.
D) legal difficulties.
Q3) OSHA representatives who conduct inspections are called A) inspectors general.
B) compliance officers.
C) safety and health auditors.
D) control agents.
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Q1) Paul is a recreational user of illegal substances and does not intend to stop using them.He is graduating from high school and considering his career choices.All of the following occupations EXCEPT ____ would subject Paul to DOT drug testing.
A) long-haul truck driver
B) airline mechanic
C) warehouse forklift operator
D) licensed sailor.
Q2) Typically,HR managers
A) review policies and rules with all employees.
B) apply HR policies, rules, and procedures.
C) give feedback on the effectiveness of policies and rules.
D) train line managers to administer policies, rules, and procedures.
Q3) One of the difficulties in managing unionized employees is that they regard themselves as free agents,unrestrained by implied or written contracts.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The employment-at-will doctrine overrides implied contracts.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) All the following are indicators that an employee is a supervisor and not protected by the National Labor Relations Act EXCEPT the employee
A) can hire other employees.
B) can discharge other employees.
C) can train other employees.
D) can use independent judgement with employees.
Q2) In the U.S.,the primary determining factor in whether employees unionize is
A) the behavior of the employing organization's management.
B) the promotion of or discouragement of unionization by the federal government.
C) economic cycles of boom and bust.
D) actions by union organizers.
Q3) It is a myth that unionized employees make higher wages than do non-union workers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The largest organization coordinating union efforts in the U.S.today is the A) Department of Labor.
B) the International Labour Organization
C) Change to Win Federation.
D) AFL-CIO.
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