Management Information Systems
Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Management Information Systems (MIS) explores the intersection of people, technology, and organizations to improve business processes and decision-making. The course covers the design, implementation, and management of information systems that support strategic and operational objectives. Students will examine core MIS concepts such as data management, communication networks, enterprise systems, e-commerce, and cybersecurity. Through case studies and practical applications, learners will develop an understanding of how information systems create business value, drive innovation, and address ethical and global challenges in the modern enterprise.
Recommended Textbook
Accounting Information Systems 14th GLOBAL Edition by Marshall B. Romney
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Conceptual Foundations of Accounting Information Systems
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Q1) The transaction cycle approach yields efficiencies when processing of a large number of transactions because
A)a large number of transactions within a given cycle can be categorized into a relatively small number of distinct types.
B)transaction cycles are easier to computerize.
C)the transaction cycle approach represents the natural order of business.
D)transaction cycles are easy to understand.
Answer: A
Q2) Define data,information,and how the value of information is determined.
Answer: Data: facts that are collected,entered,recorded,stored,and processed by an AIS.Information: data that has been organized and processed and is meaningful to its users.Such information is accessible,relevant,timely,reliable,verifiable,complete,and understandable.Information is of value when the benefits received from using or acting upon it outweigh the cost to produce the information.
Q3) Identify the components of an accounting information system.
Answer: A well-designed AIS consists of people,procedures and instructions,data,software,information technology infrastructures,and internal controls and security measures.
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Chapter 2: Overview of Transaction Processing and Enterprise Resource Planning Systems
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of source data automation?
A)a utility bill
B)POS (point-of-sale)scanners in retail stores
C)a bill of lading
D)a subsidiary ledger
Answer: B
Q2) Which step below is not considered to be part of the data processing cycle?
A)data input
B)feedback from external sources
C)data storage
D)data processing
Answer: B
Q3) A typical source document could be
A)some type of paper document.
B)a computer data entry screen.
C)the company's financial statements.
D)both A and B
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Systems Documentation Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which symbol would be used in a flowchart to indicate a wireless connection between a laptop and the mainframe?
A)#13
B)#12
C)#11
D)#14
Answer: A
Q2) Which symbol would be used in a flowchart to represent a purchase order?
A)#2
B)#1
C)#5
D)#15
Answer: B
Q3) Graphical representations of information are often supplemented by A)narrative descriptions.
B)relevant e-mail communications.
C)logic charts.
D)oral descriptions from management.
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Relational Databases
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ in a well-structured relational database.
A)Every table must be related to all other tables
B)One table must be related to at least one other table
C)Every table must be related to at least one other table
D)One table must be related to all other tables
Q2) The database requirement that foreign keys must be null or have a value corresponding to the value of a primary key in another table is formally called the A)entity integrity rule.
B)referential integrity rule.
C)unique primary key rule.
D)foreign key rule.
Q3) A relational database in which vendor data is not maintained independently of purchase order data will most likely result in
A)an update anomaly.
B)an insert anomaly.
C)a delete anomaly.
D)an integrity anomaly.
Q4) Describe what you think will be the main impact of database technology in your career.
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Chapter 5: Computer Fraud
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of threat poses the greatest risk to information systems?
A)Software errors and equipment malfunctions
B)Unintentional acts
C)Intentional acts (computer crimes)
D)Natural and political disasters
Q2) Perhaps the most striking fact about natural disasters in relation to AIS controls is that
A)many companies in one location can be seriously affected at one time by a disaster.
B)losses are absolutely unpreventable.
C)there are a large number of major disasters every year.
D)disaster planning has largely been ignored in the literature.
Q3) Which of the following is the greatest risk to information systems and causes the greatest dollar losses?
A)Human errors and omissions
B)Physical threats such as natural disasters
C)Dishonest employees
D)Computer crime
Q4) Describe four ways companies can reduce losses from fraud.
Q5) What are some of the distinguishing characteristics of fraud perpetrators?
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Chapter 6: Computer Fraud and Abuse Techniques
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Q1) During a routine audit,a review of cash receipts and related accounting entries revealed discrepancies.Upon further analysis,it was found that figures had been entered correctly and then subsequently changed,with the difference diverted to a fictitious customer account.This is an example of A)kiting.
B)data diddling.
C)data leakage.
D)phreaking.
Q2) Maureen Boyd was arrested in Kansas City for running an online business that specialized in buying and reselling stolen credit card information.Maureen was charged with A)typosquatting.
B)carding.
C)pharming.
D)phishing.
Q3) Identify theft has always been a federal crime.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the differences between a worm and a virus.
Q5) What is social engineering? Provide an example.
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Chapter 7: Control and Accounting Information Systems
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Q1) Upon acquiring a new computer operating system,management at Berryhill worried that computer virus might cripple the company's operation.Despite the concern,management did not think that the risk was high enough to justify the purchase of an anti-virus software.Berryhill chose to ________ the risk of being crippled by computer virus.
A)reduce
B)share
C)avoid
D)accept
Q2) Discuss the weaknesses in COSO's internal control framework that led to the development of the COSO Enterprise Risk Management framework.
Q3) Applying the COBIT5 framework,monitoring is the responsibility of
A)the CEO.
B)the CFO.
C)the board of directors.
D)all of the above
Q4) Explain why the Foreign Corrupt Practices Act was important to accountants.
Q5) Describe the five components of the COSO's Internal Control Model.
Q6) Why are most fraud not being reported or prosecuted?
Q7) Describe what is an event using the COSO definition and provide an example.
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Chapter 8: Controls for Information Security
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Sample Questions
Q1) Information security procedures protect information integrity by
A)preventing fictitious transactions.
B)reducing the system cost.
C)making the system more efficient.
D)making it impossible for unauthorized users to access the system.
Q2) According to the Trust Services Framework,the reliability principle of availability is achieved when the system produces data that
A)is available for operation and use at times set forth by agreement.
B)is protected against unauthorized physical and logical access.
C)can be maintained as required without affecting system availability, security, and integrity.
D)is complete, accurate, and valid.
Q3) Describe the differences between virtualization and cloud computing.
Q4) Security is a technology issue and not just a management issue.
A)True B)False
Q5) Describe what information security process the term hardening refers to.
Q6) Describe the steps in the security life cycle.
Q7) Explain the value of penetration testing.
Q8) Describe the concept of Internet of Things (IoT)and its security implications.
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Chapter 9: Confidentiality and Privacy Controls
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not one of the 10 internationally recognized best practices for protecting the privacy of customers' personal information?
A)Provide free credit report monitoring for customers.
B)Inform customers of the option to opt-out of data collection and use of their personal information.
C)Allow customers' browsers to decline to accept cookies.
D)Utilize controls to prevent unauthorized access to, and disclosure of, customers' information.
Q2) Identify the last step in protecting the confidentiality of intellectual property below.
A)Encrypt the information.
B)Control access to the information.
C)Train employees to properly handle the information.
D)Identify and classify the information to be protected.
Q3) What confidentiality and security risk does using VoIP present to organizations?
A)Internet e-mail communications can be intercepted.
B)Internet photographs can be intercepted.
C)Internet video can be intercepted.
D)Internet voice conversations can be intercepted.
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11
Chapter 10: Processing Integrity and Availability Controls
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sequentially prenumbered forms are an example of a(n)
A)data entry control.
B)data transmission control.
C)processing control.
D)input control.
Q2) A ________ ensures input data will fit into the assigned field.
A)limit check
B)size check
C)range check
D)field check
Q3) A ________ control ensures that the correct and most current files are being updated.
A)cross-footing balance test
B)data matching
C)file labels
D)write-protect mechanism
Q4) Discuss how cloud computing could both positively and negatively affect system availability.
Q5) Discuss ways that can help ensure the processing integrity of electronic voting.
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Chapter 11: Auditing Computer-Based Information Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) How could auditors determine if unauthorized program changes have been made?
A)By interviewing and making inquiries of the programming staff.
B)By examining the systems design and programming documentation.
C)By using a source code comparison program.
D)By interviewing and making inquiries of recently terminated programming staff.
Q2) Expanding a firm's operations to include a manufacturing facility overseas will
A)reduce inherent risk.
B)reduce control risk.
C)increase inherent risk.
D)increase control risk.
Q3) Which of the following is not one of the types of internal audits?
A)A review of the corporate organizational structure and reporting hierarchies.
B)An examination of procedures for reporting and disposing of hazardous waste.
C)A review of source documents and general ledger accounts to determine integrity of recorded transactions.
D)A comparison of estimates and analysis made before purchase of a major capital asset to actual numbers and results achieved.
Q4) There is a direct relationship between inherent risk and detection risk.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: The Revenue Cycle: Sales to Cash Collections
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Q1) A credit sale should always be reviewed by a credit manager if it exceeds the customer's credit limit.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Basic segregation of duties requires the credit manager reports to the ________ and the treasurer report to the ________.
A)treasurer; controller
B)treasurer; vice president of finance
C)controller; vice president of finance
D)marketing manager; vice president of finance
Q3) A monthly statement sent to customers serves a control purpose by
A)providing an opportunity for customers to verify the balance owed and activity on the account.
B)triggering the process to record a customer payment.
C)summarizing invoices and amounts due for customers.
D)reminding customers of the balance due and due date.
Q4) What is QR codes and can companies use them to improve interactions with their customers?
Q5) Describe typical credit approval procedures.
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Chapter 13: The Expenditure Cycle: Purchasing to Cash
Disbursements
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Q1) Once a vendor is selected for a product,the vendor's identity is recorded in the
A)purchase requisition transaction file.
B)purchase requisition master file.
C)inventory transaction file.
D)inventory master file.
Q2) Which of the following is not an advantage of a voucher system?
A)Several invoices may be included on one voucher, reducing the number of checks.
B)Disbursement vouchers may be pre-numbered and tracked through the system.
C)The time of voucher approval and payment can be kept separate.
D)It is a less expensive and easier system to administer than other systems.
Q3) There is a symmetrical interdependence between a firm's expenditure cycle and its suppliers'
A)production cycle.
B)revenue cycle.
C)expenditure cycle.
D)general ledger and reporting system.
Q4) In a supplier audit,what are some of the red flags that could indicate potential supplier's problems?
Q5) Describe the function of an imprest fund.
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Chapter 14: The Production Cycle
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Q1) "Push manufacturing" is also known as
A)manufacturing resource planning (MRP).
B)just-in-time manufacturing system (JIT).
C)the economic order quantity (EOQ)system.
D)ahead-of-time production implementation (ATPI).
Q2) What issue did Airbus encounter when using CAD software to help design the A380 Superjumbo airliner?
A)The actual A380 was heavier than the CAD model.
B)The actual A380 was not able to carry as much weight as the CAD model.
C)Design teams used different versions of the same CAD software, resulting in key information loss.
D)The CAD software was not advanced enough to help design the A380.
Q3) The use of various forms of information technology in the production process is referred to as
A)computerized investments and machines.
B)computerized integration of machines.
C)computer-integrated manufacturing.
D)computer intense manufacturing.
Q4) What is PLM and how management can use it to improve product design?
Q5) Discuss the role the accountant can play in the production cycle.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: The Human Resources Management and Payroll Cycle
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Q1) The results of an internal audit finds that there is a problem with inaccurate time data being entered into the payroll system.What is an applicable control that can help prevent this event from occurring in the future?
A)Proper segregation of duties.
B)Automation of data collection.
C)Sound hiring procedures.
D)Review of appropriate performance metrics.
Q2) Which type of payroll report lists the voluntary deductions for each employee?
A)Payroll register.
B)Deduction register.
C)Employee earnings statement.
D)Federal W-4 form.
Q3) Professional employer organizations (PEOs)are especially attractive to small and mid-sized businesses for all of the following reasons except
A)reduced costs.
B)wider range of benefits.
C)freeing up computer resources.
D)improved service quality.
Q4) Why are accurate cumulative earnings records important?
17
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Chapter 16: General Ledger and Reporting System
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Q1) Identify the year the SEC will require American companies to switch from U.S.-based GAAP to IFRS as the basis for preparing financial statements.
A)2016
B)2018
C)2020
D)At this point it is unclear when the SEC will require American companies to implement IFRS, though the SEC remains committed to requiring U.S. companies use IFRS at some point.
Q2) Which type of graph is the most commonly used to display trends in financial data?
A)Pie chart.
B)Scatterplot chart.
C)Bar chart.
D)Stochastic chart.
Q3) Standard XBRL taxonomies can cover most accounting situations.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the benefits of XBRL.
Q5) Discuss the value and role of budgets as managerial reports.
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Chapter 17: Database Design Using the Rea Data Model
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Q1) An entity-relationship diagram
A)can represent the contents of any database.
B)is only used in conjunction with REA models.
C)can show a limited number of entities and relationships.
D)is used only to design new databases.
Q2) Describe what is a E-R diagram and provide an example.
Q3) What is the standard cardinality pattern for a relationship between an event and an agent?
A)1:1.
B)0:1.
C)0:N.
D)1:N.
Q4) What is the minimum number of external agents that must participate in each REA event?
A)0
B)2
C)1
D)3
Q5) Describe the steps in developing an REA diagram.
Q6) Define minimum and maximum cardinalities.
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Chapter 18: Implementing an Rea Model in a Relational Database
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Q1) Identify the attribute below that would not make a good primary key.
A)Postal code.
B)Social security number.
C)A unique number automatically generated by the system.
D)Cell phone number.
Q2) When integrating multiple REA diagrams into an integrated REA diagram,merging redundant resources
A)always affects minimum cardinalities associated with the merged event.
B)sometimes affects minimum cardinalities associated with the merged event.
C)never affects minimum cardinalities associated with the merged event.
D)none of the above
Q3) In a relational database designed according to the REA model,where is information about an organization's liabilities generally stored?
A)Resource entities.
B)Agent entities.
C)Event entities.
D)All of the above.
Q4) Explain where in the REA model you can find the information normally found in a journal.
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Chapter 19: Special Topics in Rea Modeling
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Q1) If the actual cost of an inventory item is maintained as an attribute in the Inventory table,which inventory valuation method would an organization have to use?
A)LIFO.
B)FIFO.
C)Weighted Average.
D)Specific Identification.
Q2) Explicitly identifying the different employees who participate in each event by their job functions is helpful when verifying A)internal controls.
B)job descriptions.
C)proper supervision.
D)segregation of duties.
Q3) Describe the four main events of interest included in a typical production cycle REA diagram.
Q4) Supplier number is most likely to be a foreign key in A)Inventory-Request_Inventory.
B)Receive Inventory.
C)Supplier.
D)Warehouse.
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Chapter 20: Introduction to Systems Development and Systems Analysis
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Q1) In which systems analysis step do analysts conduct an extensive study of the present system to gain a thorough understanding of how it works?
A)Feasibility study.
B)Information needs and requirements.
C)Systems analysis report.
D)Systems survey.
Q2) The question of what the project should and should not accomplish is determined in what step of systems analysis?
A)Feasibility study.
B)Initial investigation.
C)Systems analysis report.
D)Systems survey.
Q3) Which of the following activities is performed during the systems development life cycle?
A)Assessing the ongoing feasibility of the project.
B)Managing the behavioral reactions to change.
C)Planning.
D)All of the above activities are performed during the life cycle.
Q4) Describe the importance of the master plan in systems development.
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Chapter 21: Ais Development Strategies
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Q1) Describe computer-aided software (or systems)engineering (CASE)and identify the advantages and disadvantages of CASE?
Q2) Identify one of the primary risks associated with end-user computing below.
A)IS personnel will not have enough work to do if users develop their own systems.
B)Systems that have not been adequately tested may be implemented.
C)System costs may skyrocket.
D)System development time may increase substantially.
Q3) The IT department should be given control of end-user computing (EUC).
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is a system that automates and facilitates business process improvements throughout the system development life cycle?
A)Business process reengineering system (BPRS).
B)Business process innovation system (BPIS).
C)Business process management system (BPMS).
D)Business process diagramming system (BPDS).
Q5) What are the three methods to obtain a new information system? What is a turnkey system?
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Chapter 22: Systems Design, implementation, and Operation
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Q1) Yasin,a professional in information technology services,received an e-mail from Adil in the Sales Department.The e-mail read: "Yasin,I need you to run that inventory report you prepared for me last month again.Please send it to me by e-mail.Thank you,Adil." What type of report is Adil asking Yasin to provide?
A)Scheduled report.
B)Special-purpose analysis report.
C)Triggered exception report.
D)Demand report.
Q2) Ideally,employees should receive training on a new system A)as soon as possible.
B)right after the physical design.
C)during implementation planning.
D)just before system testing and conversion.
Q3) Performing revisions to existing program code is an example of A)debugging.
B)structured programming.
C)program maintenance.
D)walk through.
Q4) What are the purposes of a conceptual systems design report?
Q5) Describe the approaches to system conversion.
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