Life Span Development
Final Exam
Course Introduction
Life Span Development explores the physical, cognitive, social, and emotional changes that occur throughout the human life cycle, from conception to old age. The course examines key developmental theories and research findings, addressing the factors that influence growth and change, such as genetics, environment, culture, and individual experiences. Students will analyze major developmental milestones and challenges across each life stage, including infancy, childhood, adolescence, adulthood, and aging, with an emphasis on the interplay between biological processes and social contexts. By understanding the continuum of human development, students gain insight into individual differences and the complex factors shaping human behavior over time.
Recommended Textbook
Life Span Human Development 8th Edition by
Carol K. Sigelman
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17 Chapters
3442 Verified Questions
3442 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Understanding Life-Span Human Development
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189 Verified Questions
189 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dr. Fill wants to study the relationship between drug addiction and being the victim of child abuse. As Dr. Fill is an ethical researcher, he would have to conduct a(n) _____ study.
A) experimental
B) correlational
C) laboratory
D) cross-sectional
Answer: B
Q2) The "new" period between adolescence and full-fledged adulthood is called _____ adulthood.
Answer: emerging
Q3) The term _____ concerns an individual's sense of the age at which he or she should experience certain events.
A) age norms
B) age stratification
C) social clock
D) age grade
Answer: C
Q4) In a(n) _____ design, a single cohort group is assessed repeatedly over time.
Answer: longitudinal
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Theories of Human Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement best exemplifies the perspective held by most 21st century developmentalists?
A) Extreme black-and-white positions are in vogue.
B) Freudian ideas (especially those concerning the issues of child sexual fantasy) are more accepted than ever.
C) Learning approaches are effective at describing the development of thoughts but not effective at explaining the acquisition of behaviors.
D) Humans and their environments mutually interact to influence development.
Answer: D
Q2) Molly has just entered the stage of formal operational thought. Something she can do now that she could not do before is to
A) engage in trial-and-error problem-solving.
B) mentally classify objects in her head.
C) think symbolically.
D) deal effectively with purely hypothetical situations.
Answer: D
Q3) Systems theories may also be called _____ theories.
Answer: contextual
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4
Chapter 3: Genes, Environment, and Development
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199 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Experiences unique to an individual are referred to as _____ environmental influences.
Answer: nonshared
Q2) _____ involves conducting DNA tests on the first cells after the mitosis of a fertilized egg.
A) Maternal blood sampling
B) Chorionic villus sampling
C) Amniocentesis
D) Preimplantation genetic diagnosis
Answer: D
Q3) The purpose of the Human Genome Project was to
A) map the sequence of strands of DNA in human chromosomes.
B) determine how many different bases were contained in human DNA.
C) identify the "double helix" shape of DNA.
D) verify the existence of dominant genes.
Answer: A
Q4) A(n) _____ gene-environment relationship exists when a child's genotype causes him or her to seek out some specific environment.
Answer: active
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Chapter 4: Prenatal Development and Birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sofia, who used to be anorexic, is pregnant. She is still hung up about her body and is determined not to "get fat" while pregnant. Consequently, she puts herself on a strict diet and only gains 12 pounds during her pregnancy. Her physician is most concerned that when the baby is born, it will be
A) cognitively impaired.
B) physically deformed.
C) hyperactive.
D) blind or deaf.
Q2) When HIV is transmitted to a baby through blood it encounters during the birth process, the transmission is best classified as A) neonatal.
B) prenatal.
C) perinatal.
D) postnatal.
Q3) A child who is positioned for birth feet or buttocks first is said to be A) in normal vaginal delivery position.
B) a Cesarean baby.
C) in breech position.
D) in vitro.
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Chapter 5: Body, Brain, Health
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208 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which reflex disappears first as the infant matures?
A) Grasping reflex
B) Swallowing reflex
C) Pupillary reflex
D) Breathing reflex
Q2) Which structure is accurately described as the "superhighway" connecting the two hemispheres of the brain?
A) Pons
B) Endocrine gland
C) Brain stem
D) Corpus callosum
Q3) Catch-up growth is most likely to occur
A) in males.
B) following hormone replacement therapy.
C) during late puberty.
D) following a period of malnutrition or illness.
Q4) Synaptic pruning is associated with increased risk of Alzheimer's disease.
A)True
B)False
Q5) _____ malformations are defects that are present at birth.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Sensation, Perception, and Action
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the best example of the infant as an intuitive theorist?
A) Infants look away when an object disappears from view.
B) Infants get bored and look away when an object is repeatedly presented.
C) Infants show surprise when a ball that is dropped behind a screen is later shown to be suspended in the air.
D) Infants show surprise when a ball rolling down a hill is shown reaching the bottom of the hill.
Q2) _____ is an eye disorder caused by increased fluid pressure.
Q3) A slow-reacting pupil is most likely to be responsible for A) glaucoma.
B) difficulty with dark adaptation.
C) cataracts.
D) difficulty with far vision.
Q4) If an adult were cloned, a constructivist would predict that once born, the clone would
A) have to learn to perceive the world as meaningful.
B) awaken with a meaningful understanding of the world.
C) not be able to function.
D) think and perceive like an adult.
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Chapter 7: Cognition
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Sample Questions
Q1) What 1960s event brought Piaget's theory into the mainstream of American science?
A) The end of the Cold War
B) Woodstock, which opened up the society to the acceptance of alternative ways of thinking
C) Flavell's summary of Piaget's work that was published in English
D) Piaget's death, which focused attention on his life's work
Q2) An individual engaging in static thought is focused on the end state of the problem. A)True
B)False
Q3) Vygotsky referred to speech that directs one's thought as _____ speech.
Q4) Learning through active involvement in culturally relevant activities with the aid of knowledgeable individuals is referred to as
A) the personal fable.
B) guided participation.
C) transformational thought.
D) class inclusion.
Q5) Piaget defined _____ as the ability to focus on two dimensions of a problem at the same time.
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Chapter 8: Memory and Information Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Research on early infant ability to imitate (e.g., Meltzoff, 2004) has tended to assess the action of
A) eye blinking.
B) rolling over.
C) sticking out the tongue.
D) smiling.
Q2) Younger children tend to rely more on _____ than older children.
A) internal cues for encoding and retrieval
B) external cues for encoding and retrieval
C) external cues for encoding and internal cues for retrieval
D) internal cues for encoding and external cues for retrieval
Q3) Justine is a typically developing human. What information-processing advances would you expect her to experience between the start of her middle school years and the end of her senior year of high school?
Q4) Information-processing theorists use an analogy of a computer when discussing the human mind.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The process of getting information into the memory system is called _____.
Page 10
Q6) A(n) _____ memory occurs unintentionally and without awareness.
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Chapter 9: Intelligence and Creativity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC-IV) test differs from the Stanford-Binet test because only the WISC-IV
A) is administered in groups rather than individually. B) emphasizes verbal abilities. C) has separate scores for verbal and performance abilities. D) is administered to children.
Q2) According to the psychometric approach to intelligence, intelligence A) aids in adaptation to the environment. B) is made up of traits that vary and can be measured. C) is fixed at conception by genetic factors. D) is organized by stages or levels.
Q3) Sixty-five-year-old Kint is going to a psychologist to have his verbal IQ assessed. Which test would a competent psychologist select to accomplish this goal?
A) WPPSI
B) WISC-IV
C) WAIS-IV
D) MMPI
Q4) To what extent are IQ scores stable during childhood? What factors influence whether IQ scores stay the same or change?
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Chapter 10: Language and Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) Based on recent research, which strategy should a school district employ if it wants to have the best chance of raising student's standardized test scores?
A) Pay students $100 dollars for every A they get in their academic classes.
B) Pay students $50 for not missing any school.
C) Pay student $5 for every book they read and on which they subsequently then pass a quiz.
D) Pay students nothing; show them statistics on how much more money graduates make than nongraduates.
Q2) Research on the transition from elementary school into the next level of education has shown that
A) pubertal changes may make the transition more difficult
B) transition at grade six is much easier than transition at grade eight.
C) the less degree of control that students feel following the transition the greater their academic motivation.
D) supportive teachers in the new school are actually detrimental to academic motivation.
Q3) A vowel-like sound such as "ooooh" is best classified as a(n) _____ sound.
Q4) The reading disorder in which the word "saw" is read as "was" is called _____.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Self and Personality
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement between temperament and later personality is FALSE?
A) Well-adjusted three-year-olds tend to be well-adjusted adults
B) Highly emotional and difficult to control three-year-olds tend to be impulsive teens
C) Behavioral inhibition in preschool is predictive of low extraversion in middle childhood
D) An infant's high ability to exhibit effortful control predicts a lack of conscientiousness in later life
Q2) In Thomas and Chess's longitudinal study of temperament, the largest percent of infants were
A) classified as easy.
B) classified as difficult.
C) classified as slow-to-warm-up.
D) unclassifiable.
Q3) Who is most likely to experience a decrease in self-esteem in early adolescence?
A) A white female
B) A Latino female
C) A white male
D) A Latino male
Q4) How does the development of self proceed from birth though age three?
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13
Chapter 12: Gender Roles and Sexuality
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Sample Questions
Q1) If Kirsten believes in the saying, "Boys and girls are more alike than different," she is clearly a fan of
A) psychodynamic theory.
B) a double standard.
C) the gender similarity hypothesis.
D) gender segregation.
Q2) What is the most likely behavioral outcome of exposing a female rhesus monkey to testosterone during its prenatal time of development?
A) It will be unable to become pregnant.
B) It will show significant improvements in spatial skills.
C) It will attempt to sexually "mount" male partners when it reaches sexual maturity.
D) It will show significant declines in aggressive behavior.
Q3) Gender stability involves understanding that gender is stable across situations.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A gender _____ is an organized set of beliefs and expectations about males and females that impacts what types of information an individual will attend to and remember.
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14
Chapter 13: Social Cognition and Moral Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Persons in collectivist cultures may look like they are at Kohlberg's _____ of moral reasoning despite having sophisticated ideas about justice.
A) stage 2
B) stage 3
C) stage 4
D) stage 5
Q2) Juvenile delinquency is best defined as
A) law breaking by a minor.
B) felon commitment by a young adult.
C) irritating, but not illegal, behavior by an adolescence.
D) a lack of intellect in the 'tween years.
Q3) Someone with a belief-desire psychology understands that
A) people do not always hold accurate beliefs, but these beliefs still influence behavior.
B) beliefs accurately reflect what we desire.
C) desires shape our behavior.
D) people develop accurate beliefs based on interactions with others.
Q4) A social-conventional rule often involves rules of proper social etiquette.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Emotions, Attachment, and Social Relationships
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Sample Questions
Q1) Harlow and Zimmerman's classic research regarding Freud's views of feeding practices and the attachment process indicated that
A) Freud was correct in assuming that the feeding process plays the central role in establishing parent/child attachments.
B) breast feeding is far superior to bottle feeding with regard to promoting parent/child attachments.
C) contact with a soft, cuddly caregiver is more important than specific feeding practices with regard to the establishment of parent/child attachments.
D) attachments are biologically programmed, therefore feeding becomes irrelevant in the attachment process.
Q2) Which of the following is true of emotions?
A) The character of emotions changes as we develop cognitively.
B) Basic emotions are culturally- and developmentally-based.
C) A neurologically-intact baby can show at least six distinct emotions at birth.
D) In general, adults cannot interpret infant emotions until the infants are 10 to 12 months old.
Q3) On sociometric measures, _____ individuals are neither liked nor disliked.
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Chapter 15: The Family
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the issues associated with the middle generation squeeze? How can the associated problem of caregiver burden be reduced?
Q2) Which statement best describes sibling relationships over the adulthood years?
A) Sibling rivalry disappears once the children are on their own.
B) Most siblings share intimate problems frequently across the years.
C) Siblings often grow emotionally closer from middle age to old age.
D) Significant life events like the death of a parent can bring close siblings together and push rival siblings apart.
Q3) Mothers _____ than fathers.
A) spend more time with children
B) devote more time to play
C) devote less time to caregiving
D) are qualitatively better parents
Q4) Which of the following factors was identified as reducing the negative effects of divorce?
A) Inadequate financial support
B) Increased conflict between parents
C) Poor parenting by the noncustodial parent
D) Increased levels of social supports
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Chapter 16: Developmental Psychopathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Infants permanently separated from their mothers between ______ months of age show delays in virtually all areas of development.
A) birth and 3
B) 3 and 6
C) 6 and 12
D) 12 and 18
Q2) The social impairment that defines autism is now viewed as being
A) qualitatively and quantitatively different than from typical social behavior.
B) qualitatively rather than quantitatively different from typical social behavior.
C) quantitatively rather than qualitatively different from typical social behavior.
D) qualitatively and quantitatively similar to that of typical social behavior.
Q3) Differentiate between dementia and delirium. Why is the distinction so important?
Q4) _____ nervosa literally means "nervous loss of appetite."
Q5) Babies can and do experience depression-like states and symptoms.
A)True
B)False
Q6) _____ problems are also called undercontrolled disorders and involve acting out.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: The Final Challenge: Death and Dying
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Sample Questions
Q1) Euthanasia is best defined as "_____" death.
A) quick
B) good
C) painless
D) natural
Q2) Total brain death involves
A) irreversible loss in only the higher centers of the cerebral cortex.
B) reversible loss in only the lower centers of the brain.
C) irreversible loss in both the higher and lower centers of the brain.
D) reversible loss in both the higher and lower centers of the brain.
Q3) Vaughn says, "I believe that everyone has the right to tell other people what they want done in case they are severely injured. For example, if I am ever in an accident and go into a coma, I do not want anyone hooking me up to any machines to keep me alive. That's why I have a piece of paper that says that they cannot do that to me!" This statement indicates that Vaughn is a strong proponent of
A) assisted suicide.
B) physician-assisted suicide.
C) active euthanasia.
D) living wills.
Q4) Kübler-Ross's original final stage of dying was _____.
Page 19
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