Management Information Systems
Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Management Information Systems (MIS) explores the strategic use of information technology in organizations to improve decision-making, streamline operations, and gain competitive advantage. The course covers the design, implementation, and management of information systems, examining how they support business processes, facilitate communication, and address ethical and security concerns. Students will analyze case studies and engage in practical exercises to understand how organizations leverage data, software, and hardware resources to achieve their goals in a dynamic business environment.
Recommended Textbook
Accounting Information Systems Understanding Business Processes 4th Edition by Brett Considine
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Systems Fundamentals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Traditionally,the role of an accountant is to capture and record financial information.Has this role changed? Why or why not?
Answer: The accountant's role has extended beyond the task of capturing and recording financial information about an organisation to being more of a knowledge worker: someone who provides information and solves problems for an organisation.The days of the accountant only being the one who maintains the books are long gone.The career paths of an accountant,however,still rely on the knowledge of accounting.Accounting is still an important skill to possess - it is just that what those with accounting skills do with them has changed.
Q2) In general,system documentations cannot show:
A)how business processes are designed
B)the data that moves through the processes
C)the activities that occur within the processes
D)all internal control mechanisms
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Systems Characteristics and Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Business processes can provide an organisation with a competitive advantage.This competitive advantage is more likely to come from:
A)The design of business processes that are more efficient and effective
B)The design of business processes that are unique or offer something different
C)The design of business processes that are more competitive and flexible
D)The design of business processes that have lower costs of execution
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following statements is NOT true about a reengineered process?
A)Jobs change and people are empowered.
B)Work units change from a functional to a process perspective.
C)Controls are increased to ensure smooth functioning.
D)Workers jobs are combined and workers are given decision rights.
Answer: C
Q3) There are two perspectives of organisational design:
A)Logical and physical
B)Internal and external
C)Functional and business process
D)Scientific and practical
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Database Concepts I
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are 1:N,1:1,and N:M relationships implemented in a database system?
Answer: To implement the 1:N (one-to-many)relationship,the general rule is the primary key of the one becomes the foreign key of the many.In implementing a one-to-one relationship (1:1),the general rule is to anticipate which side is most likely to become many in the future and implement as though it was a one-to-many (1:M)relationship now.In implementing a many-to-many relationship (N:M),the relationship diamond between the two entities needs to be converted to a composite entity holding the primary keys of each of the entities.This is referred to as a linking entity and it has the primary keys of both the tables attached to it.This splitting of the many-to-many relationship into two one-to-many relationships needs to occur so that the relationships can be implemented in a computerised database package.
Q2) "Inconsistencies or errors that exist in a database because of entry or changes" are referred to as:
A)Data inaccuracies
B)Data anomalies
C)Data abnormalities
D)Data irregularities
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Database Concepts II
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a client-server system,which of the following software is loaded into the client computers?
A)Front-end application software
B)Back-end application software
C)Communications middleware
D)Groupware
Q2) What basic problems does the second normal form solve?
Q3) The goal of normalisation is to form tables that promote:
A)structural and query independence
B)relational and data independence
C)structural and data independence
D)relational and query independence
Q4) Illustrate the process of enterprise model development.
Q5) Normalisation is a modelling technique used specifically for which type of database?
A)Hierarchical
B)Network
C)Relational
D)Object oriented
Q6) Describe two differences between ER model and REA model.
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Chapter 5: XBRL Reporting
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is correct?
A)There are different ways to apply XBRL tags.
B)There is a debate in the accounting information systems community as to where to tag data.
C)There are two main ways to apply XBRL tags.
D)Whichever way we choose to apply XBRL tags will not affect core processes and data quality.
Q2) XBRL can be used for:
A)external financial reporting only
B)internal financial reporting only
C)both external and internal financial reporting
D)exchanging financial information between business partners only
Q3) IFRS stands for:
A)International financial reporting structure.
B)International financial reporting standards.
C)International financial reporting schemes.
D)International financial reporting system.
Q4) What is the relationship between XBRL and XML?
Q5) Describe the relationship between taxonomy,schema,element,tag,and linkbase in terms of XBRL.
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Chapter 6: System Mapping and Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Refer to the diagrams in the previous question.The number of process is can be determined by examining the ______ and the number is ______.
A)Logical DFD;12
B)Physical DFD;2
C)Logical DFD;4
D)Physical DFD;12
Q2) Give at least three examples of data processing or transformation carried out by internal entities.
Q3) For the adoption of an ERP system to be successful,or for BPR to yield benefits,an organisation must first:
A)establish a sense of urgency
B)understand its existing business processes
C)gather enough intelligence about its key competitors' business processes
D)become technologically advanced
Q4) What are the differences between physical DFD and logical DFD?
Q5) Describe the rules to construct and read a process map.
Q6) Discuss how systems documentation can help business process redesign and re-engineering.
Q7) Describe the rules of constructing and reading a structure narrative table.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Internal Controls I
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Sample Questions
Q1) The internal control structure of the ERM does NOT include:
A)Risk assessment
B)Risk response
C)Control activities
D)Resource management
Q2) ERM stands for:
A)Enterprise Resource Management
B)Enterprise Risk Management
C)Enterprise Resource Model
D)Enterprise Risk Model
Q3) Specific components of the control environment to be aware of,as mentioned in ASA 315,do not include:
A)Organisational structure.
B)Distribution of responsibility.
C)Recruitment policies
D)IT policies
Q4) What are the six principles that encapsulate the domain of IT governance,as outlined by Standards Australia?
Q5) What are the eight principles for corporate governance outlined by the ASX Corporate Governance Council?
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Chapter 8: Internal Controls II
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Sample Questions
Q1) Segregation of duties is a principle that applies to which sections of an organisation?
A)throughout the organisation including office staff,accountants and IT workers
B)accountants
C)office staff who have to deal with money matters
D)programmers and computer support staff who could interfere with the accounting information system
Q2) In general,disaster recovery plans include all of the following except:
A)Temporary sites
B)Staffing
C)Employee evacuation procedures
D)Business relationships restoration
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a turnaround document?
A)balance sheet
B)sales order
C)remittance advice
D)payslip
Q4) What are the advantages and disadvantages of manual controls?
Q5) Briefly describe and compare input control,processing control,and output control.
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Chapter 9: Transaction Cycle The Revenue Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following departments is not part of the revenue cycle?
A)Billing department
B)Sales department
C)Shipping department
D)Accounts payable department
Q2) Online banking:
A)Improves security and cash flows
B)Improves security but has no impact on cash flows
C)Improves transparency as well as eliminating the need for reconciliation of transactions
D)Increases data entry costs but reduces error rates.
Q3) Why is the revenue cycle strategically important?
Q4) Give at least three examples of strategy level decisions in the revenue cycle.
Q5) Which of the following activities is not involved in processing the sales order?
A)Check customer credit
B)Create sales order
C)Check inventory levels
D)Bill the customer
Q6) What are the risks associated with the dispatch of goods and how can these risks be controlled?
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Chapter 10: Transaction Cycle The Expenditure Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) The specialised software to handle the integration of suppliers and customers with the aim of producing and distributing goods and services by quantity,location and time to minimise costs and satisfy required service levels is referred to as:
A)ERP
B)SCM
C)RFID
D)EDI
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a check during the requisition stage of the expenditure cycle?
A)The quantities requested are reasonable.
B)The request is for valid goods.
C)The request has been authorised correctly.
D)The supplier is on the approved list.
Q3) RFID is more suitable for:
A)A car manufacturer.
B)A producer of hand-made luxury handbags.
C)A large restaurant.
D)A small bottle shop.
Q4) Discuss how ERP systems can provide benefits to the expenditure cycle.
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Chapter 11: Transaction Cycle The Production Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is less likely to be a product level decision during the production cycle?
A)Material requirements.
B)Labour requirements.
C)Equipment requirements.
D)Customer specification requirements.
Q2) The document that details the machines and employees who will be involved in each stage of production is:
A)Bill of material
B)Work order
C)Material requisition
D)Production schedule
Q3) What is the objective of the planning phase in the production cycle?
Q4) The report that identifies all new designs created but not actioned within a reasonable period of time in the production cycle is:
A)a production planning and control report
B)an exception report
C)a product costing report
D)a production requirement report
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Chapter 12: Transaction Cycle The HR Management and Payroll Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) The HR management and payroll cycle ends when:
A)an employee expresses his/her intent to leave the organisation
B)the organisation is out of business
C)the employment contract of an employee comes to an end
D)All of the options are correct.
Q2) Which of the following can be used as a KPI to measure the objective of "Accurately calculate and disburse salary and wage payments"?
A)Volume and value of employee overpayments detected.
B)Volume and value of employee underpayments detected.
C)Salary and wage expenditure variances.
D)All of the options are correct.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a source document in the HR management and payroll cycle?
A)A job application
B)A weekly timesheet
C)A labour budget for the next 12 months
D)An employee performance review
Q4) Why employee exit should be managed carefully?
Page 14
Q5) Briefly explain how a performance review is done and the persons involved.
Q6) When are data about a new employee created and who creates them?
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Page 15
Chapter 13: Transaction Cycle The General Ledger and Financial Reporting Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the typical risks encountered during the production of management reports and what are the relevant common controls?
Q2) Unauthorised distribution of financial data cannot be controlled by:
A)using the XBRL technology
B)applying secure privacy settings on electronic reports
C)using a document management system for reports containing sensitive data
D)maintaining security profiles allowing read-only access to financial data at the individual level
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a KPI that can be used to measure the objective "To validate and correctly transfer all relevant transactional data"?
A)Number of data errors detected
B)The volume of transactional data transferred
C)Reconciled balances in subsidiary ledger control accounts
D)Number of un-cleared transactions in suspense accounts
Q4) The general ledger and financial reporting cycle ________.
A)Summarises,adjusts,and reports on data from all previous operational cycles.
B)Summarises,adjusts,and reports on data from all current operational cycles.
C)Creates,adjusts,and summarises on data from all previous operational cycles.
D)Creates,adjusts,and summarises on data from all current operational cycles.
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Chapter 14: Systems Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a typical problem of systems development?
A)Technical skills
B)Escalation of commitment
C)Interpersonal skills
D)All of the options are correct.
Q2) How are the end users involved during the prototyping approach to systems development?
A)Users work with the modules as they are produced.
B)Users provide feedback which is used to improve the functionality.
C)Users can refine their requirements as they experience the modules that have been built.
D)All of the options are correct.
Q3) The knowledge about how the business operates,what is done and who does it is:
A)Technical skill
B)People skill
C)Operation skill
D)Process skill
Q4) Explain the systems development steering committee's role in selecting the most feasible alternative of systems development.
Q5) Briefly explain the typical problems of systems development.
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Chapter 15: Auditing of Accounting Information Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the two broad areas of responsibility associated with the risk management system?
Q2) Guidelines in ASA 610 relate to:
A)the level of objectivity associated with the internal audit function.
B)the level of technical competence associated with the internal audit function.
C)whether the activities of the internal audit function has been properly planned,reviewed,supervised and documented.
D)All of the options are correct.
Q3) The process of the auditor forming an opinion and reporting on whether or not the accounts have been prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles is technically termed as:
A)External audit
B)Internal audit
C)Financial audit
D)Attest service
Q4) What are the main responsibilities of an audit committee?
Q5) What are the five phases of an AIS audit?
Q6) Why the auditing of systems under development is favourable?
Q7) Can best practices be used during auditing? If so,how?
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Ethics, fraud and Computer Crime
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Sample Questions
Q1) The saying that an action is morally right if it is motivated by a good will that stems from a sense of duty is known as:
A)Kantianism
B)Hedonism
C)Realism
D)Utilitarianism
Q2) People are more likely to provide personal information to someone on the phone who purports to be a police officer or other authority figure.This is referred to as the:
A)Kindness principle
B)Authority principle
C)Social compliance principle
D)Distraction principle
Q3) Which of the following is not a type of Consequentialist theory?
A)Ethical utilitarianism
B)Ethical Kantianism
C)Ethical egoism
D)Ethical altruism
Q4) What are the seven stages to go through when making an ethical decision?
Q5) Explain the meaning of 'fraud triangle'.
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