
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Management Principles introduces students to the fundamental concepts, theories, and practices essential to effective organizational management. The course explores key functions such as planning, organizing, leading, and controlling, while examining the roles and responsibilities of managers in diverse organizational contexts. Students will analyze decision-making processes, leadership styles, motivation strategies, and team dynamics, developing a foundational understanding of how managers achieve organizational goals. Through case studies and practical examples, the course emphasizes ethical considerations, cultural influences, and contemporary challenges faced by managers in a rapidly changing business environment.
Recommended Textbook
ORGB 3 3rd Edition by Debra L.
Nelson
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Q1) Feedback
A)Dedication to continuous improvement and meeting customer demands.
B)Research results or scientific information.
C)Learning and mastery of physical and social abilities.
D)The primary concern for managers in the 21st century.
E)Knowledge of results.
Answer: E
Q2) Total Quality
A)Dedication to continuous improvement and meeting customer demands.
B)Research results or scientific information.
C)Learning and mastery of physical and social abilities.
D)The primary concern for managers in the 21st century.
E)Knowledge of results.
Answer: A
Q3) The study and management of organizational behavior is primarily an art rather than a science.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Which generation of workers tends to be impatient, wants short-term gratification, and puts family before work?
A)silent generation
B)Generation Y
C)Generation X
D)baby boomers
Answer: C
Q2) Are legal requirements and ethical standards synonymous?
Answer: They are close but not the same. Staying just within the law could also border on being unethical. In other words, a person could be found to have met legal technical requirements but their behavior might be considered unacceptable from an ethical viewpoint.
Q3) A Japanese manager employed at the Honda plant in Marysville, Ohio, is an expatriate.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Identify and explain barriers to social perception.
Answer: Stereotyping stems from generalizing about a group of people. Selective perception involves using only information that supports one's preconceived view of someone. One's initial interaction with another may lead to an incorrect conclusion or first impression error. Pet theories one has of behavior may produce inaccurate perception. A self-fulfilling prophecy occurs in a situation where one's expectations about people affect interaction with them in such a way that expectations are fulfilled.
Q2) Which type of situation is interpreted the same way by different individuals, evoking agreement on the appropriate behavior in the situation?
A)weak situation
B)middle situation
C)ambiguous situation
D)strong situation
Answer: D
Q3) High self-monitors can adjust their behavior to fit the situation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) The acronym ABC in the ABC Model stands for attitude, behavioral intention, and commitment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An individual does not have an attitude until he or she responds to an entity on a:
A)personal, cognitive, and behavioral basis
B)cognitive, interactive, and behavioral basis
C)behavioral, affective, and interactive, basis
D)cognitive, behavioral, and affective basis
Q3) Cheating
A)Behavior consistent with one's personal values and those of society.
B)An example of unethical behavior.
C)The study of moral values and moral behavior.
D)Aiming below excellence in terms of work performance.
E)Choosing between two or more equally desirable or undesirable options.
Q4) The greater the attitude specificity, the stronger an attitude linkage to behavior.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Equity theory can be used to explain consequences stemming from differences in pay. Assume many employees in a department feel underpaid. What do you predict their behavior and performance to be?
Q2) All of the following would be consistent with new ideas in motivation except:
A)eustress
B)individuals need to be activated by unmet needs
C)individuals are motivated by their own physical, emotional, mental, and spiritual energy
D)energy recovery is as or more important than energy expenditure
Q3) Under expectancy theory, a person's motivation increases along with the belief that effort leads to performance and:
A)the reward is valued
B)that performance leads to rewards
C)the reward is equitable
D)that performance leads to rewards and the reward is valued
Q4) When an employee's knowledge and skills match job task demands, an acceptable individual-organizational match will take place.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Social learning theory
A)Individual who prefers analysis of data and logical explanation of problems.
B)A theory of learning that focuses on observation of others and modeling.
C)Individual who prefers specific empirical data and look for practical applications.
D)Process of specifying desired results.
E)A performance-planning and goal-setting program that focuses on the supervisor-employee relationship.
Q2) Extinction
A)An attempt to weaken a behavior by attaching no consequences.
B)A salary increase.
C)Behavior change induced by either positive or negative consequences.
D)A one-week disciplinary layoff.
E)A change in behavior acquired through knowledge acquisition.
Q3) In terms of the work environment, learning:
A)takes place through formal training programs
B)is primarily the cognitive activity of acquiring knowledge
C)is ad hoc and accidental
D)is a change in behavior acquired through experience and knowledge acquisition
Q4) How can schedules of reinforcement be used in the work situation?
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Q1) The approach to stress that is based on the concept of homeostasis is known as:
A)physiological
B)psychoanalytical
C)social psychological
D)psychological-cognitive
Q2) The stage in preventive stress management designed to heal individual or organizational symptoms of distress and strain is called:
A)primary prevention
B)secondary prevention
C)tertiary prevention
D)job redesign
Q3) Role ambiguity and task uncertainty both indicate lack of information.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A manager instructs an employee to ship an item with a minor defect to a customer. This is an example of:
A)role ambiguity
B)person-role conflict
C)interrole conflict
D)non-role conflict

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Q1) Kinesics
A)Study of body movements, including posture.
B)Speech variations, such as tone, tempo, pitch, and others.
C)Doing more than one thing at a time.
D)An example of nonverbal communication.
E)Excessive information.
Q2) Evoking a shared or common meaning in another person is called reflective listening.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Polyphasic activity
A)Study of body movements, including posture.
B)Speech variations, such as tone, tempo, pitch, and others.
C)Doing more than one thing at a time.
D)An example of nonverbal communication.
E)Excessive information.
Q4) New communication technologies may make people less patient with face-to-face communication.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) The primary elements of work team structure include goals, operating guidelines, performance measures, and specification of roles.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements best reflects the punctuated equilibrium model of group development?
A)teams experience relational conflicts at different times and in different contexts. B)groups do not necessarily progress linearly from one stage to another in sequential steps or stages.
C)groups alternate between periods of inertia and progress toward goals with bursts of energy.
D)all of these.
Q3) A highly cohesive group can set performance output at a level below standard.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Distinguish between and provide examples of task and maintenance functions of groups.
Q5) What factors of a group work situation affect cohesiveness?
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Q1) The tendency to continue to support a failing course of action is known as consistency theory.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An antidote for groupthink in self-managed teams is:
A)brainstorming
B)the use of nominal groups
C)welcoming dissent
D)the Delphi technique
Q3) Heuristics
A)A simple decision rule.
B)An inclination to choose options displaying minimal risk.
C)A decisional situation where options have probabilities of success.
D)Delegating and giving employees authority to make decisions.
E)A situation where a person continues to follow/implement an option even though its chances of success are minimal and possibly declining.
Q4) Time constraints don't prevent managers from using group decision techniques.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What individual and organization influences affect creativity?
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Q1) When a firm is preparing for bankruptcy, the accountants as a group may become unduly powerful because of:
A)high centrality
B)their nonsubstitutability
C)operational knowledge of the firm
D)their ability to better cope with change
Q2) A lack of awareness of organizational politics is a barrier that holds women back in terms of moving into senior executive ranks.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Personal power
A)A good result for the individual and the organization.
B)Equitable allocation of resources.
C)Power used for personal gain.
D)Activities that other groups depend on in order to complete their tasks.
E)Power used to create motivation or accomplish group goals.
Q4) What are the major sources of interpersonal power according to French & Raven?
Q5) Authority is legitimate power.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) When a leader has strong position power, the task is moderately structured, and leader-member relations are good, a laissez-faire leadership style is appropriate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) According to the Leadership Grid approach to leadership, the manager who exerts just enough effort to avoid being fired would be consistent with what position on the grid?
A)9,9
B)5,5
C)1,1
D)1,9
Q3) Follower motivational training would be LEAST successful with:
A)survivors
B)sheep
C)yes people
D)alienated followers
Q4) What is the difference between a leader and a manager?
Q5) What are the characteristics of an effective follower?
Q6) Briefly explain House's path-goal theory of leadership.
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Q1) One of the positive sides of intrapersonal conflicts is:
A)defining moments
B)the resolution of dissonance
C)the opportunity for cooperative forms of resolutions
D)collaborative forms of resolution
Q2) Work units that are highly interdependent may be more prone to interunit conflict than two independent departments.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The major problem associated with the high versus middle versus low power relationship is suboptimization.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Conflict that occurs between two or more individuals would be considered:
A)interpersonal conflict
B)intrapersonal conflict
C)intergroup conflict
D)intragroup conflict
Q5) How can conflict be functional and positive?
Q6) What are the structural factors that cause conflict in an organization?
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Q1) When a secretarial employee is given the responsibility and authority to handle certain types of correspondence, the job has been:
A)enriched
B)enlarged
C)horizontally loaded
D)rotated
Q2) In the design of jobs and work organizations, Germans:
A)emphasize personal identity and social benefits of work
B)value hierarchy and authority relationships
C)focus on collectivism
D)strongly endorse unionism
Q3) The following are guidelines which can help make electronic workplace monitoring of performance less distressful except:
A)using performance records to improve performance
B)having employees participate in the introduction of workplace monitoring
C)using state-of-the-art monitoring equipment
D)insuring performance are perceived as fair
Q4) Identify and briefly describe several recently developed alternative work patterns.
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Q1) The prime coordinating mechanism in an adhocracy is mutual adjustment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Organizations in the birth stage of the life cycle will most likely want a mechanistic structure in order to be effective.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The thousands of State Farm Insurance Company agents' offices scattered throughout the United States are an example of:
A)vertical differentiation
B)spatial differentiation
C)a tall structure with narrow spans of control
D)departmentation by product
Q4) Of the following, which is NOT a major contextual variable of organizational design?
A)external environment
B)leadership style
C)strategy and goals
D)technology
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Q1) Changing an organization's culture is difficult because:
A)attitudes are not changeable
B)assumptions are deeply ingrained, even below consciousness
C)norms adjust with changing leader personalities
D)behavior is nonconfrontable
Q2) Assumptions are the deepest and most fundamental level of an organization's culture.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a stage that individuals go through when adjusting to a new organization?
A)anticipatory socialization
B)change and acquisition
C)inclusion
D)encounter
Q4) The fit perspective is useful in explaining:
A)long-term performance
B)short-term performance
C)how firms can adapt to environmental change
D)why managers make better decisions
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Q1) Career path
A)An important activity of a mentor.
B)The first stage of a career.
C)Sequence of job experiences.
D)Specified progression of job experiences.
E)A person being mentored.
Q2) The career paths of many women have moved from working in large organizations to starting their own businesses.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A career path can be very similar to a career ladder.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Career management is a lifelong process of learning about self, jobs, and organizations; setting personal career goals; developing strategies for achieving the goals; and revising the goals based on work and life experiences.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How can a mentor help one's career?
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Q1) Unplanned Change
A)An external force for change.
B)Organizational restructuring.
C)Employee skill deficiencies.
D)Someone who facilitates significant change.
E)An often unseen imposition on an organization.
Q2) Diagnosis
A)An initial step in any organization development effort.
B)The change effort.
C)Data-gathering method.
D)A determination of employee skills and competencies that are required.
E)A systematic approach to organizational improvement that applies behavioral science knowledge.
Q3) The protest of a work group to a change in compensation methods is an internal force for change.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Modification of a business firm's mission is a transformational change.
A)True
B)False
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