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Lifespan Development Final Exam Questions - 3773 Verified Questions

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Lifespan Development Final Exam

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Course Introduction

Lifespan Development explores the physical, cognitive, emotional, and social changes that occur throughout the human lifespan, from conception to old age. This course examines major theories and scientific research on development, considering how genetics, environment, culture, and personal experiences interact to shape individual growth. Key topics include prenatal development, childhood and adolescence, adulthood, aging, and the challenges and transitions faced at each stage of life. By understanding the principles of development, students gain insights into human behavior and the diverse factors influencing it over time.

Recommended Textbook

HDEV 2nd Canadian Edition by Spencer Rathus

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19 Chapters

3773 Verified Questions

3773 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: History, Theories, and Methods

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213 Verified Questions

213 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe how adaptation is used to further development, according to Piaget's cognitive-developmental theory.

Answer: Adaptation is a biological necessity that people have to respond to changes in their environment, using the processes of assimilation and accommodation. Infants are born with basic schemes, which they use to understand their environments, through the process of assimilation. When the schemas are no longer able to work with new information, the schemas are changed through the process of accommodation. Through a series of disequilibrium and equilibrium states, cognitive processes are altered to fit the needs of the environment and the individual. The individual manipulates the environment like a scientist, by testing hypotheses and reaching higher levels of cognitive abilities in a series of stages from sensorimotor to preoperational, concrete operational, and finally formal operational thought.

Q2) Gender is NOT considered an aspect of diversity.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Chapter 2: Heredity and Prenatal Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) Queen Victoria was a carrier of which of the following?

A) myopia

B) red-green colour blindness

C) phenylketonuria

D) hemophilia

Answer: D

Q2) Parents' ages have no bearing on the outcome of a pregnancy.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q3) Which of the following is a defining characteristic of monozygotic twins?

A) They share 50% of their genetic material.

B) They are as different as non-twin siblings.

C) They will look very similar in physical appearance.

D) They are formed from two eggs but are fertilized by the same sperm.

Answer: C

Q4) Nearly one-third of all pregnancies result in miscarriage.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Page 4

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Chapter 3: Birth and the Newborn Baby: in the New World

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213 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Parents of preterm infants generally show them increased care and affection in comparison with parents of full-term infants.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q2) Newborns' sense of touch is important for developing attachment.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q3) More infants die from AIDS than from SIDS.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q4) According to the Ottawa Hospital Research Institute, an episiotomy can speed the mother's recovery after childbirth.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Infancy: Physical Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) Infants prefer to look at human faces over other visual arrays.

A)True

B)False

Q2) When does a child have the most dramatic gains in height and weight?

A) during prenatal development

B) during the first year following birth

C) during adolescence, when primary growth takes place

D) growth is always steady, levelling out after adolescence

Q3) Infants need more iron in their diet than adults.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Children become more passive in response to their environments as they age.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Which sequence of development means "from the centre outward"?

A) integration

B) differentiation

C) proximodistal development

D) cephalocaudal development

Q6) Briefly describe how the parts of a neuron function.

Page 6

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Chapter 5: Infancy: Cognitive Development

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192 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the definition of a holophrase?

A) the first inclusive sentence that a child utters

B) a single word utterance that expresses a complex meaning

C) a first word from the infant accompanied by physical gestures

D) a double-word utterance that a child speaks at approximately 14 months of age

Q2) What is a receptive vocabulary?

A) all words the child comprehend

B) all words the child can articulate

C) the replication of syllables the child has heard

D) the words the child has heard, but does NOT yet comprehend

Q3) A child says "Off the ride I want," "can't you had remembered," and "keepers losers!"

What type of errors do these statements illustrate?

A) morphology

B) shaping

C) syntax

D) grammatical construction

Q4) There is no evidence of a sensitive period for language development.

A)True

B)False

Q5) What is object permanence and how is it tested?

Page 7

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Chapter 6: Infancy: Social and Emotional Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is suggested by the infant attachment research of Harry and Margaret Harlow (1966)?

A) Attachment is driven by the need for trust.

B) The basis of attachment is the food supplied by the mother.

C) Infants become attached because it helps them to form their identity.

D) Contact reassurance may be as important a basic need as the need for food.

Q2) Autistic children rarely abuse themselves.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following best defines emotional regulation?

A) the overcoming of stranger anxiety

B) the ways in which young children control their emotions

C) a parent's attempt to reduce negative emotionality in a child

D) an infant's attempt to be aware of the range of emotions she feels

Q4) How is goodness of fit important in determining the outcome of a child's temperament?

Q5) Children with day-care experience are less likely to share their toys.

A)True

B)False

Q6) How is the Strange Situation used to assess attachment patterns?

Page 8

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Chapter 7: Early Childhood: Physical and Cognitive Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) Children who use "motherese" to talk with younger children are showing signs of pragmatics.

A)True

B)False

Q2) How do the motor skills of boys and girls skills compare in early childhood?

A) Girls are better at tasks requiring gross motor skills.

B) Motor skills are very similar between boys and girls.

C) Boys are better at tasks requiring precise movements.

D) Huge differences exist between boys' and girls' motor skills.

Q3) Children become more active as they get older.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The grammar explosion is evident when children move from telegraphic speech to speech that includes filler words such as a, an, she, and him.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Preschoolers show better memory for toys they are interested in.

A)True

B)False

Q6) Briefly describe The Aboriginal Head Start on Reserve program. Page 9

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Page 10

Chapter 8: Early Childhood: Social and Emotional Development

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191 Verified Questions

191 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A Canadian organization called The Canadian Toy Association publishes a "hot toy list" each year.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Watching aggressive media causes aggressive behaviour in children.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Describe the kinds of play identified by Jean Piaget.

Q4) Girls show more empathy than boys.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Children learn to label the sexes as either "boy" or "girl" by age 2 to 2ยน/ .

A)True

B)False

Q6) Joey is striving on his own to learn a new skill.According to Erikson, what stage is Joey in?

A) He is in the trust versus guilt stage.

B) He is in the initiative versus guilt stage.

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C) He is in the trust versus initiative stage.

D) He is in the industry versus initiative stage.

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Chapter 9: Middle Childhood: Physical and Cognitive Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) Kohlberg believed that, around the world, children's moral reasoning undergoes the same cognitive developmental pattern.Which of the following statements best characterizes this pattern?

A) It is typically complete by age 12.

B) It develops continuously, rather than in a stage-like manner.

C) It is unrelated to children's ability to take the perspective of another.

D) It reflects the values of the social and cultural setting in which the child is reared.

Q2) What ability is referred to by the cognitive development term decentration?

A) the ability to subtract numbers

B) the ability to enhance the child's egocentrism

C) the ability to focus simultaneously on multiple aspects of a problem

D) the ability to understand that changes in how something looks do NOT change its meaning

Q3) According to genetic research on ADHD, what chemical shows a relationship to ADHD?

A) benzoate

B) serotonin

C) dopamine

D) testosterone

Page 13

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Chapter 10: Middle Childhood: Social and Emotional Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe the effects of schools on child development.

Q2) Children in middle childhood respond best to teaching that is direct, such as lecturing.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following statements does NOT explain why peers are important?

A) They help to socialize children.

B) They are from a different generation and perspective than parents.

C) They have different skills and competencies than parents.

D) They support their friends because self imposed parent-differentiation begins.

Q4) Even when girls are performing as well as boys in math and science, they often have less confidence in their ability.

A)True

B)False

Q5) In middle childhood, peers are rated as a child's best source of emotional support.

A)True

B)False

Q6) Describe peer relationships during the middle childhood years.

Page 14

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Chapter 11: Adolescence: Physical and Cognitive Development

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209 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to Kohlberg, what has the strongest influence on moral development?

A) age

B) social development

C) cognitive development

D) emotional development

Q2) Early maturing boys tend to be more popular than later-maturing boys.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following best characterizes boys who mature early?

A) They experience only positive implications of early maturation.

B) They are more likely to be aggressive and delinquent.

C) They tend NOT to be as bright as later-maturing boys.

D) They tend to be less popular with their peers but more valued by adults.

Q4) What stops the female growth spurt during adolescence?

A) estrogen

B) testosterone

C) the onset of menstruation

D) completion of breast development

Page 15

Q5) Describe G.Stanley Hall's views of adolescent development?

Q6) What is school like for the adolescent?

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Page 16

Chapter 12: Adolescence: Social and Emotional Development

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178 Verified Questions

178 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Isaac is an adolescent who often feels a need to separate, or distant himself, from his parents.Which of the following best explains Isaac's need?

A) It may be adaptive.

B) He may be emotionally detaching from his parents.

C) He may be feeling more self-confident.

D) He may lack respect for his parents.

Q2) According to your textbook, at what age are adolescents most likely to mention trust, love, and commitment when describing their romantic relationships?

A) age 15

B) age 16

C) age 17

D) age 18

Q3) Explain why an adolescent might attempt suicide.Do ethnic and gender differences play a role? If so, which ethnic and gender differences are involved?

Q4) Erikson's psychosocial conflict during adolescent is intimacy vs.isolation.

A)True

B)False

Q5) How does self-esteem change during adolescence?

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Chapter 13: Early Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development

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202 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Piaget proposed a fifth stage of development, the post-formal operational stage.

A)True

B)False

Q2) When surveyed, what did Canadians identify as the two areas of their lives that were most negatively affected by stress?

A) sleep quality, then personal health

B) personal health, then quality of work,

C) sleep quality, then home or family life

D) home or family life, then personal health

Q3) Which of the following best characterizes cognitive-affective complexity?

A) It is a sign of adolescent thinking.

B) It is a result of having a mental illness.

C) It is a result of attending college or university.

D) It enables both positive and negative feelings about one's career choices.

Q4) Psychological factors, such as observational learning, stress, and emotional states, contribute to obesity, in addition to genetic factors.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Briefly describe the stages in Super's theory of career development?

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Chapter 14: Early Adulthood: Social and Emotional Development

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206 Verified Questions

206 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to Sternberg's triangular theory of love, in companionate love, intimacy and commitment are strong, but passion is lacking.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following best characterizes romantic love?

A) It has existed only for the last century.

B) It is the same as sexual attraction.

C) It is a simple concept.

D) It can begin when we hear our first fairy tale.

Q3) Which of the following statements best characterizes the separation of young adults from the family home?

A) It should occur around the age 18.

B) It is more worrying when a male child leaves.

C) It can be damaging to the parent-child relationship.

D) It occurs at diverse times and under different conditions for many.

Q4) Susan is married to a man who has multiple wives.His marital situation is best described by the term cohabitor.

A)True

B)False

Page 19

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Chapter 15: Middle Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development

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190 Verified Questions

190 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) How is body mass index (BMI) affected by aging?

A) BMI decreases with age.

B) BMI remains stable over time.

C) BMI changes due to loss of fat cells.

D) BMI changes due to loss of muscle mass.

Q2) What is Viagra?

A) a medication for treating sexual dysfunctions in men

B) a medication for treating colon cancer in women

C) a medication for treating cardiovascular disease that contributes to premature ejaculations

D) an immunological disorder experienced mostly by middle-aged men

Q3) Martha finds that as she gets ages, she can still recall most of her medical training, but she cannot recall the Italian she learned when she was a student.Which of the following is illustrated by Martha's cognitive development?

A) plasticity

B) reaction speed

C) interindividuality

D) multidirectionality

Q4) Are Canadian adults healthier today than in the past?

Page 20

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Chapter 16: Middle Adulthood: Social and Emotional Development

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184 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following best characterizes middle-aged workers?

A) They are less fulfilled than they were as young adults.

B) They are less realistic about their careers than they were when they were younger.

C) They are less content because they realize they have NOT attained their lifelong dreams.

D) They have more expertise and higher salaries, which may lead to higher job satisfaction.

Q2) What was the research finding of an Israeli study of immigrants from Ethiopia and Eastern European countries regarding grandparents and their grandchildren?

A) Few children lived with their grandparents.

B) Grandparents had little control over their grandchildren.

C) Grandparents had a strong influence over grandchildren who were living in single-parent homes.

D) Whether children lived a single-parent or two-parent family household had no effect on the role of the grandparents.

Q3) Life events are generally negative.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 17: Late Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development

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198 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Hasher (2008) ironically suggests that distractibility in late adulthood may have benefits in terms of wisdom.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following does NOT indicate hearing loss?

A) difficulty hearing someone on the telephone

B) trouble hearing in noisy areas

C) difficulty understanding the speech of women and children

D) the onset of presbyopia

Q3) Telomeres are segments of DNA on the tips of chromosomes that signal that cell division is no longer possible once the cell divides a certain number of times.

A)True

B)False

Q4) In which of the following circumstances is the age-related decline in prospective memory the greatest?

A) when memory cues are NOT prominent and the task is unimportant

B) when memory cues are plentiful

C) when the task is critical for one's well-being

D) when interfering information overwhelms the ability to focus

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Chapter 18: Late Adulthood: Social and Emotional Development

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188 Verified Questions

188 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following best describes older adults who are dependent on others?

A) They consider their dependence to be a normal part of aging.

B) Their dependence on others becomes more common with age.

C) They tend to have higher self-esteem than those who are NOT dependent on others.

D) They are glad to depend on someone else because they took care of others when they were parents.

Q2) Toileting independently in an important issue for older adults.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Robins and colleagues (2002) conducted a massive study of self-esteem.Which of the following statements best represents their findings?

A) Females have higher self-esteem than males.

B) Self-esteem is highest in late adulthood.

C) Older adults are very unsatisfied with themselves.

D) Self-esteem declined most significantly between the age of 70 and 85.

Q4) Approximately 25% of older adults suffer from anxiety disorders.

A)True

B)False

Q5) What are anxiety disorders and how do they affect older adults?

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Chapter 19: Life's

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186 Verified Questions

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Sample

Questions

Q1) Your friend's husband has just died and they have a 6-year-old child.Everyone thinks the child is doing okay.Which of the following is NOT a danger sign that adults should be on the lookout for, so they can be in touch with a child's grief reaction?

A) loss of appetite

B) the development of excessive fears

C) wanting to go to school and be with friends

D) depressed mood for several weeks

Q2) Which of the following statements best characterizes organ donation?

A) Organ donation is rare these days.

B) Organ donation can compromise the donor's immune system.

C) Living donors can sometimes donate a kidney or a portion of their liver for transplant.

D) Organ donation poses minimal risks for the recipient who may receive one or more organs from donors.

Q3) Which of the following does NOT generally occur when someone dies?

A) The authorities are notified.

B) A doctor signs the death certificate.

C) A funeral director moves the body to the funeral home.

D) A medical examiner is called to examine the body.

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