Management and Organizational Studies Exam
Review
Course Introduction
Management and Organizational Studies explores the fundamental principles and practices involved in effectively managing organizations and the people within them. This course examines the roles and responsibilities of managers, the structure and behavior of organizations, and the strategies used to achieve organizational goals. Topics include leadership, motivation, communication, decision-making, organizational culture, change management, and the impact of globalization and technology on modern organizations. Through case studies, discussions, and practical applications, students develop analytical and interpersonal skills essential for successful management in diverse workplace environments.
Recommended Textbook ORGB 5th Edition by Debra L. Nelson
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18 Chapters
1128 Verified Questions
1128 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Organizational Behavior and Opportunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the context of understanding human behavior, Kurt Lewin combined internal and external perspectives with his claim that behavior is a function of:
A)the individual preferences for leadership style.
B)compliant and deviant behavior within social groups.
C)the organizational culture and group dynamics.
D)both the person and the environment.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of the service sector of the economy?
A)It includes the production of basic materials as well as the production of finished products.
B)It includes transportation, financial services, insurance, and retail sales.
C)It provides essential infrastructure to all other sectors.
D)It is important to collective well-being because it meets needs that are not addressed by other sectors.
Answer: B
Q3) Global competition is a leading force driving change at work.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Challenges for Managers
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true of people in cultures with high uncertainty avoidance?
A)They are less threatened by and more willing to trust one another.
B)They are more willing to take risks and are more comfortable with individual differences.
C)They accept dissenting viewpoints.
D)They tend to seek consensus in an effort to moderate the threat of life's inherent uncertainty.
Answer: D
Q2) Diversity has garnered increasing attention in recent years largely because:
A)understanding diversity results in more profits.
B)the global viewpoint supersedes national issues.
C)of guanxi, the Chinese practice of building networks for social exchange.
D)of demographic changes in the working population.
Answer: D
Q3) Firms that are seen as socially responsible do not have a competitive advantage in attracting applicants.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Personality, Perception and Attribution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Individuals who focus on the good aspects of themselves, other people, and the world in general are said to have _____.
A)high general self-efficacy
B)cultural intelligence
C)low self-esteem
D)positive affect
Answer: D
Q2) High achievers are more likely to attribute their success to others and good luck.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) General mental ability is the psychological approach to understanding human behavior that involves knowing something about the person and about the situation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Attitudes, Emotions and Ethics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Behavior that is above and beyond the call of duty is called organizational citizenship behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sophie, an employee at Dandrill Corp., comes to office about an hour late.Morgan, Sophie's manager, asks her to inform him the next time she would be late.Sophie immediately starts ranting angrily at him.Which of the following will help Sophie avoid such an emotional response?
A)Emotional intelligence
B)Emotional labor
C)Emotional contagion
D)Emotional dissonance
Q3) To prevent and manage workplace deviance behavior, managers should:
A)increase the power distance in the organization.
B)give all employees high performance ratings.
C)terminate employees who show deviance.
D)encourage positive attitudes among employees.
Q4) What are the advantages of displaying ethical behavior for a firm?
Q5) What are the three major characteristics of the source affect persuasion?
Q6) Briefly discuss the relationship between job satisfaction and performance.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Motivation at Work
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Sample Questions
Q1) Theory Y assumptions are appropriate for employees motivated by lower-order needs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the context of Herzberg's two-factor theory, which of the following is true of hygiene factors?
A)They relate to job satisfaction.
B)They directly affect a person's drive to do a good job.
C)They challenge people to grow and invest themselves in an organization.
D)They are important to a certain level but unimportant beyond that threshold.
Q3) _____ are based on the notion of social exchange in which each party in the relationship demands certain things of the other and contributes accordingly to the exchange.
A)Committed involvements
B)Alienated involvements
C)Calculated involvements
D)Dedicated involvements
Q4) Security is the pinnacle need for Americans in Maslow's need hierarchy.
A)True
B)False
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Learning and Performance Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the context of the key characteristics of an effective appraisal system, reliability means capturing multiple dimensions of a person's job performance.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the context of defining performance, performance appraisal:
A)involves defining and measuring performance.
B)is the result that a person finds attractive or pleasurable.
C)does not influence promotion or demotion.
D)is the evaluation of a person's performance.
Q3) Because punishment is discomforting to the individual being punished, it can bring about negative psychological, emotional, performance, or behavioral consequences, especially when applied too often.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Briefly describe individual reward systems and team reward systems.
Q5) Briefly distinguish between positive and negative reinforcement with the help of a job-related example.
Q6) Briefly describe the informational cues based on which attributions are made.
Q7) Briefly describe the attribution theory.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Stress and Well-Being at Work
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Sample Questions
Q1) Type B behavior pattern includes social status insecurity and aggression.
A)True
B)False
Q2) According to Harry Levinson, self-image is the embodiment of a person's perfect self.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is an early warning sign of workaholism?
A)The inability to enjoy vacations and respites from work
B)Choosing to work an extra job to earn more money
C)Disinterest in home and family life
D)A preference to be in the presence of co-workers instead of family
Q4) Learned optimism is:
A)a secondary individual stress prevention method.
B)the planning and prioritizing of tasks.
C)is one of the five dimensions of positive organizational behavior.
D)a strong Type A personality characteristic.
Q5) Interrole conflict is caused by opposing expectations related to a single role.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of new communication technologies discourages polyphasic activity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Malcolm, a senior editor at a publishing house, often loudly criticizes his subordinates in front of the other colleagues even when the subordinates are not at fault.This leaves them embarrassed and humiliated.He also unnecessarily swears and talks at elevated tones while expressing himself.It is evident that Malcolm exhibits _____ at his workplace.
A)nondefensive communication
B)passive behavior
C)submissive behavior
D)dominant defensiveness
Q3) A memo from a company's president to all employees is an example of one-way communication.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Proxemics consists of variations in speech, such as pitch, loudness, tempo, tone, duration, laughing, and crying.
A)True
B)False
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Work Teams and Groups
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Sample Questions
Q1) A wild turkey in a top management team is:
A)one who increases the homogeneity within the executive group.
B)a devil's advocate who challenges the thinking of the CEO and other top executives.
C)someone who does not agree with most of the company policies.
D)a member of the executive team that retards the executive team's performance.
Q2) The advantages of culturally diverse groups appear to include the generation of more and better ideas while limiting the risk of _____.
A)groupthink
B)confusion
C)complexity
D)uncertainty
Q3) In the context of social benefits to individuals, _____ is closeness achieved through tasks and activities.
A)integrated involvement
B)emotional satisfaction
C)self-actualization
D)psychological intimacy
Q4) Identify the stages of group development in Bruce Tuckman's five-stage model.
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11
Chapter 10: Decision Making by Individuals and Groups
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61 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Participative decision making is associated with:
A)the ability to know the possibilities of a situation.
B)less creativity among employees.
C)reduced productivity.
D)employee job satisfaction.
Q2) By using the Z problem-solving model, managers can use only their preferences to make decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) _____ are simple rules used to determine final group decisions.
A)Heuristics
B)Social decision schemes
C)Nominal group techniques
D)Mindguards
Q4) Illumination is conducted to determine if a solution or idea is valid.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the elements of the decision making process?
Q6) Describe the advantages of group decision making.
Q7) Describe the foundations for participation and empowerment.
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Chapter 11: Power and Political Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a guideline for the ethical use of legitimate power?
A)Managers should act confident and decisive.
B)Managers should fit punishment to the infraction.
C)Managers should enforce compliance.
D)Managers should be oblivious to subordinates' concerns.
Q2) Managers using coercive power may:
A)maintain credibility.
B)exercise power consistently or engage in role modeling.
C)verbally abuse employees or withhold support from them.
D)be cordial and polite.
Q3) To coerce someone into doing something means to:
A)engage in role modeling.
B)exercise power consistently.
C)threaten his or her selfesteem.
D)force the person to do it.
Q4) A guideline for the ethical use of legitimate power is that managers should inform subordinates of rules and penalties.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Leadership and Followership
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the context of followership, effective followers:
A)are courageous and credible.
B)are self-aggrandizing.
C)uncritically reinforce leaders' ideas.
D)require close supervision.
Q2) The _____ involves planning and budgeting, organizing and staffing, and controlling and problem solving.
A)specialization process
B)management process
C)leadership process
D)functional process
Q3) The first studies of leadership attempted to identify what physical attributes, personality characteristics, and abilities distinguished leaders from other members of a group.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Kotter believes that effective leadership controls complexity in the organization and its environment.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Conflict and Negotiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) For integrative negotiation to be successful, parties should:
A)change the structure of an organization.
B)have a common goal.
C)determine whether a conflict will have a positive outcome.
D)achieve superordinate goals.
Q2) Managers should work to stimulate functional conflict when they suspect their group is suffering from groupthink.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A key to recognizing a dysfunctional conflict is that:
A)it arises from thinking of new ways to approach problems.
B)it arises from someone challenging old policies.
C)it is often cognitive in origin.
D)it is often emotional or behavioral in origin.
Q4) Which of the following is true of distributive bargaining?
A)It causes negotiators to focus on their similarities.
B)It is a competitive, win-lose approach to negotiations.
C)It allows members from different departments to work together.
D)It is a style low on both assertiveness and cooperativeness.
Q5) Explain functional and dysfunctional conflict.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Jobs and the Design of Work
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the Job Characteristics Model, _____ is the degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work.
A)autonomy
B)task significance
C)feedback
D)task identity
Q2) Flextime, an alternative work pattern, _____.
A)allows employees to work at locations other than their company's main location
B)is a technocentric approach to work design
C)provides employees with a three-day weekend
D)is designed to ease traffic and commuting pressures
Q3) Employees may experience technostress when:
A)flextime is implemented.
B)electronic performance monitoring is used.
C)they are not given enough credit for their work.
D)they are forced into job sharing.
Q4) The social information-processing model emphasizes objective core job characteristics.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Organizational Design and Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _____ of an organization is most easily defined as anything outside the boundaries of that organization.
A)complexity
B)technology
C)environment
D)configuration
Q2) As the level of centralization increases in an organization, the probability of _____ also increases.
A)the upper echelon losing power
B)the strategic decision process being initiated by lower-level managers
C)adopting a flatter organizational structure
D)the decision process being goal-oriented and rational
Q3) The _____ of organizational structure is a loosely coupled, composite structural configuration composed of units, each of which may have its own structural configuration.
A)professional bureaucracy
B)machine bureaucracy
C)divisionalized form
D)simple structure
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Chapter 16: Organizational Culture
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the context of the fit perspective, which of the following industry characteristics affects culture?
A)The variable assets
B)The number of managers
C)The number of subordinates
D)The competitive environment
Q2) Which of the following steps would enable organizations to develop an effective global organizational culture?
A)Management should award employees who support the global view.
B)Management should ensure that their global strategies are flexible enough to be emulated by their competitors.
C)Management should keep altering its attitude toward a global organizational culture.
D)Management should only appreciate the employees who support the global view but not reward them.
Q3) A company's espoused values are known as its enacted values.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List a few ways how leaders deal with crises.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Career Management
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Q1) How can the stress and strains of a dual-career situation be reduced?
Q2) In the _____, a mentoring relationship becomes more meaningful than the previous stages, and the protégé shows rapid progress because of the career support and psychosocial support provided by the mentor.
A)initiation phase
B)separation phase
C)redefinition phase
D)cultivation phase
Q3) Older workers have higher rates of tardiness and absenteeism, are less safety conscious, and are less satisfied with their jobs than are younger workers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An intentional and purposeful commitment to taking charge of one's professional life will be necessary in managing the new career that has replaced the old career.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly discuss the differences between the new and old meaning of career.
Q6) Why are mentors important in an organization?
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Chapter 18: Managing Change
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Sample Questions
Q1) Effective coaching relationships depend on a professional, experienced coach, an executive who is motivated to learn and change, and a good fit between the two.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The most massive scope of change in an organization is known as:
A)incremental change.
B)strategic change.
C)transitional change.
D)transformational change.
Q3) The final step in Kurt Lewin's change model is moving.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Change in which an organization moves to a radically different, and sometimes unknown, future state is known as incremental change.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly describe the characteristics of organization development (OD).
Q6) Briefly explain the external and internal forces for change in organizations.
Q7) Briefly explain Kurt Lewin's change model.
Page 20
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