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Management and Organizational Studies explores the fundamental principles and practices that guide the effective management of individuals, teams, and organizations. This course examines key concepts such as organizational structure, leadership, motivation, communication, decision-making, and change management. Students will analyze how internal and external factors influence organizational behavior and performance, and they will develop practical skills in problem-solving and strategic planning. Through case studies and real-world examples, students will gain insights into contemporary management challenges and learn how to apply theoretical frameworks to foster productive, ethical, and sustainable organizational environments.
Recommended Textbook
Organizational Behavior Managing People and Organizations 11th Edition by Ricky W. Griffin
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Q1) Identify, discuss, and give examples of the contextual perspectives on Organizational Behavior.
Answer: Answers will vary.
Q2) Organizational behavior is not defined as a business _________.
Answer: function
Q3) Figurehead, leader, and liaison are all decision-making roles that a manager can perform in an organization.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Over time, organizational behavior has gradually shifted from a situational perspective to a universal perspective.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q5) The ________ role includes sending out memos to make employees aware of new procedures.
Answer: disseminator
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Q1) Workforce __________ refers to the important similarities and differences among the employees of organizations.
Answer: diversity
Q2) More and more firms are moving back to domestic markets to control costs, especially to reduce labor costs.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Culture helps a group understand which actions are acceptable and which are unacceptable.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Workforce diversity is mostly occurring in the United States, rather than in other countries around the world.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) A person's degree of _______ is the extent to which his or her behavior makes a positive overall contribution to the organization.
Answer: organizational citizenship
Q2) Cognitive dissonance occurs when there is congruence among attitudes, perceptions, and behaviors.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Raj is proud of his accomplishments yet looks forward to achieving higher levels of performance and is confident in his abilities. Raj has high A)risk propensity.
B)locus of control.
C)conformity.
D)self-esteem.
E)self-monitoring.
Answer: D
Q4) A person with a high level of ________ is likely to perceive incongruence between attitudes and behaviors.
Answer: cognitive dissonance
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Q1) According to extinction, if rewards are removed from behaviors that were previously reinforced, the behaviors are likely to decrease in frequency and eventually disappear.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Porter and Lawler's extension of the expectancy model argues that A)only extrinsic rewards are important.
B)reward equity replaces valence.
C)ability, traits, and role perceptions are removed from the original model.
D)rewards are less important than originally thought.
E)high levels of performance may lead to satisfaction.
Q3) Discuss the four types of reinforcement, giving examples of each.
Q4) Define, discuss, and provide examples of the major ideas of scientific management, human relations, and the human resources views of motivation.
Q5) The father of scientific management, Frederick Taylor, believed people were motivated by the opportunity to contribute to the workplace.
A)True
B)False
Q6) One ethical criticism of OB modification is that it involves _________.
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Q1) The _______ work week allows employees to work their full forty hours in fewer than the traditional five days.
Q2) Employees who are given the opportunity to participate in making decisions may feel more committed to properly executing those decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An employee decides when he or she reports to work on a typical workday. This is an example of a compressed workweek.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Telecommuting is an arrangement that allows employees to spend part of their time working overseas in outsourced jobs, usually at an alternative worksite.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ______ determine what jobs will be performed in their organizations and how those jobs will be performed.
Q6) ________ gives employees more personal control over the hours they work each day.
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Q1) An organization's social security, unemployment, and workers' compensation contributions are set by law.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following ties a worker's earnings to the number of units produced?
A)Merit pay plan
B)Gain-sharing program
C)Profit-sharing program
D)Employee stock option plan
E)Piecework program
Q3) Two of the most important issues regarding how to conduct a performance appraisal are
A)whether the appraiser takes a judgmental or developmental orientation and whether pay is linked to performance.
B)where the appraisal takes place and who is present at the time.
C)who does the appraisal and the frequency of the appraisal.
D)how long the appraisal lasts and how often it occurs.
E)whether the appraisal uses past or current information and whether one or many raters are used.
Q4) An organizational policy that mandates pay __________ is illegal.
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Q1) _______ is an individual's adaptive response to a stimulus that places excess demands on that individual.
Q2) The organizational stress-coping strategies discussed in the text were institutional programs and ______ programs.
Q3) Interestingly, temperature can create stress in the organizational environment.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A role management strategy is to learn to say "no."
A)True
B)False
Q5) Research on Holmes and Rahe's Life Change Scale shows that
A)everyone who scores above 300 will experience major illness.
B)this scale has received only mixed support.
C)everyone has the same stress threshold.
D)this scale is best suited to minority employees.
E)only negative events affect your score.
Q6) If Raj is experiencing distress, it is the positive form of stress.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Pleasurable stress that accompanies positive events is called ______.
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Q1) A decision maker's actions are guided by
A)personal decisions.
B)a goal.
C)an operating budget.
D)interpersonal relationships.
E)a code of honor.
Q2) At the higher levels of the organization, programmed decisions are common.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Information conditions can be divided into conditions of uncertainty and risk.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ______ decisions often involve situations that occur often in a company.
A)Nonprogrammed
B)Poorly structured
C)Creative
D)Major
E)Programmed
Q5) The ______ of decision recurrence can help determine whether the decision is programmed or nonprogrammed.
10
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Q1) Successfully reaching goals often increases the _______ of a group because people are proud to be identified with a winner and thought of as competent and successful.
Q2) Which of the following includes conditions conducive to groupthink?
A)Group cohesiveness, leader's promotion of personal preferences, insulation from expert opinions
B)Group cohesiveness, members' promotion of personal preferences, best decision is goal
C)Group cohesiveness, leader promotion of personal preferences, critical thinking urged D)Members' promotion of personal preferences, best decision is goal, critical thinking urged
E)Group cohesiveness, member's promotion of personal preferences, insulation from expert opinions
Q3) Brainstorming includes all of the following EXCEPT
A)used in the idea generation phase of decision making.
B)members present ideas and clarify them.
C)ideas are not evaluated.
D)members privately vote on ideas.
E)it does not provide resolution to the problem.
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Q1) Management teams are teams that may never actually meet together in the same room, but instead rely on teleconferencing and other electronic information systems.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Having a common purpose and common performance goals sets the tone and direction of the team.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The draft plan, which guides the continuing work of the design teams and the first work teams, includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A)describes roles and responsibilities of all team members.
B)recommends a process for selecting team members.
C)explains what training the groups will need.
D)identifies which work processes will be involved.
E)recommend team incentives and bonuses.
Q4) During the _______ and _______ phase of team implementation, team members and managers often report frustration and confusion about the new situation.
Q5) Teams include people with a mix of ______ appropriate to the tasks to be done.
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Q1) The feedback phase of the communication process is initiated when
A)the receiver decodes the message.
B)the source encodes the message.
C)the receiver understands the message.
D)the initial source translates the message.
E)the receiver responds to the message.
Q2) In the ______ network, all individuals communicate with all others.
Q3) Physical movements and body language are forms of
A)communication medium.
B)physical communication.
C)personal communication.
D)nonverbal communication.
E)visual communication.
Q4) The ____ is the individual, group, or organization interested in communicating a message to another party.
A)noise
B)receiver
C)decoding
D)transmission
E)source
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Q1) Compare and contrast management and leadership. Which is most important for today's organizations? Why?
Q2) In Fielder's model, the degree of task or relationship motivation is measured by the ________ scale.
Q3) Which statement best describes the current state of leadership research?
A)The exploration of leadership is in its infancy.
B)Research in the field was completed recently.
C)Research in the field was completed many years ago.
D)Many questions remain unanswered.
E)Researchers have, unfortunately, stopped research in this area due to human behavior impact concerns.
Q4) A manager who uses a team management style of leadership is concerned about people and production.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe, discuss, and give two examples of the path-goal theory.
Q6) Vroom's decision-tree model has been fully scientifically tested.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following does NOT describe a behavior of charismatic leaders?
A)Envision future trends and patterns
B)Set high expectations for themselves and for others
C)Model behaviors consistent with meeting expectations
D)Initiate structured tasks and make assignments
E)Demonstrating personal excitement
Q2) According to your text, Herb Kelleher, Mary Kay Ash, and Steve Jobs are examples of transactional leaders.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Discuss the differences between men and women in leadership roles. Why might these differences exist?
Q4) _____ is a form of interpersonal attraction that inspires support and acceptance.
A)Charisma
B)Virtual leadership
C)Self-confidence
D)Transactional leadership
E)Telling style

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Q5) Describe, discuss, and give examples of charismatic leadership.
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Q1) The reasons for political behavior include all of the following EXCEPT:
A)ambiguous goals.
B)scarce resources.
C)organizational change.
D)nonprogrammed decisions.
E)organizational loyalty.
Q2) People may engage in _______ to boost their own self-esteem.
Q3) In general, legitimate power is exercised through a formal request that subordinates do what the leader wishes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Coercive power exists when one person has the ability to punish or harm someone else.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Simply being aware of the causes and techniques of political behavior can help a manager check their effects.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is impression management? Discuss its implications for managers.
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Q1) Task conflict in organizations is based on differing goals and the content of work.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of these is considered the lowest level of interdependence?
A)Pooled interdependence
B)Sequential interdependence
C)Reciprocal interdependence
D)Intergroup interdependence
E)Intrapersonal interdependence
Q3) Negotiation includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A)has two or more parties.
B)the parties have different preferences regarding an issue.
C)it can only be interpersonal.
D)the parties need to reach agreement.
E)the parties can be groups or individuals.
Q4) Conflict regarding the goals and content of work refers to legal conflict.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Either too much or too little conflict may result in low _______.
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Q1) Discuss the issues managers must deal with when working in the international environment. How can these issues be resolved?
Q2) Rethinking the organization is a process for restructuring that throws out traditional assumptions that organizations should be structured with boxes and horizontal and vertical lines.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Chandler's conclusion in the strategy view of organization structure is that
A)structure follows strategy.
B)strategy follows structure.
C)technology affects structure.
D)larger organizations have more complex structures.
E)environmental uncertainty affects structure.
Q4) Organizational ______ is a popular trend aimed at reducing the size of corporate staffs.
Q5) A(n) _______ approach suggests that there are several ways to achieve an outcome and that the best way to do it depends on one of several factors.
Q6) ______ of scale are an advantage of large organizations.
Q7) Typically, large companies create _______ organizations.
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Q1) The second step a manager must take to create organization culture involves developing cultural values.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Culture is more easily manipulated by management to directly affect employee behaviors than is climate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Research suggests that organization culture is understood and communicated through the use of ______ and other ______ means.
Q4) Most descriptions of organization climate do not deal with values and norms.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Emile Durkheim was an early sociologist who studied myths and _______.
Q6) After developing its strategic values and cultural values, the organization must establish a(n) _______ of its direction, or a picture of what the organization will be like at some point in the future.
Q7) Describe, discuss, and give examples of the difference between culture and climate of an organization.
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Q1) The direct alteration of jobs usually is called ______.
Q2) The degree to which members of a work organization are able to satisfy important personal needs through their experiences in the organization is called
A)structural change.
B)system-wide change.
C)change agent success.
D)total quality management.
E)quality of work life.
Q3) With respect to management development, which of the following is NOT true?
A)The value of management development is a proven fact.
B)Management development objectives must be compatible with organizational objectives.
C)Management development is a long-range process.
D)Organizations must use care in identifying their unique developmental needs.
E)Management development is multifaceted and complex.
Q4) _____ programs are usually designed to improve employees' job skills.
Q5) Describe, discuss, and give examples of organizational sources of resistance to change.
Q6) _______ ensures that a firm functions properly during the change process.
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