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Lifespan Development is a comprehensive course that explores the physical, cognitive, emotional, and social changes that occur from conception through old age. Through an examination of major developmental theories and current research, students gain a deeper understanding of the milestones and transitions that characterize each stage of life. Topics include prenatal development, infancy, childhood, adolescence, adulthood, and aging, with a focus on the interplay between biological, psychological, and environmental factors. The course encourages critical thinking about how culture, family, and individual differences shape development across the human lifespan.
Recommended Textbook Infants Children and Adolescents and MyVirtualChild 7th Edition by Laura E. Berk
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Q1) A classroom environment based on Piaget's theory of cognitive development would likely emphasize
A) joint problem solving with older children or adults.
B) reinforcing children with tokens they could exchange for treats.
C) formal mathematics and language drills.
D) discovery learning and direct contact with the environment.
Answer: D
Q2) Because participants are measured only once in the cross-sectional design, researchers need not be concerned about difficulties like _____________ and
A) cohort effects; practice effects
B) selective attrition; cohort effects
C) cohort effects; biased sampling
D) participant dropout; practice effects
Answer: D
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Q1) Define and provide an example of niche-picking.
Answer: Niche-picking is the tendency to actively choose environments that complement our heredity. It is an example of active genetic-environmental correlation. As children extend their experiences beyond the immediate family and are given the freedom to make more choices, they actively seek environments that fit with their genetic tendencies. For example, a well-coordinated, muscular child joins an after-school sports team. Infants and young children cannot do much niche-picking because adults select environments for them. In contrast, older children and adolescents are much more in charge of their environments.
Q2) Genomic imprinting
A) can be triggered by smoking or exposure to environmental pollutants, such as mercury or lead.
B) occurs when alleles are chemically marked in such a way that one pair member is activated, regardless of its makeup.
C) is more likely to affect males because their sex chromosomes do not match.
D) is always permanent, cannot be erased in the next generation, and occurs in all offspring if it occurs in one.
Answer: B
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Q1) Kelly, a pregnant 30-year-old, has contracted the most common parasitic infection. Kelly has
A) rubella.
B) toxoplasmosis.
C) cytomegalovirus.
D) herpes simplex 2.
Answer: B
Q2) The average number of children per couple in North America today is
A) 3.1.
B) 2.7.
C) 2.2.
D) 1.8.
Answer: D
Q3) During the final months of pregnancy, the fetus
A) gains more than 5 pounds and grows 7 inches.
B) spends the majority of the day awake.
C) assumes a right-side-up position.
D) gains less than 2 pounds and grows less than 3 inches.
Answer: A
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Q1) Young infants most often cry because they are
A) cold.
B) scared.
C) in pain.
D) hungry.
Q2) Pediatricians usually test newborn reflexes carefully because reflexes can reveal
A) ineffective parenting.
B) the baby's temperament.
C) a compromised circulatory system.
D) the health of the baby's nervous system.
Q3) Travis is born three days after his due date and weighs five pounds. Travis is a(n) ________ infant.
A) preterm
B) small-for-date
C) average-weight
D) anoxic
Q4) Discuss the use of epidural analgesia to control pain during labor, noting the pros and cons of its use.
Q5) What is "kangaroo care"? When and how is it used? What are its benefits?
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Q1) Baby Paul's mother strokes his hair just before he eats. Now when Paul's mother strokes his hair, Paul begins to suck. The stroking is the __________, and the taste of milk is the _____________.
A) conditioned stimulus; neutral stimulus
B) unconditioned stimulus; conditioned stimulus
C) neutral stimulus; unconditioned stimulus
D) neutral stimulus; conditioned response
Q2) Alexia was born with cataracts in both eyes. What can you tell her parents about when she should have corrective surgery?
A) Alexia should wait to have corrective surgery until adulthood when her eyes are fully mature.
B) Alexia should not have corrective surgery during the first six months of life because her vision would be severely and permanently impaired.
C) The longer cataract surgery is postponed beyond infancy, the less complete Alexia's recovery in visual skills.
D) Alexia should wait until later in childhood to have corrective surgery because there are no sensitive periods in visual development.
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Q1) In the information-processing system, the central executive A) is the conscious, reflective part of the mental system.
B) collaborates with long-term memory to direct problem solving and reasoning. C) is where sights and sounds are represented directly and stored briefly. D) is a special part of the long-term memory that manages complex activities.
Q2) Identify Piaget's substages of sensorimotor development, including the adaptive behaviors associated with each substage.
Q3) In Piaget's theory, during _________, toddlers use their current schemes to interpret the external world.
A) equilibrium
B) assimilation
C) accommodation
D) organization
Q4) ___________ enable(s) older toddlers to solve advanced object permanence problems involving invisible displacement.
A) Imitation
B) Reflexive schemes
C) Mental representation
D) Realistic props

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Q1) Describe how living in a family with siblings might have an influence on a child's temperament.
Q2) Troy, age 3, understands that his father goes to work in the morning and picks Troy up from his babysitter's house after naptime. Troy seeks his father's comfort during times of stress. These examples show that Troy has developed
A) effortful control.
B) an internal working model.
C) interactional synchrony.
D) a categorical self.
Q3) Brendon reacts negatively to and withdraws from novel stimuli. He could be classified as a(n) ______ child.
A) sociable
B) shy
C) easy
D) uninhibited
Q4) Using Thomas and Chess's model of temperament, identify and describe the three categories of children. Do all children fit into one of these categories? Explain.
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Q1) Children should be in a properly installed car safety seat up to age ____ or until the child is 4 feet 9 inches tall.
A) 4
B) 6
C) 8
D) 10
Q2) During early childhood,
A) preschoolers show declines in sustained attention.
B) the number of synapses in the prefrontal cortex is nearly double the adult value.
C) energy metabolism in the cerebral cortex is at an all-time low.
D) synaptic pruning decreases.
Q3) Research on lead exposure during childhood reveals that
A) middle-SES children are the most likely group to experience lead exposure.
B) use of iron supplements increases lead concentration in the blood.
C) exposed children absorb more lead when their diets contain zinc.
D) a stressed, disorganized home life can heighten lead-induced damage.
Q4) Describe the development of drawing in children in Western nations.
Q5) Describe strategies for preventing early otitis media.
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Q1) Between ages 2 and 3, English-speaking children use simple sentences that follow a(n) __________ word order.
A) verb-subject-object
B) subject-verb-object
C) object-verb-subject
D) verb-object-subject
Q2) Young children learning Chinese, Japanese, and Korean acquire ______ more readily than their English-speaking agemates.
A) proper nouns
B) verbs
C) object nouns
D) modifiers
Q3) According to research, preschoolers' poor performance on appearance versus reality tasks occurs because they
A) have an immature cerebral cortex.
B) have trouble with the language of these tasks.
C) are involved frequently in fantasy and pretend play.
D) have a general difficulty in distinguishing appearance from reality.
Q4) Explain how adults can foster preschoolers' language development.
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Q1) For Erikson, the negative outcome of early childhood is an overly A) strict superego.
B) lenient id.
C) strict ego.
D) lenient ego.
Q2) When Roger sees a baby doll on the floor, he asks himself, "Do boys play with dolls?" He then decides not to play with the doll. Roger
A) is a gender-schematic child.
B) does not yet have well-developed gender schemas.
C) is a gender-aschematic child.
D) is not using his gender-salience filter.
Q3) Inductive discipline
A) promotes only momentary compliance, not lasting changes in behavior.
B) teaches children to expect rewards for good behavior.
C) helps children see how their actions affect others.
D) often leads to high levels of self-blame among children.
Q4) Amelia, age 4, has an intense fear of the dark. Her parents question her and determine that Amelia is very afraid of monsters and ghosts. What advice can you give Amelia's parents to help her manage her fears?
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Q1) Which of the following is true about physical activity in U.S. schools?
A) About 45 percent of elementary and middle schools provide students with physical education at least three days a week.
B) Only about 3 percent of high schools provide students with physical education at least three days a week.
C) Elementary schools have increased recess time due to its contribution in all domains of development.
D) Physical inactivity among U.S. school children is rare.
Q2) Between the ages of 6 and 12, ___ primary teeth are lost and replaced by permanent teeth.
A) 14
B) 16
C) 20
D) 24
Q3) At age 6, the average North American child weighs about ______ pounds.
A) 40
B) 45
C) 50
D) 55
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Q1) When studying for her spelling test, Matilda repeats the proper spelling to herself multiple times. What memory strategy is she using?
A) organization
B) rehearsal
C) elaboration
D) chunking
Q2) _________ is a person's set of beliefs about mental activities.
A) Rote memorization
B) Conceptual organization
C) Elaboration
D) Theory of mind
Q3) Miguel is bilingual. He sometimes speaks sentences in English that contain one or more Spanish words without violating the grammar of either language. Miguel engages in
A) topic-focused style.
B) classic form.
C) topic-associating style.
D) code switching.
Q4) Define emotional intelligence. How is it assessed? How can teachers promote it?
Q5) Describe Robert Sternberg's triarchic theory of intelligence.
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Q1) Teachers who emphasize learning over getting good grades tend to have
A) average to below-average achieving students.
B) more learned-helpless students.
C) mastery-oriented students.
D) students who have low motivation and achievement.
Q2) Nikki and Alex are divorcing. The court grants both of them an equal say in important decisions about their children's upbringing. This arrangement is known as
A) coparenting.
B) shared custody.
C) custodial mediation.
D) joint custody.
Q3) Which of the following children is most likely to compare herself to just one other person and use that information as a basis for self-evaluation?
A) Jessica, age 5
B) Estelle, age 7
C) Mariah, age 9
D) Shelly, age 11
Q4) Describe some of the consequences of child sexual abuse from early childhood to adulthood.
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Q1) Haeata lives in a tribal society and just experienced menarche. Which of the following is probably true?
A) Haeata will feel ashamed and will not tell anyone about the onset of puberty.
B) Haeata will still be regarded as a child by her parents and family.
C) The tribe will celebrate the onset of puberty with an initiation ceremony.
D) The tribe will acknowledge the onset of puberty, but it will not mark a change in Haeata's social status.
Q2) Janelle, a teenager, is chronically tired, but she appears to be growing normally. She should have a medical checkup because she might be suffering from A) anemia.
B) obesity.
C) diabetes.
D) anorexia nervosa.
Q3) Out of all age groups, adolescents have the highest rate of A) criminal behavior.
B) sexually transmitted diseases.
C) asthma and severe seasonal allergies.
D) sexual experimentation.
Q4) Describe the secular trend in pubertal timing in industrialized nations.
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Q1) Which of the following is a critical factor in eliminating gender differences in math and science?
A) finding a way to reduce genetic differences between the genders
B) creating all-girl science classes so that they will not be compared to boys
C) decreasing the amount of emphasis for boys to excel at math and science
D) promoting girls' interest and confidence in math and science
Q2) Recent reports indicate that over _____percent of students in some inner-city high schools do not graduate.
A) 30
B) 40
C) 50
D) 60
Q3) High school work-study programs are related to
A) positive school and work attitudes.
B) good teacher and peer relations.
C) poor achievement.
D) high dropout rates among low-income youths.
Q4) Compared to school-age children, adolescents show improved ability to think scientifically. What factors contribute to this improvement?
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Q1) Which adolescents are at greatest risk for becoming delinquent? What are some suggestions for prevention of delinquency?
Q2) The suicide rate
A) is highest during the adolescent years.
B) increases over the lifespan but jumps sharply at adolescence. C) remains steady over the lifespan.
D) declines slightly in adolescence.
Q3) In industrialized nations, depression
A) occurs at the same rate in adolescence as it did in middle childhood.
B) symptoms increase sharply between the ages of 12 and 16.
C) occurs equally as often in girls as in boys.
D) does not seem to affect identity development.
Q4) Delinquency usually ________ over adolescence and then ________.
A) declines; rises B) rises; rises further C) declines; declines further D) rises; declines
Q5) What types of moral dilemmas do people face in real life, and how do they resolve them? How does this compare to their approach to hypothetical problems like Kohlberg's Heinz dilemma?
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Q1) Which of the following is true about emerging adulthood?
A) It is primarily found in low-SES ethnic minority groups.
B) Emerging adults are actually adolescents who take on adult responsibilities.
C) Most parents of emerging adults view their children as not yet fully adult.
D) Adult milestones are highly consistent in time and order across individuals.
Q2) Matthew comes from a low-SES American family. He dropped out of high school and, at age 19, is unemployed. Matthew will probably
A) encounter a "floundering period."
B) experience an extended period of emerging adulthood.
C) experience excitement during the transition to adulthood.
D) experience a wide array of personal expansion.
Q3) Andrew is an emerging adult. He is likely to say that ________ is essential for him to attain adult status.
A) getting married
B) settling into a career
C) finishing his education
D) constructing a worldview
Q4) Explain how young people find lasting intimate relationships. How does partner similarity contribute to long-term relationships?
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