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This course provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental concepts and functions of management, focusing on planning, organizing, leading, and controlling within organizational settings. Students will explore key management theories, decision-making processes, and leadership styles, while examining how effective management practices influence productivity, employee motivation, and organizational success. Emphasis is placed on real-world application through case studies and practical examples, enabling students to develop critical managerial skills required for today's dynamic business environment.
Recommended Textbook
Organizational Behavior Managing People and Organizations 11th Edition by Ricky W. Griffin
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Q1) Contemporary organizational behavior is both ____ in focus and ____ in nature.
A)dynamic; prescriptive
B)stable; consistent
C)interdisciplinary; descriptive
D)cross-cultural; proscriptive
E)interactional; behavioral
Answer: C
Q2) Developing new corporate goals that involve acquiring new businesses is part of the planning function.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) A(n) _______ is an interrelated set of elements functioning as a whole. Answer: system
Q4) Organizational behavior is a designated business function just like marketing and accounting.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
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Q1) In 2012, the volume of international trade in current dollars was less than 200 times greater than the amount in 1960.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which of the following statements about technology is NOT true?
A)Technology is a major driver for organizational change.
B)It has widespread effects on the behavior of people in the organization.
C)Technology provides a competitive advantage.
D)It separates and transforms resources into outcomes.
E)It is causing shift toward a service-based economy.
Answer: D
Q3) Factors that matter to us as individuals and that to some extent define us to others are called primary dimensions of diversity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) A(n) _________ worker is hired because of what they know.
Answer: knowledge
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Q1) Demario truly believes that he can achieve his goal of selling 10 cars each month. This belief reflects Demario's
A)self-efficacy.
B)risk propensity.
C)attitude.
D)self-esteem.
E)Machiavellianism.
Answer: A
Q2) Cognitive dissonance occurs when there is congruence among attitudes, perceptions, and behaviors.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The extent to which people are self-aware, can manage their emotions, motivate themselves, and express empathy for others is called their ________.
Answer: emotional intelligence
Q4) Pay, career opportunities, and tangible rewards are all _______ that organizations give to workers.
Answer: inducements
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Q1) The need for ____ is most frequently associated with David McClelland.
A)security
B)power
C)achievement
D)self-esteem
E)self-improvement
Q2) Equity is achieved when an individual perceives that he or she is being treated fairly in relation to others.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is first step in OB modification?
A)Measure baseline performance.
B)Develop and apply an appropriate intervention strategy.
C)Identify the existing behavioral contingencies, or consequences of performance.
D)Identify performance-related behavior events.
E)Measure performance again to determine whether the desired effect has been achieved.
Q4) Requesting a pay raise is an attempt to reduce inequity by changing one's own
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Q1) All of the following statements about the use of quality circles are true EXCEPT:
A)Employees meet regularly to identify problems.
B)Employees are empowered to control their work.
C)The use of a question/answer period is important.
D)Employees can propose solutions to problems.
E)Employees meet voluntarily.
Q2) The benefits of job sharing include all of the following EXCEPT:
A)a way to entice more workers to the organization.
B)there are cost benefits to the organization.
C)the organization does not have to offer benefits.
D)organizations are concerned about worker safety.
E)the organization can tap into a wider array of skills.
Q3) _____ is the degree to which a job allows an individual substantial freedom, independence, and discretion to schedule the work and determine the procedures for carrying it out.
Q4) The _______ work week allows employees to work their full forty hours in fewer than the traditional five days.
Q5) Horizontal job loading is also known as _______.
Q6) Discuss the evolution of job design.
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Q1) The choice of which behaviors to reward is a function of the A)compensation system.
B)performance measurement system.
C)performance management system.
D)managerial system.
E)total quality management system.
Q2) Interestingly, the IRS has begun to tax some perquisites given to employees.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the United States, appraising performance at the individual level is acceptable.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Among the key purposes of performance measurement include reward allocation and employee feedback.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An organizational policy that mandates pay __________ is illegal.
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Q6) A performance management system in which people receive feedback from those on all "sides" of them is called ____________.

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Q1) Organizational consequences of stress include a decline in performance, heart disease, and headaches.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the _____ stage of the general adaptation syndrome, people wonder how to cope with stressors.
A)resistance
B)physiological
C)realization
D)emotion
E)alarm
Q3) All of the following are signs of burnout EXCEPT:
A)putting in long hours, but getting little accomplished.
B)dreading going to work.
C)mental exhaustion.
D)physical exhaustion.
E)strenuous exercise.
Q4) _______ is an individual's adaptive response to a stimulus that places excess demands on that individual.
Q5) Anything that induces stress is classified as a(n) _______.
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Q1) Describe, discuss, and give examples of the behavioral approach to decision-making.
Q2) Which of the following represents the step of the rational decision-making approach in which the outcomes of the decision are compared to the desired goal?
A)Analyze the decision
B)Control: measure and adjust
C)Determine the goal
D)Collect data
E)Analyze the situation
Q3) Under the condition of ______, the manager knows what the outcomes of each alternative.
A)certainty
B)estimation
C)risk
D)uncertainty
E)rationalization
Q4) ______ decisions generally require the decision maker to exercise judgment and creativity.
Q5) A programmed decision occurs frequently enough for a(n) _______ to be developed.
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Q1) The four group performance factors are composition, size, norms, and _________.
Q2) Which of the following is one of the four basic factors that affect group performance?
A)Escalation of commitment
B)Groupthink
C)Task deformation
D)Composition
E)Social loafing
Q3) Group norms are developed in the control and organization stage of group development.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All of the following are features of group discussion that contribute to group polarization EXCEPT
A)group members could take an extreme view of an opinion.
B)task uncertainty can be impacted by the decision.
C)persuasive arguments can encourage polarization.
D)members may feel they are not individually responsible.
E)members will accept a more radical decision from their own.
Q5) __________ groups are established by the organization to do its work.
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Q1) Gain-sharing programs usually reward all team members from all teams based on the performance of one particular team.
A)True
B)False
Q2) During the ____ phase of team implementation, managers have withdrawn from the daily operations and are counseling teams.
A)tightly formed teams
B)start-up
C)leader-centered teams
D)self-managing teams
E)reality and unrest
Q3) The second most important task of management teams is to _______ work between work teams that are _______ in some manner.
Q4) Communication with external teams is critical in the _______ team phase of team implementation.
Q5) Which types of teams discussed in the chapter could successfully operate as virtual teams? Provide support for your answer.
Q6) Teams include people with a mix of ______ appropriate to the tasks to be done.
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Q1) Which of these is the study of language forms?
A)Semantics
B)Jargon
C)Verification
D)Grapevine
E)Communication fidelity
Q2) The ______ network is typical of the communication in a vertical hierarchy.
Q3) Nonverbal communication only includes elements related to personal characteristics.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe, discuss, and give examples of the various roles that people play in organizational communication networks.
Q5) The primary purpose of organizational communication, according to your text, is to A)define problems.
B)make decisions.
C)share information.
D)achieve coordinated action.
E)meet industry requirements.
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Q1) Which of these is the ability to affect the perceptions, beliefs, attitudes, motivation, and/or behaviors of others?
A)Force
B)Influence
C)Coercion
D)Authority
E)Intuition
Q2) LPC theory, unlike path-goal theory, assumes that leaders can change their behaviors and exhibit a variety of leadership styles.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Early studies of leadership focused on the traits, or personal characteristics, of leaders. Later research shifted to examine actual ______ behavior.
A)member
B)focus
C)leader
D)competitor
E)follower
Q4) Fiedler identified three factors that determine the ______ of the situation.
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Q1) Most leadership research has been conducted on samples or case studies involving members of minority groups.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Studies have generally found that compared to out-group members, in-group members
A)complain more because they have access to the leader.
B)tend to have higher levels of performance and satisfaction.
C)are responsible for nearly all new product developments.
D)make more ethical decisions.
E)are absent more often, but get more work done when they attend.
Q3) _______ leaders recognize the need for change and create a vision to guide that change.
Q4) Which of the following may help explain the pattern of differences between men and women leaders?
A)Men tend to be more supportive.
B)Women tend to be more controlling.
C)Men tend to be more task focused.
D)Women tend to rely on their own judgment.
E)Women tend to have stronger interpersonal skills.
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Q1) _________, a subtle form of referent power, means that a leader behaves in the way he or she wants subordinates to act.
Q2) Coercive power exists when one person has the ability to punish or harm someone else.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Discuss the different forms of organizational justice. Which form do you think would be most important to employees? Which form do you think is most under managers' control?
Q4) Regardless of the leader's traits or behaviors, leadership only matters if ____ actually occurs.
A)sacrifice
B)authority
C)influence
D)impression management
E)politics
Q5) Influence is the ability to affect the perceptions, attitudes or behaviors of others. A)True
B)False
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Q1) McDonald's not including fat content in its published nutritional information is an example of
A)conflict between an organization and the environment.
B)conflict between suppliers.
C)intergroup conflict.
D)sequential conflict.
E)pooled conflict.
Q2) When the interaction between groups is very important to goal attainment and the goals of the two groups are compatible, which reaction to conflict is likely to occur?
A)Competition
B)Collaboration
C)Compromise
D)Accommodation
E)Avoidance
Q3) _______ occurs when the goals are incompatible, and the interactions are important to each part's meeting its goals.
Q4) The degree of goal ______ is the extent to which the goals of two parties can be achieved simultaneously.
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Q1) The organizational environment consists of everything outside the boundaries of the organization.
A)True
B)False
Q2) _______ issues are variations in the structure and design of companies operating in different cultures.
Q3) According to the research conducted by Peter Blau and his associates, large size is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:
A)more formalization.
B)a larger span of control.
C)more levels in the hierarchy.
D)greater flexibility.
E)specialization of labor.
Q4) At the most advanced level of multinational activity, a firm might become an international ______.
Q5) The task environment includes all of the specific organizations, groups, and individuals that influence the organization.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) _______ are the basic beliefs about an organization's environment that shape its strategy.
A)Strategic values
B)Radical innovation
C)Incremental innovation
D)Implementation strategies
E)Cultural values
Q2) There is significant agreement about how to define organization culture.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ______ research is based in psychology and usually refers to current situations and the linkages among work groups, employees, and work performance.
Q4) What steps should an entrepreneur take to create an organizational culture?
Q5) Describe, discuss, and give examples of the difference between culture and climate of an organization.
Q6) The statement "the customer is always right" is an example of a cultural value. A)True
B)False
Q7) Emile Durkheim was an early sociologist who studied myths and _______.
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Q1) Describe, discuss, and give examples of organizational sources of resistance to change.
Q2) How might a manager reduce the spread of rumors regarding a change?
A)Start small
B)Secure top management support
C)Foster open communication
D)Encourage participation
E)Take a holistic view
Q3) John and Mark are brothers who were born in 1958 and 1961 respectively. Accordingly, they can be classified as ______ and _______.
A)Generation X; Generation Y
B)Millennials; Baby-boomers
C)Generation Y; Generation X
D)Generation Z; Baby-boomers
E)Baby-boomers; Generation X
Q4) The four areas in which the pressures for change are the most powerful involve people, technology, information processing and communication, and competition.
A)True
B)False
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