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This course explores the fundamental theories and practices of management and leadership within organizations. Students will examine the distinctions and interconnections between managing processes and leading people, focusing on essential skills such as strategic planning, decision-making, team building, motivation, and communication. Case studies and real-world examples are used to illustrate effective leadership styles and management techniques in diverse organizational contexts. By the end of the course, students will be able to analyze management challenges, develop leadership strategies, and apply key concepts to foster organizational success and personal growth as effective leaders and managers.
Recommended Textbook Negotiation Readings Exercises and Cases 6th Edition by Roy Lewicki
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Q1) Whether you should or should not agree on something in a negotiation depends entirely upon the attractiveness to you of the best available _________.
Answer: alternative
Q2) Describe a "mutual gains" situation.
Answer: when parties' goals are linked so that one person's goal achievement helps others to achieve their goals, it is a mutual-gains situation, also known as a non-zero-sum or integrative situation, where there is a positive correlation between the goal attainments of both parties.
Q3) Successful negotiation involves the management of ____________ (e.g., the price or the terms of agreement) and also the resolution of ____________.
Answer: tangibles, intangibles
Q4) Which of the following is not an intangible factor in a negotiation?
A) the need to look good
B) final agreed price on a contract
C) the desire to book more business
D) fear of setting a precedent
E) All of the above are intangible factors.
Answer: B
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Q1) The package of issues for negotiation is the ____________ ____________.
Answer: bargaining mix.
Q2) Good distributive bargainers will
A) begin negotiations with the other party with an opening offer close to their own resistance point.
B) ensure that there is enough room in the bargaining range to make some concessions. C) accept an offer that is presented as a fait accompli.
D) immediately identify the other party's target point.
E) All of the above are actions that good distributive bargainers will take.
Answer: B
Q3) Most hardball tactics are designed to either ____________ the appearance of the bargaining position of the person using the tactic or to ____________ ____________ the appearance of the options available to the other party.
Answer: enhance, detract from
Q4) List several information sources one can use to indirectly assess the other party's resistance point.
Answer: Making direct observations, consulting readily available documents and publications, talking to knowledgeable experts.
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Q1) Which of the following statements about interests is true?
A) There is only one type of interest in a dispute.
B) Parties are always in agreement about the type of interests at stake.
C) Interests are often based in more deeply rooted human needs or values.
D) Interests do not change during the course of an integrative negotiation.
E) All of the above statements about interests are true.
Answer: C
Q2) When confronted with complex problems, or a large number of alternative options, which of the following steps is necessary?
A) broaden the range of solution options
B) evaluate solutions on the basis of quality, standards, and acceptability
C) decide on criteria while evaluating options
D) maintain a focus on the influence of tangibles in selecting options
E) All of the above steps should be used when confronted with complex problems.
Answer: B
Q3) For integrative negotiation to succeed, the parties must be motivated to ____________ rather than to compete.
Answer: collaborate
Q4) _________ interests are related to how the negotiations unfold.
Answer: Process
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Q1) According to Greenhalgh's stage model of negotiation, ____________ is extremely critical to satisfactorily moving the other stages forward.
Q2) What specific steps are entailed in effective planning?
Q3) What is the primary goal in the use of the strategy of accommodation?
Q4) ____________ are the points where you decide that you should stop the negotiation rather than continue, because any settlement beyond this point is not minimally acceptable.
Q5) ____________ strategies may generate a pattern of constantly giving in to keep the other happy or to avoid a fight.
Q6) Which is not true of limits?
A) Are the point where you should stop the negotiation
B) Are also called resistance point
C) Establishing them is a critical part of planning
D) They should be ignored in a bidding war
E) All of the above
Q7) Why is note taking critical?
Q8) Define Relationship building, a key step in an ideal negotiation.
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Q9) What are the advantages and disadvantages of limiting a negotiator's authority?
Q10) What is a drawback of accommodation strategies?
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Q1) Negative emotions may lead parties to
A) more integrative processes
B) escalate the conflict
C) promote persistence
D) define the situation as integrative
E) more integrative outcomes
Q2) How do multiple agenda items operate to shape issue development?
Q3) Which of the following statements about how emotion plays a part in negotiation is accurate?
A) Negotiations only create negative emotions.
B) Positive feelings do not promote persistence.
C) Negative feelings may create positive outcomes.
D) Positive emotion may result from impasse.
E) Negative emotions do not undermine a negotiator's ability to analyze a situation accurately.
Q4) ____________ is the tendency of negotiators to believe that their ability to be correct or accurate is greater than is actually true.
Q5) Define perception.
Q6) What is the best remedy for the winner's curse?
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Q1) _____________ ____________ involves receiving a message while providing no feedback to the sender about the accuracy or completeness of reception.
Q2) Achieving _____________ in negotiation is, in large part, making decisions to accept offers, to compromise priorities, to trade off across issues with the other party, or some combination of these elements.
A)True
B)False
Q3) _____________ questions cause attention, get information and start thinking.
Q4) Which of the following are types of manageable questions?
A) close-out questions that force the other party into seeing things your way
B) leading questions that point toward an answer
C) impulse questions that occur "on the spur of the moment," without planning
D) loaded questions that put the other party on the spot regardless of his/her answer
E) None of the above are types of manageable questions.
Q5) Describe the communication model.
Q6) Define "reframing explanations."
Q7) _____________ and ____________ are the conduits by which messages are carried.
Q8) A communicative framework for negotiation is based on what assumptions?
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Q1) Culture-both organizational and national-often translates into deeply embedded structural ____________ in a society.
Q2) Legitimate power and its effectiveness of formal authority that are derived from the willingness of the followers to:
A) create a group structure that gives one person a power base, group members generate a willingness within themselves to obey that person's directives.
B) willingly give up their right to participate in every decision by vesting authority in someone who can act on their behalf.
C) acknowledge the legitimacy of the organizational structure and the system of rules and regulations that empowers its leaders.
D) simply show respect for a person's position or organization.
E) All of the above contribute to the effectiveness of legitimate power.
Q3) Why is a BATNA a good source of power?
Q4) Today car-buying customers can enter negotiation armed with accurate facts and figures about a car. Describe how car buyers felt before the age of the Internet.
Q5) Describe the concept of "power motives."
Q6) Seeking power in negotiation usually arises from one of which two perceptions?
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Q1) Rather than immediately getting down to business, successful negotiators use friendliness to:
Q2) The effective use of persistence means
A) pursuing one's goals blindly and rigidly.
B) communicating with natural enthusiasm, sincerity and spontaneity.
C) finding new, unique, and creative ways to pursue the same request.
D) considering the long term consequences of their behavior on their future reputations.
E) None of the above defines the effective use of persistence.
Q3) Establishing your personal expertise is preferred to highlighting differences in positional power, especially if the goal is no just simple short-term ____________, but longer term relational benefits as well.
Q4) Which of the following is a condition for the use of pressure?
A) The other party is independent of the power holder.
B) The agent controls some form of resources which can be denied or taken away from the other party.
C) The punishment can only be administered in a single manner.
D) The resources in question are not controlled by a single individual.
E) None of the above is conditions for the use of pressure.
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Q1) Which of the following statements about situational influences on unethical conduct is true?
A) The negotiator's past relationship will affect current behavior if the parties have been previously competitive or cooperative.
B) Negotiators were more likely to make more deceptive arguments, negotiate for a longer period of time, and make fewer concessions to the counterpart they previously experienced as cooperative compared to one who had been exploitative.
C) Negotiators with less power are more likely to abuse what power they have by using less ethical tactics.
D) An individual who confuses private ethics with business morality makes an effective negotiator.
E) None of the above statements about situational influences on unethical conduct is True.
Q2) Considering the categories of marginally ethical negotiating tactics, what is the difference between misrepresentation and misrepresentation to opponent's networks?
Q3) When were negotiators significantly more likely to see the marginally ethical tactics as appropriate?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Give some examples of traits that help influence the definition of a reputation.
Q2) Why are negative reputations difficult to repair?
Q3) Reputation is:
A) a perceptual identity.
B) reflective of the combination of personal characteristics.
C) demonstrated behavior.
D) intended images preserved over time.
E) all of the above statements define reputation.
Q4) Which type of justice is about the process of determining outcomes?
A) Distributive
B) Interactive
C) Procedural
D) Systemic
E) None of the above.
Q5) It is clear that much of the early work of negotiation research has been dominated by the assumptions of a ____________ ____________ relationship.
Q6) What are some of the findings of the limited amount of negotiation research about communal-sharing relationships?
Q7) Define interactional justice.

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Q1) A ____________ is one or more parties that have designated someone else to represent their positions and interests in a negotiation.
Q2) How does a negotiator develop relationships with both his or her constituency and with the other party?
Q3) Informal communications in a negotiation can take place in what way?
A) communicate through superiors
B) communicate through intermediaries
C) communicate directly to the other party's constituency
D) communicate directly to bystanders
E) Informal communications can take place through all of the above methods.
Q4) Negotiators ____________ when they know they are being watched.
Q5) What is the dilemma of trust between agents and constituents?
Q6) Constituents expect to profit (or lose) as a direct result of the agent's ____________, and they often select their agent based on his or her ability to achieve their goals.
Q7) Direct communication with the other party's constituency-particularly without the sanction of the other negotiator-is likely to be viewed as an ____________ tactic.
Q8) How can a concern for reputations create a problem for agents?
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Q1) What kind networks to founders usually have, and how do they use networks to recruit coalition members?
Q2) What is the strength in weakness argument?
Q3) The founder makes explicit offers to attract new coalition partners based on what three criteria?
Q4) ____________ ____________ are emergent interest groups that have not yet formed into an operating coalition.
A) Informal coalitions
B) Formal coalitions
C) Latent coalitions
D) Dormant coalitions
E) All of the above are emergent interest groups that have not yet formed into an operating coalition.
Q5) Block sees the dominant driving force for a coalition as ____________-getting people to collectively endorse a view of greatness for their unit and organization that others will buy into.
Q6) Those advocating an ____________ allocation standard argue that everyone should receive the same outcome.
Q7) What are recurring coalitions?

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Q1) Additional parties may be invited to a multiparty negotiation to:
Q2) Multiparty negotiations differ from two-party deliberations in which of the following ways?
A) Multiparty negotiations have more negotiators at the table.
B) More issues and more information are introduced than when two parties negotiate.
C) The environment changes from a one-on-one dialogue to small group discussion.
D) The process for multiparty negotiators is more complex than two-party ones.
E) All of the above statements about multiparty negotiations are true.
Q3) In multiparty negotiations, multiple parties are negotiating together to achieve a ____________ objective or group consensus.
Q4) Explain the concept of exchanging relevant information with nongroup members.
Q5) Schwartz suggests that four key problem-solving steps occur during the agreement phase. What are the four steps?
Q6) In a competitive negotiation, parties are likely to use information ____________-sharing very little with other parties, while attempting to gain much information from others
Q7) The chairman should listen for the emergence of the "____________ coalition" among key members.
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Q1) According to Kolb and Coolidge, what are the six ways that women conceptualize negotiations differently than men?
Q2) What did researchers find in how same-sex pairs of men and women negotiated in a low-conflict bargaining situation?
Q3) What role does mind-set play as a tool in negotiation for the different sexes?
Q4) Does an activated stereotype matter more than the actual gender of the negotiator.
Q5) What do the authors, Babcock and Laschever, argue in their recent book addressing the gender divide in negotiation?
Q6) Women tend to fare worse on salary negotiations because:
A) they tend to ask for higher salaries during interviews.
B) they tend to accept what is offered them.
C) they tend to not ask for more.
D) they tend to anticipate a hypothetical salary.
E) they tend to become overly involved with salary negotiations.
Q7) Women may place a ____________ emphasis on interaction goals (the interpersonal aspects of the negotiations) than men.
Q8) What has past research tended to find in the search for gender differences?
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Q9) What is the difference between sex and gender?
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Q1) List characteristics of Machiavellianism .
Q2) As identified by Thomas' research, the ____________ style is high on assertiveness and cooperativeness.
Q3) With respect to distributive bargaining (a price negotiation simulation), Barry and Friedman found that negotiators higher in extraversion and agreeableness were more likely to do ____________ for themselves.
Q4) What is the implicit assumption underlying research into the behavioral approach?
Q5) The extent to which people perceive that they have control over events that occur is called
A) self monitoring.
B) locus of control.
C) Machiavellianism.
D) the negotiator's degree of assertiveness.
E) None of the above describes the extent to which people perceive that they have control over events that occur.
Q6) What differences between the behaviors of expert and amateur negotiators have been documented in studies by Neale and Northcraft and by Thompson?
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Q1) Power distance describes
A) the extent to which the less powerful members of organizations and institutions accept and expect that power is distributed unequally.
B) the extent to which the society is organized around individuals or the group.
C) the extent to which cultures hold values that were traditionally perceived as masculine or feminine.
D) the extent to which a culture programs its members to feel either uncomfortable or comfortable in unstructured situations.
E) None of the above describes power distance.
Q2) Negotiation in risk-____________ cultures will seek further information and will be more likely to take a wait-and-see stance.
Q3) The term ____________ refers to the shared values and beliefs of a group of people.
Q4) What did researchers Adler, Brahm and Graham find about the differences in negotiation strategies and tactics in the cultures of the Chinese and Americans?
Q5) According to Salacuse, what are the six factors that make global negotiations more challenging than domestic negotiations?
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Q1) Approaches used to de-escalate conflict might also be viewed as efforts to ____________ the conflict away from a focus on differences and toward a focus on commonalities areas.
Q2) What strategy does Fisher suggest to make options more desirable to the opponent?
A) give them a "yes-able" proposal
B) ask for a different decision
C) sweeten the offer
D) use legitimacy or objective criteria to evaluate solutions
E) Fisher suggests all of the above strategies to make options more desirable.
Q3) How can a third party or a common enemy be used as a superordinate goal?
Q4) Which of the following are dynamics of highly polarized, unproductive conflict?
A) The atmosphere is charged with anger, frustration, and resentment.
B) Channels of communication are closed or constrained.
C) The original issues at stake have become blurred and ill-defined.
D) The parties tend to perceive great differences in their respective positions.
E) All of the above characterize a highly polarized, unproductive conflict.
Q5) ____________- the degree to which the conflict divides people, such that they are "backed into a corner" and can not escape without losing face.
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Q1) The strategy of disarmament includes:
A) providing some distance from the conflict and from one's own emotions.
B) negotiating directly and openly the rules of the negotiation process.
C) helping the other party think about the consequences of not reaching an agreement.
D) expressing one's own views clearly and considerately.
E) asking open-ended questions.
Q2) The ____________ negotiation occurs in parallel with the substantive negotiation and is concerned with how the negotiation will proceed.
Q3) Having conversations with difficult people is not easy. Describe three ways of preparation in anticipation of dealing with a difficult conversation.
Q4) Negotiators always run the risk of encountering other parties who, for any number of reasons, are difficult negotiators. That difficulty may be intentional or due to
A) inexperience
B) philosophical differences
C) inadequate skill
D) lack of sophistication
E) a psychological imbalance
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Q1) What is the role of a mediator in a situation where the resistance points of the two sides don't overlap?
Q2) In ADR, a ____________ is typically charged with being "a confidential and informed information resource, communication channel, complaint-handler, and a person who helps an organization work for change."
Q3) Intervention by a third party may signal that
A) the parties have built a successful relationship.
B) the parties have failed to build a relationship or manage their interdependence positively.
C) the parties have grown into negotiation partners.
D) the parties have successfully resolved a dispute.
E) Intervention by a third party signals all of the above.
Q4) The ____________ form of mediation strategy involves mediator application of rewards and inducements to entice the parties into making concessions and agreements.
Q5) ____________ can be viewed as the result of negotiators' agreement to disagree, and a willingness to surrender control over the outcome of their dispute.
Q6) A corollary to the rule "No third-party involvement unless necessary," is:
Q7) What are the benefits of third-party intervention?
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Q1) Negotiators can illuminate definitions of _____________ that the other party's holds and engage in a dialogue to reach consensus on which standards of _____________ apply in a given situation.
Q2) Research suggests that too much knowledge about the other party's needs can lead to a
A) quick and positive outcome.
B) dilemma of honesty.
C) negative effect on your reputation.
D) groundwork for agreement.
E) suboptimal negotiation outcome.
Q3) Why is the BATNA an important source of power in a negotiation?
Q4) Negotiators who take the time to pause and reflect on their negotiations will find that they continue to refine their skills, and that they remain sharp and focused for their _____________ negotiations.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the three things that negotiators can do to manage the perceptions of fairness and rationality proactively?
Q6) Why is communicating with a coalition critical?
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