Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) Positioning
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) Positioning is a specialized course designed to equip students with the theoretical knowledge and practical skills necessary for accurate patient positioning during MRI examinations. The course covers key anatomical landmarks, standard positioning protocols for various body regions, and methods to ensure patient comfort and safety while obtaining optimal image quality. Students will learn how to adapt positioning techniques for diverse clinical indications, address challenges with special populations, and minimize artifacts that may compromise diagnostic accuracy. Emphasis is placed on understanding MRI safety principles, the use of coils and accessories, and effective communication with patients throughout the imaging process.
Recommended Textbook merrills atlas of radiographic positioning and procedures 13th edition 3 volume set by bruce long
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Preliminary Steps in Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each radiology department must write age-specific competencies to meet the standards of the:
A) CDC.
B) ASRT.
C) ARRT.
D) JCAHO.
Answer: D
Q2) Involuntary motion can be caused by which of the following?
1)Peristalsis
2)Spasm
3)Breathing
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Compensating Filters
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Q1) Which of the following would be considered advantages in using anatomic compensating filters?
1)Reduces radiation exposure to the patient
2)Provides an even image density
3)Increases image contrast and detail
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: A
Q2) Where are most compensating filters placed?
A) Under the patient
B) Directly on the patient
C) Between the x-ray tube and skin surface
D) Between the x-ray tube and collimator
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: General Anatomy and Radiographic Positioning
Terminology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some synovial joints contain a thick cushioning pad of fibrocartilage called the: A) bursae.
B) meniscus.
C) cartilage.
D) fibrous capsule.
Answer: B
Q2) When a fractured bone is shattered into many pieces, it is called:
A) spiral.
B) transverse.
C) compression.
D) comminuted.
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is an x-ray "projection"?
A) RPO
B) LAO
C) Dorsoplantar
D) Recumbent
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Upper Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) For the lateral projection of the elbow, the elbow joint should be flexed _____ degrees.
A) 25
B) 45
C) 75
D) 90
Q2) How far above the humeral head should the upper margin of the IR be placed for an AP humerus?
A) \(1 / 2\) inch
B) 1 inch
C) 1 \(1 / 2\) inches
D) 2 inches
Q3) Which of the following is the primary projection used to demonstrate anterior or posterior displacement of fractures of the hand or wrist?
A) AP
B) PA
C) Lateral
D) AP oblique
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6
Chapter 5: Shoulder Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the tangential projection of the intertubercular groove is performed with the patient supine, the position of the hand is:
A) supinated.
B) pronated.
C) lateral.
D) neutral.
Q2) For the PA oblique projection (scapular Y) of the shoulder, the body is rotated so that the midcoronal plane is how many degrees from the IR?
A) 25
B) 45
C) 45 to 60
D) 25 to 60
Q3) The central-ray angle for an AP axial projection of the clavicle when performed on a patient in the supine position is _____ degrees.
A) 15
B) 25
C) 15 to 25
D) 15 to 30
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7
Chapter 6: Lower Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following objects should be available in the radiography room for performing radiographs of the lower limb?
1)Angle sponges
2)Sandbags
3)Pull straps
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) What is the position of the femoral condyles when the leg is properly positioned for an AP projection?
A) Perpendicular to the IR
B) Parallel to the IR
C) At a 15- to 20-degree oblique position (laterally)
D) At a 15- to 20-degree oblique position (medially)
Q3) How many metatarsal bones are in the foot?
A) Four
B) Five
C) Six
D) Seven
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Chapter 7: Pelvis and Upper Femora
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where does the central ray enter the patient for an AP hip?
A) The midsagittal plane (MSP) at the level of the ASIS
B) A sagittal plane 2 inches lateral from MSP at the level of the pubic symphysis
C) 2 \(1 / 2\) inches (6.4 cm) distal on a line drawn perpendicular to the midpoint of a line between ASIS and pubic symphysis
D) A sagittal plane 3 inches medial to the ASIS
Q2) In the anatomic position, the body of the femur is angled _____ degrees.
A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 15 to 20
Q3) The AP axial projection (Bridgeman method) requires that the central ray be directed:
A) perpendicular.
B) 20 to 35 degrees caudad for males; 30 to 45 degrees caudad for females.
C) 40 degrees caudad.
D) 40 degrees cephalad.
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Chapter 8: Vertebral Column
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the central-ray angle for the AP axial oblique projection of the cervical intervertebral foramina?
A) 15 degrees cephalad
B) 15 to 20 degrees cephalad
C) 15 to 20 degrees caudad
D) Perpendicular
Q2) How are small weights applied to the arms for the lateral projection of the cervical spine (Grandy method)?
A) Affixed to the elbows
B) Affixed to the wrists
C) Held in the hands
D) Held by the fingers
Q3) For which projection is the patient instructed to softly phonate "ah" during the exposure?
A) Lateral cervical vertebrae
B) AP "open mouth" atlas and axis
C) AP dens, Fuchs method
D) AP axial cervical spine
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10
Chapter 9: Bony Thorax
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Sample Questions
Q1) The phase of respiration for a PA projection of the sternoclavicular joints is:
A) expiration.
B) inspiration.
C) suspended respiration.
D) slow, shallow breathing.
Q2) Ribs lie in an oblique plane in the thorax. How are the anterior ends situated in comparison to the posterior ends?
A) 1 inch lower
B) 1 inch higher
C) 3 to 5 inches lower
D) 3 to 5 inches higher
Q3) What degree of x-ray tube angulation is required to demonstrate the sternum on a patient whose thorax measures 15 cm?
A) 20 degrees
B) 22 degrees
C) 28 degrees
D) 30 degrees
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11
Chapter 10: Thoracic Viscera
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Sample Questions
Q1) The part of the lung that extends above the clavicle is termed the:
A) apex.
B) base.
C) hilum.
D) lingula.
Q2) The right lung is about how much shorter than the left?
A) \(1 / 2\) inch
B) 1 inch
C) 1 \(1 / 2\) inches
D) 2 inches
Q3) Inflammation of the bronchi would be termed:
A) branchioma.
B) bronchitis.
C) bronchotomy.
D) bronchiectasis.
Q4) Which of the following best describes the position of the thymus gland?
A) In the mediastinum
B) In the anterior neck
C) Behind the heart
D) Behind the manubrium
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Long Bone Measurement
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which anatomic landmark is used to localize the knee joint for lower limb long bone measurement?
A) 1 inch inferior to the tibial tuberosity
B) 1 inch superior to the tibial tuberosity
C) Just below the patellar apex
D) Just above the patellar apex
Q2) Which long bone measurement technique requires three separate image receptors?
A) Scanogram
B) Orthoroentgenography
C) Teleoroentgenography
D) Direct digital radiography
Q3) Which of the following is currently the examination method of choice for long bone measurements because of its accuracy and reduced dose?
A) Conventional radiography
B) Magnetic resonance imaging
C) Computed tomography
D) Direct digital radiography
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13
Chapter 12: Contrast Arthrography
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Q1) Which of the following imaging modalities has not reduced the use of contrast arthrography?
A) Ultrasound
B) Computed tomography
C) Magnetic resonance imaging
D) Nuclear medicine
Q2) Which of the following is administered during arthrography before the injection of contrast?
A) Conscious sedation
B) Sterile saline
C) Local anesthetic
D) General anesthetic
Q3) The radiography examination in which a contrast medium is introduced into a joint space and radiographs are made of the joint is called:
A) arthrosis.
B) arthrography.
C) arthrogenesis.
D) arthroendoscopy.
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14
Chapter 13: Trauma Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a trauma patient loses consciousness during an imaging procedure, the imaging professional should:
A) assess the patient's airway.
B) check the patient's pulse.
C) notify the ED physician immediately.
D) check the patient's pupil responses.
Q2) Which of the following would be considered a trauma radiography guideline?
1)Remove all splints.
2)Do not move the patient unless necessary.
3)Obtain a minimum of two radiographs of each body part.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) Which imaging modality has replaced conventional trauma skull radiography in most Level I trauma centers?
A) CT
B) MRI
C) Nuclear medicine
D) Angiography
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Chapter 14: Mouth and Salivary Glands
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Sample Questions
Q1) The salivary glands produce how much saliva each day?
A) 0.25 L
B) 0.50 L
C) 1 L
D) 1.5 L
Q2) Which salivary glands are the largest?
A) Parotid
B) Submandibular
C) Sublingual
D) Submandibular and sublingual are equal in size.
Q3) The hard palate is formed by the:
A) ethmoid and vomer.
B) ethmoid and palatine bone.
C) maxillae and vomer.
D) maxillae and palatine bone.
Q4) Which salivary gland is located on the floor of the mouth?
A) Parotid
B) Submandibular
C) Sublingual
D) Submandibular and sublingual
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Chapter 15: Anterior Part of Neck
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Sample Questions
Q1) The roof of the posterior wall of the nasopharynx contains a mass of lymphoid tissue known as the:
A) thymus gland.
B) thyroid gland.
C) pharyngeal tonsil.
D) epiglottis.
Q2) Which is the most common imaging modality for examination of the soft palate, pharynx, and larynx?
A) Computed radiography
B) Computed tomography
C) Magnetic resonance imaging
D) Nuclear medicine
Q3) All of the following are techniques used during radiographic examination of the pharyngolaryngeal structures except:
A) swallowing.
B) phonation.
C) sneezing.
D) breathing.
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17
Chapter 16: Abdomen
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where is the center of the IR positioned for an AP abdominal image obtained in the left lateral decubitus position?
A) L3
B) Xiphoid
C) 2 inches above the iliac crests
D) Iliac crests
Q2) A three-way abdominal series may be ordered to rule out all of the following except:
A) infection.
B) tumor mass.
C) bowel obstruction.
D) free air.
Q3) What is the cavity posterior to the peritoneum?
A) Parietal peritoneum
B) Peritoneal cavity
C) Retroperitoneum
D) Retrogastrium
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Chapter 17: Digestive System: Alimentary Canal
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where is the IR centered for delayed images of the small intestine?
A) Level of the iliac crests
B) 1 inch above the iliac crests
C) 2 inches above the iliac crests
D) At the costal margin/L3
Q2) Food and fluid should be withheld for how many hours before a stomach examination?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 12
Q3) At which plane is the central ray positioned for the PA oblique projections (LAO or RAO) of the large intestine?
A) Midsagittal plane
B) A longitudinal plane directly over the vertebral column
C) A longitudinal plane 1 to 2 inches lateral to the midline of the body on the elevated side
D) A longitudinal plane 4 inches lateral to the midline of the body on the elevated side
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Chapter 18: Urinary System and Venipuncture
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Sample Questions
Q1) The antiseptic used to cleanse the skin before venipuncture should remain on the skin for:
A) 15 seconds.
B) 30 seconds.
C) 1 minute.
D) 2 minutes.
Q2) Where is the compression applied during an IVU?
A) Over the kidneys
B) Distal ends of the ureters
C) Middle portion of the ureters
D) Directly over the bladder
Q3) How much is the patient rotated from the supine for an AP oblique projection of the urinary system?
A) 30 degrees
B) 35 degrees
C) 40 degrees
D) 45 degrees
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a type of temporary intrauterine contraceptive device (IUD)?
A) Essure
B) ParaGard
C) Insure
D) CerviGard
Q2) What is the most common type of testicular tumor?
A) Cryptorchidism
B) Prostate cancer
C) Seminoma
D) Dermoid
Q3) Radiographic examinations of the male reproductive structures are rarely performed as a result of advances in:
A) computed tomography.
B) nuclear medicine.
C) sonography.
D) magnetic resonance imaging.
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Chapter 20: Skull, Facial Bones, and Paranasal Sinuses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The largest sinus is the:
A) frontal.
B) maxillary.
C) ethmoidal.
D) sphenoidal.
Q2) The parietoacanthial projection (Waters method) of the sinuses requires the orbitomeatal line to be placed how many degrees from the plane of the image receptor?
A) 20 degrees
B) 27 degrees
C) 30 degrees
D) 37 degrees
Q3) The large aperture in the occipital bone, through which the medulla oblongata and spinal cord exit, is termed the:
A) foramen magnum.
B) basilar part.
C) occipital protuberance.
D) hypoglossal canal.
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22
Chapter 21: Mammography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which projections of the breast are routinely performed during screening mammography?
1)Lateral
2)Craniocaudal
3)Mediolateral oblique
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) The pectoral muscle is seen on the craniocaudal projection of the breast in what percentage of patients?
A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 50%
D) 75%
Q3) What percent of nonpalpable lesions in the breast are not malignant?
A) 5%
B) 8%
C) 70%
D) 80%
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Chapter 22: Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the imaging method of choice in diagnosing multiple sclerosis?
A) CR
B) CT
C) MRI
D) DSR
Q2) How many fluid-containing cavities make up the ventricular system of the brain?
A) Two
B) Four
C) Six
D) Eight
Q3) Which imaging examination is usually performed immediately after a myelogram?
A) MRI
B) NM
C) US
D) CT
Q4) The largest part of the brain is the:
A) cerebellum.
B) cerebrum.
C) brainstem.
D) medulla oblongata.
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Chapter 23: Vascular, Cardiac, and Interventional Radiography
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Q1) The muscular wall of the heart is called the:
A) myocardium.
B) epicardium.
C) endocardium.
D) pericardium.
Q2) The radiographic recording of blood vessels on movie IR is termed:
A) angiography.
B) arteriography.
C) cinefluorography.
D) serial radiographic IRing.
Q3) The most widely used method of catheterization for selective angiography is known as the _____ method.
A) Amplatz
B) Stecher
C) modified Seldinger
D) Schüller
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Pediatric Imaging
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Q1) All of the following are appropriate communication skills for pediatric radiography except:
A) avoid medical jargon.
B) introduce yourself to both the patient and the parents.
C) explain the imaging exam.
D) direct communications to the parents only.
Q2) Which of the following is used to evaluate adequate inspiration on a pediatric chest image?
A) Superimposition of anterior and posterior midline structures
B) Visualization of eight to nine posterior ribs
C) Visualization of the intervertebral disk spaces through the heart
D) Anatomy from the trachea to the costophrenic angles is seen
Q3) How is rotation evaluated on a pediatric chest image?
A) Superimposition of anterior and posterior midline structures
B) Visualization of eight to nine posterior ribs
C) Visualization of the intervertebral disk spaces through the heart
D) Anatomy from the trachea to the costophrenic angles is seen
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Chapter 25: Geriatric Radiography
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Q1) What system accounts for almost 50% of disability in patients older than age 65?
A) Cardiovascular
B) Gastrointestinal
C) Musculoskeletal
D) Nervous
Q2) It is inappropriate to address elderly patients as "honey" or "dear."
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following would be common sites for decubitus ulcers?
1)Heel
2)Knee
3)Elbow
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q4) Elder abuse occurs in many forms, such as sexual, emotional, exploitive, or physical.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Mobile Radiography
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Q1) Which of the following preliminary steps should the radiographer perform before beginning a mobile x-ray examination?
1)Invite family members to remain in the room.
2)Introduce oneself to the patient and family.
3)Determine that the correct patient is in the room.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) Which of the following should be available on every mobile radiography machine?
1)Lead apron
2)Radiographic technique chart
3)Measuring caliper
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
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Chapter 27: Surgical Radiography
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Q1) What should be done if the sterile field is compromised?
A) Determine if the area is important.
B) Don't tell anyone.
C) Call your manager.
D) Tell OR staff immediately.
Q2) Who would be included as nonsterile team members?
1)Anesthesia provider
2)Physician assistant
3)Radiographer
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) What should the radiographer do after removing the cover from the IR?
A) Quickly take it to be processed.
B) Give it to a nonsterile team member.
C) Put it on the floor.
D) Remove gloves before handling it.
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Chapter 29: Computed Tomography
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Q1) Dose in CT is considered to be:
A) independent of size.
B) size dependent.
C) related to the CT numbers.
D) similar to a chest examination.
Q2) Factors that affect image quality in CT consist of:
1)spatial resolution.
2)noise.
3)contrast media.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) Contrast is adjusted by windowing, changing window width and window level. Window level determines the:
A) number of gray levels displayed.
B) midpoint of the gray range.
C) size of the field of view.
D) slice thickness.
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Page 30
Chapter 30: Magnetic Resonance Imaging
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Q1) A possible patient reaction to rapid venting of the supercooled liquid gases in a superconductive magnet into the examination room would be:
A) tachycardia.
B) bradycardia.
C) embolus.
D) asphyxiation.
Q2) A spin echo pulse sequence can provide which of the following weighted images?
1)T1
2)T2
3)Proton density
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) Strong MRI signals are represented by _____ in the image.
A) black
B) light gray
C) white
D) dark gray
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Page 31
Chapter 31: Diagnostic Ultrasound
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Q1) Sometimes examinations in the abdominal cavity are difficult to perform because of:
A) air or gas in the gastrointestinal tract.
B) bony anatomy.
C) tissue differences.
D) too much fluid.
Q2) The exam to evaluate for deep vein thrombosis and venous insufficiency is:
A) duplex sonography.
B) endovaginal.
C) transabdominal.
D) volume scanning.
Q3) The frequency for diagnostic ultrasound is in the range of:
A) 2 to 320 Hz.
B) 20 to 20,000 Hz.
C) 100,000 Hz to 1 MHz.
D) 1 to 10 MHz.
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Chapter 32: Nuclear Medicine
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Q1) When a positron and an electron combine, the result is annihilation radiation of:
A) two photons of 1.022 MeV.
B) two photons of 0.511 MeV.
C) two photons of 180 MeV.
D) multiple gamma photons.
Q2) SPECT imaging produces images that:
A) are similar to those done in CT.
B) will show only large lesions.
C) require increased amounts of radionuclides.
D) show only motion.
Q3) If only one photon is detected and no other photon is observed during the time window for an annihilation pair, then:
A) the original event is discarded.
B) only the one photon is recorded.
C) the computer estimates the probable location.
D) the examination must be repeated in an hour.
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Chapter 33: Bone Densitometry
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Q1) Peak bone mass is reached at about age _____ years.
A) 10 to 20
B) 20 to 30
C) 30 to 40
D) 40 to 50
Q2) Which vertebral region(s) is (are) analyzed during a DXA scan?
A) T12
B) T7 to L1
C) L1 to L5
D) L4 to S2
Q3) DXA calculations are based on:
A) body position and bone density.
B) bone density only.
C) soft tissue only.
D) soft tissue and bone.
Q4) Precision relates to the ability of the system to:
A) measure the true value of an object.
B) reproduce the same results in repeat measurements of the same object.
C) reflect the bone measurement by the scanner software.
D) measure the variability of the spread of data values around the mean.
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Chapter 34: Radiation Oncology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24128
Sample Questions
Q1) Radiation oncology may be used in conjunction with: 1)surgery.
2)chemotherapy.
3)angiography.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) Gamma knife is primarily used to treat small benign or malignant lesions located in the:
A) abdomen.
B) breast.
C) brain.
D) prostate.
Q3) The technique that uses radioactive material placed within the patient is called:
A) brachytherapy.
B) simulation.
C) dosimetry.
D) linear energy transfer.
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