Lifespan Development Exam Questions - 3465 Verified Questions

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Lifespan Development Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Lifespan Development explores the physical, cognitive, social, and emotional changes that occur throughout the human life cycle, from conception to old age. The course examines the major theories and research findings that inform our understanding of developmental processes, considering cultural, familial, and contextual influences. Topics include prenatal development, childhood and adolescence, adulthood and aging, as well as the key milestones and challenges associated with each stage. Students will gain insights into the factors that shape human growth and development, preparing them to apply this knowledge in various personal, academic, and professional contexts.

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Life Span Human Development 7th Edition by

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3465 Verified Questions

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Chapter 1: Understanding Life-Span Human Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) The scientific method is best characterized as A)neither a method nor an attitude.

B)a method but not an attitude .

C)an attitude but not a method.

D)both a method and an attitude.

Answer: D

Q2) In the field of developmental psychology, the main reason that the correlational method is used more often than experimental methods is because A)correlations are more effective at addressing the issue of cause.

B)of ethical concerns.

C)correlational research is significantly more scientifically rigorous.

D)of the availability of computers.

Answer: B

Q3) The larger cultural context in which development takes place is called the microsystem.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q4) The overall group from which a sample is drawn is called the _____.

Answer: population

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Chapter 2: Theories of Human Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which is a common criticism of learning approaches to human development?

A)Too little emphasis on genetic and maturational factors

B)Fail to account for the fact that experiences appear to affect behavior

C)Too much emphasis on unconscious factors

D)Fail to describe any types of consequences that influence development

Answer: A

Q2) A list of the most influential systems theorists would include the name

A)Gottlieb.

B)Skinner.

C)Freud.

D)Bandura.

Answer: A

Q3) To control anxiety, the ego is most likely to

A)fulfill all of the id's desires.

B)turn over control to the superego.

C)progress through different psychosexual stages.

D)adopt defense mechanisms.

Answer: D

Q4) Freud is credited with developing _____ theory.

Answer: psychoanalytic

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Chapter 3: Genes, Environment, and Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) It was noted in the text that the genetic "code" is best thought of as written in A)mud.

B)stone.

C)erasable pencil.

D)indelible ink.

Answer: C

Q2) Who is LEAST likely to have a chromosomal abnormality?

A)Tom, who has a total of 22 pairs of chromosomes

B)Dick, who has a total of 23 pairs of chromosomes

C)Harry, who has a total of 24 pairs of chromosomes

D)Sally, who has a total of 25 pairs of chromosomes

Answer: B

Q3) As a hemophiliac, Charles has a deficiency in his blood's ability to A)form the desired round shape.

B)clot.

C)generate white cells.

D)fight infections.

Answer: B

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5

Chapter 4: Prenatal Development and Birth

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Sample Questions

Q1) Concerning breast feeding,

A)most women fail to breast feed because of a concern over their baby receiving too many nutrients from their breast milk

B)black mothers are significantly more likely to breast feed than white mothers.

C)mothers with lower levels of education are more likely to breast feed than highly educated mothers.

D)Hospitals may be sending a mixed message by encouraging breast feeding while including formula in the gift packs they send home with new parents

Q2) Perinatal damage occurs during the time of birth.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Who is most likely to give birth to low-birth-weight infants?

A)Samantha, who is carrying a set of identical twins

B)Carlotta, who is carrying a set of fraternal twins

C)Daniela, who is carry a single fetus

D)Fredrica, who is carrying triplets

Q4) Most first-time mothers experience postnatal depression.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 5: Health and Physical Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) The first male ejaculation is called andropause.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The pincer grasp involves only the use of one's

A)thumb and forefinger.

B)forefinger and little finger.

C)little finger and palm.

D)palm and thumb.

Q3) The fact that activities of a toddler's arms are mastered before activities of their fingers illustrates the _____ principle.

A)cephalocaudal

B)cephalodistal

C)proximodistal

D)proximocaudal

Q4) The average age at which children show mastery of some ability is called the _____ norm.

Q5) The ulnar grasp occurs when the palm is pressed to the outer fingers.

A)True

B)False

Q6) A boy's first ejaculation is technically referred to as _____.

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Chapter 6: Sensation, Perception, and Attention

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Sample Questions

Q1) Sensory threshold is defined as the

A)minimum amount of stimulation that can be detected.

B)maximum amount of sensory stimulation that can be tolerated before pain is experienced.

C)maximum number of senses that can be stimulated before the person is confused.

D)minimum amount of energy produced by a neuron.

Q2) If an adult were cloned, a constructivist would predict that once born, the clone would

A)have to learn to perceive the world as meaningful.

B)awaken with a meaningful understanding of the world.

C)not be able to function.

D)think and perceive like an adult.

Q3) A child's attention span is typically more systematic than that of an infant.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Visual acuity is defined as the ability to see depth.

A)True

B)False

Q5) The ability of the lens to change shape in order to bring an image into focus is referred to as visual _____.

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Chapter 7: Cognition

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Sample Questions

Q1) The tendency to focus on only a single aspect of a problem is called

A)assimilation.

B)centration.

C)conservation.

D)identification.

Q2) Almost all of Timmy's cognitive structures appear to involve basic behavioral schemas for coordinating sensory input and motor responses (e.g., put hand near object, if object is hot, then pull hand away from object). Given this description, Timmy is best classified as being in Piaget's _____ stage of development.

A)formal operations

B)preoperational

C)concrete operations

D)sensorimotor

Q3) The Piagetian concept of "decentration" refers to the inability to A)focus on more than one dimension of a problem at one time.

B)mentally reverse simple operations.

C)understand that the amount of something remains the same regardless of a change in shape or position.

D)take another person's point of view.

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Chapter 8: Memory and Information Processing

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Sample Questions

Q1) Sigler concluded that when solving problems, most children

A)guess.

B)progress through a series of more sophisticated stages of thought.

C)use multiple rules and problem-solving strategies.

D)defer to peers.

Q2) Which best fits with a cohort difference explanation concerning the apparent loss of memory abilities in old age?

A)The visual systems tend to slow with age.

B)Implicit tasks tend to be easier than explicit tasks.

C)Elderly people tend to have had less formal education than young people.

D)Older individuals are more likely to use external memory aids.

Q3) Executive control processes are responsible for monitoring our information-processing behavior.

A)True

B)False

Q4) On average, older adults are faster on timed tasks than young adults.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Memories for general facts are referred to as _____ memory.

Q6) Describe ways of assessing memory development from birth through age one year.

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Chapter 9: Intelligence and Creativity

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Sample Questions

Q1) Research on aging and creativity has shown that older individuals are _____ than younger adults.

A)less original and less productive with creative ideas

B)as original and less productive with creative ideas

C)original but more productive with creative ideas

D)as productive but less original with creative ideas

Q2) To what extent are IQ scores stable during childhood? What factors influence whether IQ scores stay the same or change?

Q3) Crystallized intelligence is the ability to use one's mind actively to solve novel problems.

A)True

B)False

Q4) According to Horn and Cattell, _____ intelligence involves the use of knowledge acquired through life experience.

Q5) A phenomenon called the _____ effect is concerned with the fact that the average IQ of children appears to climb about three to four points each decade.

Q6) Sternberg has recently begun to focus on the aspect of intellect that allows someone to succeed in life using the term _____ intelligence.

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Chapter 10: Language and Education

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Sample Questions

Q1) How does experience impact language? Be sure to directly address language development in the deaf, the acquisition of a second language, and the idea of a critical period in language acquisition.

Q2) How are mastery orientation, the helpless orientation, mastery/learning goals, and performance goals related?

Q3) Lower academic performance in African-American teens has been linked to

A)negative peer pressure.

B)an attempt to reject cultural identity.

C)overinvolved parents.

D)too extreme a valuation on academics.

Q4) When someone says, "It's a matter of semantics," they are referring to the _____ of a sentence.

A)context

B)meaning

C)length

D)syllables

Q5) How does level of achievement change during adolescence and adulthood? What factors lead to declines in achievement? What factors lead to increases in achievement?

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Chapter 11: Self and Personality

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement would indicate that an individual has a high level of surgency?

A)"Paying attention to boring people is hard."

B)"I am always excited, in a good way, to meet people."

C)"Meeting people makes me nervous."

D)"I hate people."

Q2) In collectivist societies, the individual comes before the collective group.

A)True

B)False

Q3) According to researchers McAdams and Pals, we all share the same A)human nature.

B)self-concept.

C)characteristics adaptations.

D)narrative identities.

Q4) While she does not scream when her parents attempt to cuddle with her, Inga does tend to look away and demonstrate some discomfort with this activity. With regard to temperament, Inga is best classified as A)easy.

B)difficult.

C)slow-to-warm-up.

D)secure.

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Chapter 12: Gender Roles and Sexuality

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Sample Questions

Q1) Gender intensification appears to be driven by

A)the desire to have sex with one's parent.

B)prenatal hormones and social experiences in infancy.

C)the need to experiment with one's gender role.

D)hormonal changes at puberty and peer pressure to conform to gender roles.

Q2) Four-year-old Austin believes that only girls can be nurses. At his next check-up, he happens to be seen by a male nurse. According to gender-schema theory, if a week later you were to ask Austin if boys can be nurses, his answer would most likely be A)"No."

B)"Yes, boys can be nurses."

C)"Yes, but only for little kids."

D)"Yes, but only if their wife is a doctor."

Q3) The basic premise of gender-schema theory is that children actively seek objects and/or activities that

A)satisfy their biological drive for sex.

B)match their own-sex schemata.

C)they like, even if those activities are at odds with their self-concept concerning sex and gender.

D)are valued by their parents.

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Chapter 13: Social Cognition and Moral Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) Macy really wants the cool new jacket she has just seen in the store, but she does not have enough money to buy it. For a second, she thinks about stealing the jacket but decides that while stealing is not wrong, she might get punished if she is caught. Macy's moral reasoning appears to be at Kohlberg's _____ level.

A)preconventional

B)conventional

C)postconventional

D)unconventional

Q2) When both individuals in a relationship engage in an equal amount of give and take while conversing, they are demonstrating

A)power assertion.

B)sympathy.

C)reciprocity.

D)induction.

Q3) According to researcher Elliot Turiel, "moral rules"

A)focus on the welfare and basic rights for all individuals.

B)cannot be violated.

C)are situation specific.

D)cannot be defined.

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Chapter 14: Attachment and Social Relationships

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Sample Questions

Q1) Longitudinal research on the long-term effects of having been securely attached as an infant indicates that

A)a secure attachment in infancy predicted the quality of peer relationships in elementary school.

B)an insecure attachment in infancy predicted the quality of one's marriage.

C)a secure attachment in adolescence predicted the quality of life review near death.

D)an insecure attachment in adolescence predicted college grades.

Q2) The ethological perspective asserts that the sensitive period for human attachment relationships typically lasts for just the first three _____ after birth.

A)hours

B)days

C)months

D)years

Q3) Which is the most common peer network play behavior for a six-year-old boy?

A)Playing by himself

B)Playing with one other boy

C)Playing with a group of other boys

D)Playing with a group of girls

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Chapter 15: The Family

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to the _____ effects model, a child's behavior is determined exclusively by the actions of their parent.

Q2) _____ grandparenting style is best characterized as "emotionally distant."

A)Remote

B)Companionate

C)Involved

D)Permissive

Q3) Which concept is also known as "the sandwich generation"?

A)The blended family

B)The spillover effect

C)The middle generation squeeze

D)The indirect effect

Q4) The minimum number of members required in a nuclear family is A)1.

B)2.

C)3.

D)4.

Q5) What are the characteristics, advantages, and disadvantages of the three major grandparenting styles?

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Q6) Describe the basics of family systems theory.

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Chapter 16: Developmental Psychopathology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Becoming senile is a normal part of the aging process.

A)True

B)False

Q2) It appears as if the same lifestyle factors that contribute to the development of _____ also increase the risk for vascular dementia.

A)Asperger syndrome

B)cerebrovascualr disease

C)respiratory failure

D)ADHD

Q3) How are cultural considerations handled in the DSM-IV section on depression?

A)It has separate diagnostic criteria to be used in each of the industrialized nations.

B)It indicates that Asians are more likely to report somatic ailments than psychological ailments.

C)It notes that in many cultures the preferred treatment of exorcism is "spiritual cleansing."

D)Cultural and developmental variations are identified as irrelevant to diagnosis and treatment.

Q4) _____ is the technical term for senility.

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Chapter 17: The Final Challenge: Death and Dying

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Sample Questions

Q1) The average human cell appears to have the capacity to divide about

A)5 times, plus or minus 2.

B)50 times, plus or minus 10.

C)1,000 times, plus or minus 50.

D)5,000,000 times, plus or minus 10,000.

Q2) A legal document that specifically outlines the types of medical procedures that can be applied if a person becomes terminally ill is called a _____ will.

Q3) Which best describes complicated grief?

A)Grieving for multiple deaths at the same time

B)An unusually prolonged or intense pattern of grief

C)Grieving for someone you did not particularly care for

D)Death of a partner from AIDS when you were the individual who infected him or her

Q4) In general, which is harder to deal with, the death of a parent, spouse, or child? What determines how difficult a particular death will be for someone to cope with?

Q5) What is the grief work perspective? In what ways has it come under serious attack by numerous researchers?

Q6) Kübler-Ross's original final stage of dying was _____.

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