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Lifespan Development Final Exam Questions - 3773 Verified Questions

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Lifespan Development Final Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Lifespan Development explores the physical, cognitive, emotional, and social changes that occur from conception through old age. This course examines major theories and research findings in developmental psychology, highlighting the complex interplay between genetics, environment, culture, and individual choices throughout different life stages. Students will analyze developmental milestones, challenges, and transitions, gaining a comprehensive understanding of how people grow and adapt over time. Emphasis is placed on critical thinking and applying developmental concepts to real-life scenarios and diverse populations.

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HDEV 2nd Canadian Edition by Spencer Rathus

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19 Chapters

3773 Verified Questions

3773 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: History, Theories, and Methods

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213 Verified Questions

213 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following researchers has NOT been in some way connected to the field or concepts incorporated in ethology?

A) Lorenz

B) Bronfenbrenner

C) Tinbergen

D) Darwin

Answer: B

Q2) According to Freud's theory, what behaviour can result from becoming fixated during the anal stage of development?

A) being overly dependent

B) being untidy and careless

C) being shy and overcautious

D) being very gullible (easily fooled)

Answer: B

Q3) Erikson's psychosocial theory emphasizes the responsibility of the ego.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 2: Heredity and Prenatal Development

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225 Verified Questions

225 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the general finding of studies on monozygotic twins reared in separate environments?

A) They are identical in genetics, behaviours, and preferences.

B) They are less alike, genetically, than dizygotic twins reared together.

C) They are no more alike in genetics, behaviours, and preferences than non-twin siblings.

D) They share the same degree of genetic similarity as monozygotic twins reared together.

Answer: D

Q2) During the ninth month of pregnancy, the fetus becomes more active, getting ready for the birth process.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q3) Since fetuses take what they need from the mothers, few babies are born malnourished.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Birth and the Newborn Baby: in the New World

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213 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The likelihood of sudden infant death syndrome is associated with the gender and age of the infant and exposure to cigarette smoke prenatally and after birth.What term refers to these influences?

A) risk factors

B) causes

C) associated variables

D) correlations

Answer: A

Q2) According to research, what is the most appropriate way to handle preterm babies?

A) Current thinking is to handle them as little as possible.

B) They should NOT be handled for the first two weeks of life.

C) Research now shows that preterm infants benefit from stimulation such as cuddling and rocking.

D) Research now shows that how preterm babies are handled does NOT affect their development.

Answer: C

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Chapter 4: Infancy: Physical Development

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195 Verified Questions

195 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The human's inborn sensory capacities have NOT been proven to play a crucial role in perceptual development.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Crawling is an important developmental milestone.

A)True

B)False

Q3) At the beginning of the fetal stage, what is the relationship between the size of the head and the length of the body?

A) The head is about 20% the length of the body.

B) The head is about 40% the length of the body.

C) The head is about 50% the length of the body.

D) The head is about 70% the length of the body.

Q4) Only nature has an effect on brain development.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Infants as young as 1 month of age can coordinate information from more than one sense.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 5: Infancy: Cognitive Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) To the delight of her parents, 20-month-old Maya just exclaimed "Daddy go." What does this utterance represent?

A) an MLU

B) a morpheme

C) a holophrase

D) telegraphic speech

Q2) Which of the following children is coordinating secondary schemes?

A) Martha is coordinating primary circular reactions.

B) Geoff is engaging in most repetitions of behaviours by accident.

C) Alyssa can differentiate between how to achieve a goal and the goal itself.

D) Johnny engages in deliberate trial-and-error actions to learn how things work.

Q3) Newborns' ability to imitate others may have a survival function.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Babbling is the first communicative sound an infant makes.

A)True

B)False

Q5) What is object permanence and how is it tested?

Q6) How do secondary and tertiary circular reactions differ?

Page 7

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Chapter 6: Infancy: Social and Emotional Development

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189 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) How would Mary Ainsworth, a preeminent researcher, most likely describe attachment?

A) an enduring emotional bond between one animal or person and another

B) childhood behaviour, such as crying, that stimulates caregiving from adults

C) a psychosexual developmental event that occurs as a result of pathological needs

D) a learned behaviour resulting from reinforcements and punishments by the parents

Q2) Emotions are related to psychological, NOT physical, events.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Children placed in day care are more aggressive than children who are cared for in the home.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Of the substantiated cases of child abuse in Canada, approximately 35% involved neglect.

A)True

B)False

Q5) How is the Strange Situation used to assess attachment patterns?

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Chapter 7: Early Childhood: Physical and Cognitive Development

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217 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Brian and Joseph are chasing each other around the park and wrestling in the grass.What term describes this form of play?

A) aggressive play

B) cooperative play

C) large-muscle skill play

D) rough-and-tumble play

Q2) Children who use "motherese" to talk with younger children are showing signs of pragmatics.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following best describes automobile accidents involving children?

A) They are the leading cause of death for Canadian children.

B) They have declined significantly in Canada over the past decade.

C) They are the third leading cause of death for Canadian children.

D) They occur more often among children from higher economic status families.

Q4) What is the best way to present information to the left hemisphere of the brain?

A) organized visually

B) with emotion and passion

C) in a logical fashion

D) as imaginatively as possible

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Chapter 8: Early Childhood: Social and Emotional Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) Media violence and aggressive video games increase viewers' level of arousal. A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following responses is NOT characteristic of siblings after the birth of a new sibling?

A) They may react with increased independence.

B) They may react with increased anger.

C) They may have increased toilet accidents.

D) They may begin to stutter.

Q3) Which parents are most likely to raise a child who develops in a socially and emotionally healthy manner?

A) permissive parents

B) restrictive parents

C) warm parents

D) controlling but warn parents

Q4) What are the two dimensions of child rearing? How are they combined in the four parenting styles?

Q5) Birth order is unrelated to school performance and personality characteristics. A)True B)False

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Chapter 9: Middle Childhood: Physical and Cognitive Development

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214 Verified Questions

214 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following best represents Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences?

A) Intelligence is gained entirely through experience.

B) People who are intelligent in one area will be intelligent in other areas.

C) People who are intelligent in one area may be less intelligent in other areas.

D) Intelligence can be measured only by traditional IQ tests, such as the Binet-Simon.

Q2) Nathan had an assessment based on Sternberg's Theory of Intelligence framework.How many areas of Nathan's intelligence were tested?

A) 3

B) 5

C) 8

D) 10

Q3) Intelligence is considered one's underlying ability, whereas achievement is one's performance.

A)True

B)False

Q4) How do sensory, short-term, and long-term memories differ?

Q5) What are the patterns of obesity during middle childhood?

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Chapter 10: Middle Childhood: Social and Emotional Development

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183 Verified Questions

183 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the origin of conduct disorders?

A) They are entirely learned.

B) They are entirely genetic.

C) They are associated with inconsistent discipline and antisocial family members.

D) They are found predominantly in ethnic minorities.

Q2) According to Selman, during one stage of friendship, the focus is on the relationship rather than on the individuals separately.Friendship is viewed as providing mutual support over a long period of time.What is the name of this type of friendship?

A) fair-weather cooperation

B) intimate and mutual sharing

C) autonomous interdependence

D) momentary physical interaction

Q3) Girls tend to have more positive self-concepts than boys regarding reading, general academics, and helping others.

A)True

B)False

Q4) How are children affected by their parents' divorce?

Q5) How does self-esteem change during middle childhood?

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Chapter 11: Adolescence: Physical and Cognitive Development

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209 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Chris has matured early.Other youth gather around and admire Chris.Which of the following can we guess about Chris?

A) Chris is most likely male.

B) Chris is most likely female.

C) Chris must live in a country other than Canada.

D) Chris must have experienced a great deal of childhood stress.

Q2) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of early maturing girls?

A) They exhibit a heightened increase in concern over their body shape.

B) They have lower levels of depression than later-maturing girls.

C) They are less likely to engage in sexual activity than later-maturing girls.

D) They have higher self-esteem than later-maturing girls.

Q3) Most teenagers in Canada do NOT get enough vitamins and minerals in their diets.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Chronic illnesses are experienced by more than half of the adolescents in Canada today.

A)True

B)False

Q6) What are the sex differences in cognitive abilities in adolescence? Page 13

Q5) What are the characteristics of moral development in adolescence?

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Page 14

Chapter 12: Adolescence: Social and Emotional Development

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178 Verified Questions

178 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements best describes adolescents' relationships with their parents?

A) Adolescents begin to interact more with their fathers than their mothers.

B) Conflicts between adolescents and parents increase in number and in severity.

C) Most adolescents feel close to their parents and value this relationship.

D) Adolescents avoid contact with their parent, but do NOT feel they have conflict.

Q2) How do friendships change during adolescence?

Q3) Teen pregnancy prevention programs that provide information about sexuality lead to a greater likelihood of teens having sex than pregnancy prevention programs that discuss only abstinence.

A)True

B)False

Q4) According to a Canadian survey, 15% of Canadian-born teens disapproved of having children outside of marriage.What percentage of immigrant teens also disapproved?

A) 10 to 20%

B) 25 to 35%

C) 40 to 50%

D) 65 to 75%

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Chapter 13: Early Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development

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202 Verified Questions

202 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following best represents the research findings on how sexual orientation is determined?

A) Genetic factors may be involved in determining one's sexual orientation.

B) Environment typically affects one's sexual orientation.

C) Although sex hormones determine when one will have sex, they are unrelated to with whom one will have sex.

D) A combination of cultural attitudes and parenting determine one's sexual orientation.

Q2) Which of the following best describes premenstrual symptoms?

A) They are rarely severe.

B) They can be severe.

C) They may impair social, academic, or occupational functioning.

D) They are unrelated to fluctuations in hormones or neurotransmitters.

Q3) In order for stalking to be defined in Canada, it must include being followed, receiving threatening or unwanted communications, and being spied on, in addition to some form of physical threat.

A)True

B)False

Q4) How does cognition develop during early adulthood?

Page 16

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Chapter 14: Early Adulthood: Social and Emotional Development

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206 Verified Questions

206 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following best characterizes couples who cohabit?

A) They rarely divorce.

B) They may consider cohabiting as a trial marriage.

C) They do so primarily to save money.

D) They tend NOT to marry those they cohabited with.

Q2) What hormone shapes the female face?

A) progesterone

B) pheromones

C) estrogen

D) testosterone

Q3) According to Sternberg's model, what is the relationship between friendship and passionate love?

A) They cannot both stay alive because they are on opposite sides of the love continuum.

B) They are necessary for a romantic relationship to occur.

C) They do NOT necessarily overlap, but may co-exist when lovers become best friends.

D) They can only stay alive when consummate love has existed.

Q4) What factors explain the trend of more singles during early adulthood?

Q5) Why do people get married?

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Chapter 15: Middle Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development

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190 Verified Questions

190 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements best describes what is known about cancer in middle adulthood?

A) It is rarely preventable.

B) It can often be controlled or cured.

C) African Canadian women have a higher rate of cervical cancer than any other demographic group.

D) Asian Canadians have twice the average death rate from prostate cancer.

Q2) Lung tissue stiffens with age, diminishing capacity to expand, such that breathing capacity may decline by half between early and late adulthood.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The climacteric involves the steady decline in the reproductive capability of women.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Hormone replacement therapy has been controversial, with some women benefitting from it and others being harmed by it.

A)True

B)False

Page 18

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Chapter 16: Middle Adulthood: Social and Emotional Development

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184 Verified Questions

184 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to Erikson (1980), what is psychosocial generativity based on?

A) the need for appreciation from peers

B) an instinctual drive toward procreativity, bearing and rearing children

C) a learned behaviour, causing people to behave in socially acceptable ways

D) cognitive processes whereby people can think hypothetically about their futures

Q2) In a study of 2,000 college employees, blue-collar employees reported greater levels of job satisfaction compared to others in the study.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following best characterizes the effect of stressful life events?

A) They may alter cognitive abilities.

B) They have little effect on physical health.

C) They have little effect on psychological health.

D) They are important to keep people mentally alert.

Q4) Despite grandchildren's greater involvement with their grandmothers, grandchildren say they value their grandfathers just as highly.

A)True

B)False

Page 19

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Chapter 17: Late Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development

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198 Verified Questions

198 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following best represents the research findings on memory during late adulthood?

A) Older adults tend to do significantly poorer than younger adults in tasks that assess implicit memory.

B) The temporal memories of older adults remain unchanged with age.

C) The temporal memory of older adults may become confused.

D) Older adults tend to do as well as if not better than younger adults in tasks that assess explicit memory.

Q2) Which of the following may be linked to sleep problems in late adulthood?

A) a history of sexual dysfunction

B) dementia

C) misuse of prescription drugs

D) a history of cardiovascular problems

Q3) Age-related changes in sexuality tend to occur more gradually in women than in men and are NOT clearly connected with any one biological event

A)True

B)False

Q4) What is Alzheimer's disease? How does it appear in a person's life? Explain your answer.

20

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Chapter 18: Late Adulthood: Social and Emotional Development

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188 Verified Questions

188 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following women is most likely to remain in her own home?

A) Betty, who is 85 and rents her home

B) Lisa, who is 72 and has recently lost her husband and sister

C) Fatima, who is 70 and knows few people in her neighbourhood

D) Maria, who is 75 and has had her mortgage paid off for 20 years

Q2) How does self-esteem change during adulthood? Why might it be lower during late adulthood compared with earlier in life?

Q3) Robins and colleagues (2002) conducted a massive study of self-esteem.Which of the following statements best represents their findings?

A) Females have higher self-esteem than males.

B) Self-esteem is highest in late adulthood.

C) Older adults are very unsatisfied with themselves.

D) Self-esteem declined most significantly between the age of 70 and 85.

Q4) Which of the following best characterizes the nature of marriage during late adulthood?

A) Intimacy is NO longer an important issue.

B) The partners typically spend more time together.

C) There are more frequent squabbles over finances and parenting.

D) The relationship requires constant negotiation about the division of labour.

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Chapter 19: Life's

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186 Verified Questions

186 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Robert Latimer is the father who, in 1993, took the life of his son, who had been living with severe disabilities.

A)True

B)False

Q2) What is the best way to help a child cope with the death of a loved one?

A) Hide the death of the loved one.

B) Let the child express his or her feelings.

C) Expect the child to cut ties with the dead person.

D) Ignore any changes in the child's sleeping or eating patterns because these problems will pass.

Q3) When the brain stem and cerebral cortex show flat EEG lines, the person is considered to have had "whole-brain death."

A)True

B)False

Q4) Children should be made to attend the funeral of a loved one because it will help them to accept the death and recover faster.

A)True

B)False

Q5) What are the best ways to help a dying person?

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