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Management Principles and Practices explores the foundational concepts and contemporary applications of management within organizations. The course examines the core functions of planning, organizing, leading, and controlling, emphasizing how effective managers use these principles to achieve organizational goals. Students will analyze various management theories, study real-world case examples, and develop skills in strategic decision-making, communication, motivation, and team leadership. Throughout the course, learners gain insights into ethical management practices and the challenges faced in todays dynamic business environment, preparing them to effectively manage people and resources in diverse organizational settings.
Recommended Textbook Fundamentals of Management 8th Edition by
Stephen P. Robbins
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19 Chapters
2687 Verified Questions
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Q1) Supervisors and team leaders may both be considered first-line managers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) A candy manufacturer would increase both efficiency and effectiveness by making ________.
A)better candy at the same cost
B)better candy at a lower cost
C)the same candy at a lower cost
D)the same candy at the same cost
Answer: B
Q3) Designing a series of interview questions to provide information about possible customers for a company would primarily require ________.
A)technical skills
B)interpersonal skills
C)conceptual skills
D)political skills
Answer: C
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Q1) The quarterback of a football team assumes a largely symbolic role for his team because his performance largely determines the outcome of the game.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which of the following most accurately reflects the difference between strong cultures and weak cultures?
A)Strong cultures tend to encourage employee innovation, while weak cultures do not.
B)Weak cultures are found in most successful organizations, whereas strong cultures are relatively rare.
C)Strong cultures have less of an influence on employee behavior than do weak cultures.
D)Company values are more deeply held and widely shared in strong cultures than in weak cultures.
Answer: D
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Q1) Director Jossleman is exhibiting which of the following social responsibility views?
A)socioeconomic view of social responsibility
B)classical view of social responsibility
C)social obligation
D)no social obligation
Answer: A
Q2) Of the approaches to pursuing international markets, developing a ________ involves the greatest commitment and risk.
A)franchise
B)joint venture
C)strategic alliance
D)foreign subsidiary
Answer: D
Q3) Long-term stability and the long-term ability to make profits is an argument for social responsibility.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intuitive decision making can complement ________.
A)rational decision making only
B)bounded rationality only
C)both rationality and bounded rationality
D)neither rationality nor bounded rationality
Q2) An advantage of group decisions is that they increase the perception of the legitimacy of the solution.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A judge consults guidelines before handing down an award for damages in a legal case.What kind of decision making is she doing?
A)following a policy
B)following a rule
C)programmed
D)following a procedure
Q4) According to one study, about ________ of men and women were somewhat creative.
A)1 percent
B)10 percent
C)30 percent
D)60 percent
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Q1) MBO programs usually are successful largely because they ________.
A)give employees a sense of ownership of goals
B)free managers from the responsibility of setting goals
C)give managers a sense of ownership of goals
D)free employees from responsibility if goals are not met
Q2) Planning gives organizations direction that primarily helps them ________.
A)improve teamwork and coordinate activities
B)improve their image in the business community
C)improve morale of middle managers
D)improve morale of all employees
Q3) In general, upper-level managers focus on tactical or operational planning.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Planning provides direction to managers and nonmanagers alike.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In a short essay, describe the first two steps in the strategic management process.
Q6) In a short essay, discuss environmental scanning and competitive intelligence.
Q7) In a short essay, discuss Porter's differentiation strategy.
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Q1) This is a weakness of a functional structure.
A)favoring functional goals over organizational goals
B)favoring organizational goals over functional goals
C)failing to attain functional goals
D)overemphasizing organizational goals
Q2) A company that is pursuing a cost leadership strategy would be most likely to have this kind of structure.
A)mechanistic
B)virtual
C)team
D)matrix-project
Q3) In a team structure, team members ________.
A)are subject to decisions made by their supervisors
B)can influence decisions made by top managers
C)make decisions and are accountable for their decisions
D)make decisions only after first checking with management
Q4) The strength of a simple structure is that everything depends on a single person.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A selection device is valid if it can be proven to accurately measure the abilities of job applicants.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Increased demand for employees typically is associated with increased demand for the products or services offered by an organization.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In a short essay, discuss why sexual harassment is such a difficult problem in today's workplace.
Q4) To set pay standards, HRM employs ________.
A)outside consultants
B)a federal pay scale
C)a panel of an employee's peers
D)a performance management system
Q5) Although most sexual harassment complaints are filed by women, a significant number of complaints are filed by men.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In a short essay, explain organization development (OD).
Q2) Which of the following is an external force that would cause a company to make an organizational change?
A)an organization-wide restructuring
B)the naming of a new CEO
C)a widening span of control for managers
D)a booming economy
Q3) Labor markets are an internal force that creates a need for organizational change.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Studies show that employee assistance programs (EAPs)are ________.
A)a waste of time and energy
B)much too expensive, but sometimes useful
C)cost effective and very useful
D)not cost effective
Q5) In a short essay, define and discuss creativity and innovation in the workplace.
Q6) In a short essay, describe the "white-water rapids" view of organizational change.
Q7) In a short essay, explain the three types of organizational change.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ component of attitude is based on emotions.
A)cognitive
B)behavioral
C)affective
D)action
Q2) Which three factors act to shape and sometimes distort perception?
A)the perceiver, target, context
B)attitudes, past experiences, expectations
C)temperature, time, location
D)past experiences, context, location
Q3) Which of the following are the goals of organizational behavior?
A)to explain, understand, and control behavior
B)to control and influence behavior
C)to explain, predict, and influence behavior
D)to predict, understand, and change behavior
Q4) Operant conditioning is any behavior that occurs as a result of ________.
A)coincidence
B)an innate behavior program
C)reinforcement from reward or punishment
D)reinforcement from reward only

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Q1) A Latin-American member of a global team might show undue respect to another team member because of that member's ________.
A)age
B)physical ability
C)ethnicity
D)family heritage
Q2) One way to emphasize team cohesion is for employers to distribute rewards based on a team's productivity to ________.
A)selected team members
B)all teams
C)the entire team
D)the team leader
Q3) The only effective way to guard against social loafing is for managers to make special efforts to do this.
A)be fair to all group members
B)treat all group members equally
C)assess individual contributions of group members
D)assess the group as a whole exclusively
Q4) In a brief essay, discuss how managers can use rewards to shape team behavior.
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Q1) According to Maslow, a person stranded on a desert island would ________ before he or she worried about making weapons.
A)look for other people
B)build a house
C)start a family
D)establish his or her status on the island
Q2) McClelland thinks that having a high nAch guarantees that a person will be a good manager.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An individual who wants to buy a home in a neighborhood with a low crime rate is satisfying which need?
A)esteem
B)safety
C)physiological
D)self-actualization
Q4) In a short essay, list and discuss the three-needs theory according to David McClelland.Then identify which of these needs has been studied most extensively and discuss the findings of this research.
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Q1) Of the five dimensions that make up the concept of trust, loyalty seems to be the most critical.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Having leadership traits alone is not useful for identifying who is likely to be a leader.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Behavioral theories of leadership focused on ________.
A)who effective leaders were
B)what characteristics effective leaders had
C)how to identify effective leaders
D)what effective leaders did
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of a vision of the future provided by visionary leadership?
A)powerful images
B)easy-to-understand view
C)nonspecific and indefinite
D)clear articulation
Q5) In a short essay, describe the basics of situational leadership theory (SLT).
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Q1) A listener's summary of a speaker's words shows that the listener correctly understood the speaker's message.Which of the following must be true?
A)The speaker used clear, simplified language.
B)The listener used active listening.
C)The speaker sent a clear message and the listener successfully received the message.
D)Either the speaker sent a clear message or the listener was able to interpet an unclear message successfully despite its lack of clarity.
Q2) Jargon never improves communication.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which company would be least likely to use videoconferencing for a meeting of its designers and marketers?
A)a software company
B)a perfume company
C)a financial company
D)a publishing company
Q4) In a short essay, discuss the two best-known types of nonverbal communication.
Q5) In a short essay, explain how gender can affect communication.
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Q1) A balanced scorecard with respect to organizational performance includes areas that are financial and customer-oriented only.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Annual losses from organizational theft and fraud amount to about ________ per worker.
A)$500
B)$2500
C)$4500
D)$6000
Q3) Personal observation as a form of control measurement requires little time.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Controlling provides a critical link back to planning that compares actual outcomes to planned outcomes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) MBWA can pick up moods and attitudes that other forms of measurement miss. A)True
B)False

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Q1) In value chain management, activities are eliminated from the organizational process if they do not add value to the process.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One place in which technology has little impact is the fast-food restaurant business.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Value chain management is efficiency oriented.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ________ is the process of managing the sequence of activities and information along the entire value chain for a product.
A)Supply chain management
B)Value chain management
C)Supply management
D)Customer management
Q5) In a short essay, define value and explain how it is obtained.
Q6) In a short essay, discuss technology's role in manufacturing.
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many workers were involved in building a single Egyptian pyramid?
A)millions
B)tens of millions
C)about 50,000
D)about 100,000
Q2) People value history because it can help put events that are taking place today into perspective.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Henry Gantt's contribution to management theory was to develop efficient ways to schedule.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Industrial Revolution made ________ necessary for manufacturing organization's success for the first time in history.
A)decentralization
B)customer satisfaction
C)product demand
D)management
Q5) In a short essay, discuss scientific management.
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Q1) The key to the proactive personality is that a proactive person feels that he or she can ________ any environment.
A)adapt to B)change
C)be successful in D)be well liked in
Q2) A context analysis sizes up the target market and evaluates possible competitors to the company.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the wake of the recent economic downturn, statistics show that entrepreneurship is ________.
A)low
B)high
C)falling
D)neither rising nor falling
Q4) Identifying opportunity is not a trait of a person with a proactive personality.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In a short essay, describe the classic entrepreneurial personality.
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Q1) A manager uses break-even analysis to find out how many units of a product he needs to sell to make a profit of zero.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a decision tree, each possible outcome ________.
A)gets assigned a probability value between 0 and 1.0
B)gets assigned a probability value of 50 percent
C)gets assigned a probability value between 0 and 50 percent
D)gets assigned a probability value between 0.5 and 1.0
Q3) Regret is computed by subtracting the value of a possible strategy from the greatest value in the entire matrix.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A payoff matrix features strategies S1, S2, S3, and S4 and competitive strategies CA1, CA2, and CA3.In a short essay, explain how maximum regret can be calculated for an S1 strategy.
Q5) In a short essay, explain the type of strategy that a pessimistic manager would take for his company.
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Q1) Changes in the environment that can affect a career include negative things such as downsizing only.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Competitive advantages that people have are limited to their natural talents.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The advice, "You don't leave a good job," ________.
A)was never true
B)is still true today
C)is no longer true
D)is true today more than ever
Q4) A ________ is an edge that makes a person attractive to employers in a job market.
A)job requirement
B)qualification
C)job skill
D)competitive advantage
Q5) Explain how the idea of a career has changed over recent decades.
Q6) Explain how networking helps people accomplish career goals.
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