Lifespan Human Development Pre-Test
Questions
Course Introduction
Lifespan Human Development explores the growth and change individuals experience from conception through late adulthood. The course examines the physical, cognitive, emotional, and social development across key life stages, drawing on major theoretical perspectives and current research. Topics include the influence of genetics, environment, and culture; developmental milestones; challenges at each stage; and how these factors interact to shape behavior and identity over time. This foundational understanding provides a framework for recognizing diversity in developmental pathways and informs practical applications in education, healthcare, and social services.
Recommended Textbook
HDEV 2nd Canadian Edition by Spencer Rathus
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19 Chapters
3773 Verified Questions
3773 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: History, Theories, and Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is considered to be a positive influence of Erikson's theory?
A) It emphasizes the importance of human consciousness and choice.
B) It reinforces the importance of unconscious forces in human development.
C) It reminds us that humans are selfish therefore, ultimately able to meet their own needs, and achieve goals.
D) It suggests that childhood experiences can easily be overcome as we develop in our lives.
Answer: A
Q2) What is the correct order of Freud's psychosexual stages?
A) anal, latency, phallic, oral, genital
B) anal, oral ,latency, phallic, genital
C) phallic, oral, anal, latency, genital
D) oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital
Answer: D
Q3) The scientific method should NOT be used to study human development for ethical reasons.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Heredity and Prenatal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Debbie was born with a disease that leaves her body unable to break down fats.Her doctors predict that she will NOT live beyond the age of 4 years.What disorder does Debbie have?
A) sickle-cell anemia
B) Down's syndrome.
C) Tay-Sachs disease
D) phenylketonuria
Answer: C
Q2) Why are sex-linked diseases more likely to affect sons of female carriers?
A) These diseases are carried on dominant genes.
B) These diseases are carried on the Y chromosome.
C) Females are at a diminished risk because they could inherit a XYY profile.
D) Males have only one X chromosome, which they inherit from their mothers. Answer: D
Q3) At the moment of conception, how many chromosomes does a healthy zygote contain?
A) 20
B) 32
C) 46
D) 48
Answer: C
4
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Chapter 3: Birth and the Newborn Baby: in the New World
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Sample Questions
Q1) You change a baby's position, and the infant's reaction is to arch its back, fling its arms and legs out, and then bring them back toward the chest.What reflex has occurred?
A) the Moro reflex
B) the palmar reflex
C) the rooting reflex
D) the grasping reflex
Answer: A
Q2) Jennifer is having a vaginal delivery of her baby.She learns that she needs an episiotomy.According to the Ottawa Hospital Research Division, what is an advantage of having an episiotomy performed during delivery?
A) It reduces the stress of a vaginal delivery.
B) It reduces the pain of a vaginal delivery.
C) It reduces the length of time required for a vaginal delivery.
D) It reduces the risk associated with a vaginal delivery.
Answer: C
Q3) Sudden infant death syndrome is usually caused by parents.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Infancy: Physical Development
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Q1) An infant's arms grow longer than its legs.What term refers to this type of growth?
A) minimalistic development
B) proximodistal development
C) cephalocaudal development
D) differentiation in development
Q2) Failure to thrive syndrome has been found to be caused by psychological factors only.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which part of the neuron receives messages?
A) the axon
B) the soma
C) the synapse
D) the dendrites
Q4) Myelination of certain parts of the brain continues into the second decade of life.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss what is meant by "canalization," in terms of human development.
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Chapter 5: Infancy: Cognitive Development
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Q1) Most children can use 500 words by 18 months of age.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A child learns to call a dog "bow-wow" and now calls all animals he sees "bow-wow."
What is this child's behaviour an example of?
A) morpheme
B) overextension
C) egocentric speech
D) telegraphic speech
Q3) Infants are unable to imitate others' behaviours until 6 months of age.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the definition of a holophrase?
A) the first inclusive sentence that a child utters
B) a single word utterance that expresses a complex meaning
C) a first word from the infant accompanied by physical gestures
D) a double-word utterance that a child speaks at approximately 14 months of age
Q5) How do secondary and tertiary circular reactions differ?
Q6) Identify the major characteristics of Motherese.
Q7) How can infants' and children's language development be enhanced?
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Chapter 6: Infancy: Social and Emotional Development
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Q1) Which of the following is most likely to lead to securely attached infants?
A) genetics
B) good parenting
C) a combination of genetics and good parenting
D) good parenting and positive peer relationships
Q2) What type of attachment is demonstrated by infants who show the largest degree of emotional anguish when their mothers depart?
A) secure attachment
B) avoidant attachment
C) confused attachment
D) ambivalent attachment
Q3) Of all substantiated child abuse cases in Canada, approximately what percentage involved neglect?
A) 25%
B) 35%
C) 45%
D) 55%
Q4) Adults treat boys and girls the same in all ways.
Q5) Explain how self-concept develops in infants.
Q6) Describe how autistic children can be distinguished from non-autistic children.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Early Childhood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Q1) How do the motor skills of boys and girls skills compare in early childhood?
A) Girls are better at tasks requiring gross motor skills.
B) Motor skills are very similar between boys and girls.
C) Boys are better at tasks requiring precise movements.
D) Huge differences exist between boys' and girls' motor skills.
Q2) Preschoolers spend less time in rough-and-tumble play than older children.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the current advice regarding whether a sleepwalker should be wakened?
A) They should NOT be wakened because waking them could cause them harm.
B) They should be wakened because they are NOT really asleep.
C) They should be wakened, but most will just go back to bed.
D) They should NOT be wakened because they could become extremely violent.
Q4) Egocentrism is characterized by one-dimensional thinking.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Four-year-olds think dreams are real because of artificialism.
A)True
B)False
Page 9
Q6) Discuss what memory is like in early childhood.
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Page 10
Chapter 8: Early Childhood: Social and Emotional Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following children are more likely to be involved in vigorous play in groups of five or more?
A) early elementary-school boys
B) early elementary-school girls
C) middle childhood boys
D) middle childhood girls
Q2) What is the main principle of the gender-schema theory?
A) Gender identity, stability, and constancy occur in a predictable order.
B) It proposes a concept called "conservation of gender."
C) Gender is a category around which children organize their world.
D) It recognizes that children retain their gender for a lifetime.
Q3) Which word best describes power-assertive parents?
A) indulgent
B) permissive
C) authoritative
D) authoritarian
Q4) Children have few fears until middle childhood.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss what is known about the development of gender typing.
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Chapter 9: Middle Childhood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Q1) In the preconventional level of Kohlberg's theory of moral development, children are concerned about avoiding punishment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the relationship between television viewing and obesity?
A) TV viewing curbs the appetite.
B) Children who are heavy TV viewers are less physically active overall.
C) TV viewing resets the hunger trigger, which is located in the thalamus.
D) TV viewing does NOT contribute to obesity; obesity is genetically determined.
Q3) According to Kohlberg's theory of moral development, what forms the basis of postconventional reasoning?
A) social order
B) personal moral standards
C) a good-boy/good-girl orientation
D) an obedience and punishment orientation
Q4) Culture-free tests of intelligence have solved the problem associated with intelligence tests.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
Q5) How does concrete operational thinking differ from preoperational thinking?
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Chapter 10: Middle Childhood: Social and Emotional Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the approximate concordance rate for depression in female identical twins?
A) 29%
B) 39%
C) 49%
D) 59%
Q2) Richard Green (1978) studied children reared by lesbians or transsexuals.What sexual orientation tended to be the norm for the children he studied?
A) a bisexual orientation
B) a transsexual orientation
C) a homosexual orientation
D) a heterosexual orientation
Q3) Which of the following statements is NOT a feature of parental involvement during middle childhood?
A) Children and parents spend less time together.
B) Fathers' involvement tends to centre on recreational activities.
C) Children continue to spend more time with their mothers than with their fathers.
D) Parents provide more feedback to their children.
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Page 13
Chapter 11: Adolescence: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Precocious puberty (PP) is happening more often in Canada.What is PP?
A) the onset of puberty before age 5 or 6 in girls, and before age 7 in boys
B) the onset of puberty before age 7 or 8 in girls, and before age 9 in boys
C) the onset of puberty before age 9 or 10 in girls, and before age 11 in boys
D) the onset of puberty before after 12 or 13 in girls, and before age 14 in boys
Q2) Adolescents can think ahead and systematically try out various possibilities in their minds.Which of the following is this ability related to?
A) hypothesis testing
B) a higher level of egocentrism
C) a greater number of cognitive mistakes
D) less monitoring of individual behaviour
Q3) Which of the following statements describes adolescents' nutritional needs?
A) Adolescents need twice as much calcium as adults need, but only half as much vitamin A.
B) Adolescents often do NOT receive as much nutrition as they need.
C) Adolescents need fewer vitamins and minerals compared with young children.
D) Adolescents require less calcium as adults, but more iron.
Q4) What are the characteristics of moral development in adolescence?
Q5) What are the drug and alcohol habits of Canadian adolescents?
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Chapter 12: Adolescence: Social and Emotional Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the textbook, what is a crowd?
A) a group of either girls or boys
B) a group of people of the same age
C) 5 to 10 individuals who hang around together and share activities
D) large groups of individuals who are identified by the activities of the group
Q2) Unlike previous generations, rather than passively waiting for a romantic partner to suggest having sex, female adolescents are much more likely to have sex on their own terms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the Canadian legal system, whenever possible, the first time a youth is caught breaking the law, a response is implemented called extrajudicial measures.What is this process?
A) a harsh initial punishment to frighten and make a bold statement
B) placement in a youth detention centre, then a release to appear in court at a later date
C) counselling combined with community services order
D) a formal warning and a referral to an agency to provide counselling and help
Q4) Describe typical adolescent relationships with parents and peers.
Q5) Describe the four identity statuses identified by Marcia.
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Chapter 13: Early Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Q1) Which of the following best characterizes sexual assault?
A) It rarely happens to men.
B) It is usually reported to the authorities.
C) It is usually defined as sexual activity without consent.
D) It occurs more frequently to women over 45 in Canada.
Q2) Which of the following distinguishes hearing ability during early adulthood?
A) It is best for high-pitched tones.
B) It is much weaker than during adolescence.
C) It tends to decline in the late 20s and early 30s.
D) It improves dramatically over hearing during adolescence.
Q3) What percentage of Canadian youth and young adults described their mental health as being very good or excellent?
A) less than 50%
B) 51 to 64%
C) 65 to 76%
D) more than 77%
Q4) Most people between their late teens and early 20s recognize that they are NOT fully adults yet.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Early Adulthood: Social and Emotional Development
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Q1) Paul is getting married for the first time.Which of the following women is he most likely to marry?
A) a woman who is much older than he is
B) a woman who is much less attractive than he is
C) a woman who has much more education than he has
D) a woman who is close in age with similar educational achievements
Q2) According to the textbook, which of the following statements best describes people who are single?
A) They are sometimes afraid for their safety.
B) They share the same sexual interests and lifestyles.
C) They usually have commitment issues, which is why they are single.
D) They are rarely lonely because they have many opportunities to meet others.
Q3) According to research cited in the textbook, what is the effect of workplace problems on dual-earner couples?
A) What happens in the workplace stays in the workplace.
B) Workplace problems are worse for men than for women.
C) Workplace problems affect health and marital satisfaction.
D) The father takes on more responsibilities while the mother re-adapts to the work world.
Q4) What are the consequences of loneliness?
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Chapter 15: Middle Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Paul is 45.He recently purchased reading glasses because he was unable to read the fine print on his medication bottle.What is most likely the cause of his visual difficulty?
A) myopia
B) cataracts
C) glaucoma
D) presbyopia
Q2) Which of the following statements best reflects sexual dysfunctions in middle-aged men?
A) They often include premature ejaculations.
B) They occur because men want sex all the time.
C) They include lack of desire, which occurs more for men than women.
D) They may make men more anxious, which can lead to a vicious cycle.
Q3) Which of the following best characterizes the climacteric?
A) It typically lasts 15 years.
B) It is the end of menopause.
C) It is a result of a decline in testosterone in men during middle adulthood.
D) It is the steep decline in hormones that occurs for women during middle adulthood.
Q4) What types of sexual dysfunctions are most common during middle adulthood?
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Middle Adulthood: Social and Emotional Development
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Q1) Which of the following has been shown by cross-cultural research on grandparenting?
A) Grandchildren spend more time with grandfathers than grandmothers.
B) Children state they value their grandfathers less than their grandmothers.
C) The sex of the grandchild typically influences which grandparent children gravitate to.
D) Grandchildren tend to be more involved with their mother's parents than their father's parents.
Q2) According to the textbook, the latest trend in Canadian divorce rates could lead us to use which of the following expressions?
A) the 7-year itch
B) the 17-year itch
C) the 27-year itch
D) the 30-year itch
Q3) What does the term "sandwich generation" refer to?
A) young adults who have left home then return to live with their parents
B) a trend that began in Sandwich, Massachusetts
C) middle-aged children who care for both their children and their aging parents
D) those struggling to identify their new roles as parents and grandparents
Q4) What are some developmental tasks of middle adulthood, according to Havighurst?
Page 19
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Chapter 17: Late Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Q1) What are the two leading causes of death for older adults?
A) cancer and heart disease
B) cancer and diabetes
C) heart disease and diabetes
D) diabetes and pneumonia
Q2) The major cause of death of Canadians age 65 and older is cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following best describes sexual relations during late adulthood?
A) They may be handicapped by myths about sexuality in older adults.
B) They are undesired by older women.
C) They are physically impossible for most adults.
D) They are actively pursued by 80% of those in late adulthood.
Q4) Today, how many North Americans are over the age of 65?
A) 1 in 100
B) 1 in 25
C) 1 in 8
D) 1 in 5
Q5) How is osteoporosis a problem for older adults?
Q6) What are the three leading causes of death in late adulthood? Page 20
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Chapter 18: Late Adulthood: Social and Emotional Development
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Q1) Which of the following has NOT been linked to church attendance by elderly African Americans?
A) greater longevity
B) avoidance of negative coping mechanism
C) greater social support
D) enhanced intimacy with their extended families
Q2) Which of the following statements best describes the occurrence of anxiety disorders in older adults?
A) They are common.
B) They are rarely paired with depression.
C) They are more common in older women than older men.
D) They are more common in older adults than younger adults.
Q3) Once widowed, most widows and widowers cope best when they withdraw from society.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Older North Americans report being much less happier than younger adults.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are anxiety disorders and how do they affect older adults?
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Chapter 19: Life's
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Q1) Which of the following was shown by a survey of physicians' views about euthanasia?
A) Few doctors support it.
B) Most doctors support it.
C) Most objected to withdrawing life support.
D) Religion often played a role in their beliefs about euthanasia.
Q2) What does the word "euthanasia" mean?
A) good care
B) the good life
C) the good death
D) pain management
Q3) What is the origin of the term "hospice"?
A) It derives from the term "hospitality."
B) It means the same as hospital.
C) It relates to the Latin for death.
D) It derives from the Greek medical term for "healing."
Q4) Hospice care focuses on the quality of life, NOT the quantity of life available to a dying person.
A)True
B)False
Page 23
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