Life Sciences Review
Questions
Course Introduction
Life Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the structure, function, growth, origin, evolution, and distribution of living organisms. This course provides a comprehensive overview of fundamental biological concepts, including cell biology, genetics, ecology, physiology, and evolution. Students will engage with topics such as the molecular basis of life, the diversity of organisms, and the interdependence of life and the environment. Through lectures, laboratory work, and critical analysis, students gain an understanding of how life processes are intricately connected and the impact of life sciences on health, technology, and environmental sustainability.
Recommended Textbook
Scientific American Biology for a Changing World 2nd Edition by Michele Shuster
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4375 Verified Questions
4375 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Process of Science Java Report
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many chemicals can cause positive reactions in the human system but may also cause a variety of negative effects.These are called
A) side effects.
B) causal effects.
C) peripheral effects.
D) homeopathic effects.
E) indirect effects.
Answer: A
Q2) In a clinical trial with 400 subjects,the most reliable results would be obtained if ____subjects were in the experimental group and ____in the control.
A) 200; 200
B) 300; 100
C) 100; 300
D) 350; 50
E) 50; 350
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Chemistry and Molecules of Life Mission to Mars
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pH scale goes from ______ to______.A pH of 7 is considered________,a pH <7 is considered ________,and a pH >7 is considered_________.
Answer: 0; 14; neutral; acidic; basic
Q2) Because of the polar nature of water,it is a universal A) solute.
B) solution.
C) solvent.
D) suspension.
E) salt.
Answer: C
Q3) Organic molecules contain at least
A) three carbon to hydrogen bonds.
B) one carbon to oxygen bond.
C) one ionic bond.
D) one carbon to hydrogen bond.
E) one hydrogen to oxygen bond.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Cell Function and Structure Wonder Drug
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain how the nucleus,endoplasmic reticulum,ribosomes,and Golgi apparatus work together to create and transport proteins.
Answer: The DNA in the nucleus provides the instructions for proteins.These are read by the ribosomes and used to put together amino acids to make proteins.These ribosomes are attached to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER)and are made into the ER.The ER packages the new proteins into vesicles and sends them to the Golgi apparatus,where they are modified,repackaged,and sent to their final destinations.
Q2) Cells that lack internal membrane-bound organelles are referred to as being __________,whereas cells that do contain membrane-bound organelles are called
Answer: prokaryotic; eukaryotic
Q3) Circle one of each pair: Simple diffusion is the movement of small/large molecules that are hydrophilic/hydrophobic across a membrane from an area of lower/higher concentration to an area of lower/higher concentration which does/does not require energy.
Answer: small; hydrophobic; higher; lower; does not
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Nutrition,metabolism,enzymes the Peanut Butter Project
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary material for our cell membranes comes from A) proteins.
B) sugars.
C) starches.
D) essential amino acids.
E) fats.
Q2) Cofactors are important because
A) they enable enzymes to bind to their substrates.
B) they serve to inactivate an enzyme, so as to better regulate chemical reactions.
C) they are the building blocks of proteins.
D) they prevent spikes in blood sugar.
E) they signal cells to release enzymes.
Q3) In the process of catabolism,a substrate
A) is broken into smaller products.
B) binds to the enzyme and is released.
C) holds the enzyme in its active site.
D) lowers the activation energy of a reaction.
E) is assembled into a dimer.
Q4) What is a cofactor?
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Chapter 5: Energy Flow and Photosynthesis the Future of Fuel
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Sample Questions
Q1) List three groups of heterotrophs and three groups of autotrophs.
Q2) Visible light has wavelengths in the range of
A) 100-450 nm.
B) 300-675 nm.
C) 375-920 nm.
D) 400-750 nm.
E) 600-900 nm.
Q3) Could heterotrophs survive without autotrophs? Explain your answer.
Q4) The less efficient an organism is in the conversion of energy from chemical to kinetic forms to do work,the more it will produce
A) heat in the form kinetic energy.
B) heat in the form of mechanical energy.
C) heat in the form of radiant energy.
D) heat in the form chemical energy.
E) heat in the form potential energy.
Q5) What is carbon fixation?
Q6) What colors of light are most effective for photosynthesis?
Q8) Why are fossil fuels considered non-renewable energy? Page 7
Q7) The organelle responsible for carrying out photosynthesis is the __________.
Q9) Is corn a good source for biofuels? Give at least two reasons why or why not.
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Page 8
Chapter 6: Dietary Energy and Cellular Respiration
Supersize
Me
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Body Mass Index is an estimate of body fat percentage based on A) waist size.
B) weight and height.
C) blood pressure.
D) weight, age, and height.
E) waist size, gender, and age.
Q2) Your liver cells need energy to survive and run cellular functions.How do they obtain that energy,and what are the components needed to process the energy?
Q3) Where is ATP energy produced during aerobic respiration? How much is produced in each location?
Q4) Excess Calories of energy are stored as _______ in our fat cells.
A) starch
B) cellulose
C) glycogen
D) triglycerides
E) simple sugars
Q5) Why do we need to breathe?
Q6) Why would humans evolve the capacity to store large reserves of fat?
Page 9
Q7) Define calorie and Calorie.Which of these is the term used in food labels?
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Chapter 7: DNA Structure and Replication Biologically
Unique
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is gel electrophoresis?
A) A laboratory technique used to amplify DNA based on the size of the DNA fragment
B) A laboratory technique used to separate DNA into coding and non-coding regions
C) A laboratory technique used to analyze DNA samples that separates DNA according to the size of the DNA fragment
D) A laboratory technique used to analyze DNA samples that separates DNA into chromosomes
E) A laboratory technique that stains regions of a chromosome different colors so that an individual may be identified
Q2) Imagine a crime scene in which traditional sources of evidence have not yielded a suspect.A DNA profile is generated and run through the CODIS database.There is no perfect match; however,one person has at least one band in common with the crime-scene DNA at every STR site.This person,however,is in jail and could not have committed the crime.Is this information still useful for identifying a potential suspect?
Q3) To condense DNA into a smaller size,it is wrapped around _______ molecules.
Q4) Explain how DNA samples are isolated from a crime scene.
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Page 10
Chapter 8: Genes to Proteins Medicine From Milk
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Sample Questions
Q1) A stretch of DNA is 1000 nucleotides long,100 of which are non-coding.How many amino acids could it make?
A) 100
B) 1000
C) 300
D) 450
E) 900
Q2) The codon for the amino acid methionine is AUG.What anticodon on a tRNA molecule will match methionine's codon?
A) AUG
B) ATG
C) TAC
D) UAC
E) UAG
Q3) Each gene carries the instructions to make _______.
Q4) ___________ are alternate versions of a gene,which differ slightly in their nucleotide sequence.
Q5) If a codon that normally codes for an amino acid is changed to a stop codon,how would that change alter the protein?
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Chapter 9: Cell Division and Mitosis Natures Pharmacy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chemotherapy drugs interfere with A) cell division.
B) chromosome duplication.
C) spindle formation.
D) chromosome separation during mitosis.
E) All of the above.
Q2) Define apoptosis.Why is apoptosis important?
Q3) Chromosomes are duplicated during
A) the G<sub>1</sub> phase.
B) mitosis.
C) cytokinesis.
D) the G<sub>2</sub> phase.
E) the S phase.
Q4) Which of the following is an example of cells undergoing mitosis and cytokinesis?
A) a new embryo growing
B) a tree producing new branches
C) dead skin cells being replaced
D) a wound healing over with a scar
E) All of the above.
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Chapter 10: Mutations and Cancer Fighting Fate
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the number-one preventable cause of cancer?
A) smoking
B) UV light exposure
C) grilled meats and vegetables
D) pollution exposure
E) alcohol
Q2) Which combination(s)of mutated genes would be most likely to make a cell cancerous?
A) one oncogene
B) one tumor suppressor gene
C) two oncogenes
D) two oncogenes and two tumor-suppressor genes
E) All of the above.
Q3) Is the way a protein folds important for its function?
A) Yes, protein function depends on the protein's 3-D structure.
B) Yes, because DNA mutations are caused by protein folding incorrectly.
C) No, as long as the sequence is correct.
D) No, as long as the protein is still soluble.
E) None of the above.
Q4) What are the three main ways a person can acquire a mutation in their DNA?
Page 13
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Chapter 11: Single-Gene Inheritance and Meiosis Rock for a Cause
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Sample Questions
Q1) One parent has one copy of a dominant allele for gene 87 and one recessive allele for Gene 87.The other parent has two copies of the recessive allele for Gene 87.What is the chance that their children will inherit the dominant condition (two copies of Gene 87)? You may need to draw a Punnett square to figure this out.
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%
Q2) Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes.How many possible ways can these be sorted out during independent assortment?
A) more than 8 million ways
B) 46 ways
C) 23 ways
D) about 100 million ways
E) 529 ways (23 × 23 ways)
Q3) Explain how males inherit more DNA from their mothers than from their fathers.
Q4) Why is having two copies of every gene an advantage to only having one copy of a gene?
Page 14
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Chapter 12: Complex Inheritance Qa: Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) You wish to determine if a male child is the descendant of your grandfather.However,your grandfather is only known to have had daughters.The best strategy is to
A) compare the child's X chromosome with the X chromosome of your grandfather's sister.
B) compare the child's Y chromosome with the X chromosome of your grandfather's sister.
C) compare the child's X chromosome with the X chromosome of your grandfather's brother.
D) compare the child's Y chromosome with the Y chromosome of your grandfather's brother.
E) Because your grandfather only had daughters, there is no way to test such a relationship.
Q2) Skin color is controlled by six separate genes,making the inheritance of skin color a good example of
A) codominance.
B) incomplete dominance.
C) multiple-allele inheritance.
D) multifactorial inheritance.
E) polygenic inheritance.
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Page 15
Chapter 13: Stem Cells and Cell Differentiation Grow Your
Own
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cell that has matured into a specialized cell with a specific function is referred to as A) a stem cell.
B) an egg.
C) a somatic stem cell.
D) a differentiated cell.
E) All of the above.
Q2) A group of tissues working together perform the complex functions of A)a tissue.
B)an organ.
C)an organ system.
D)an organism.
E)a bladder.
Q3) When growing a replacement organ,what is the next step in the process after the doctor takes a biopsy of a patient's organ?
A) give the patient antirejection drugs
B) replace the diseased tissue with the new cells
C) grow the isolated cells on a scaffold
D) isolate and grow the stem cells from the organ
E) None of the above.
Page 16
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Chapter 14: Natural Selection and Adaptation Bugs That Resist Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The African finch Pyrenestes is an example of
A) directional selection.
B) diversifying selection.
C) guided selection.
D) stabilizing selection.
E) uniform selection.
Q2) If two alleles are incompletely dominant to each other and heterozygotes almost never survive,which pattern of natural selection would you expect to see?
A) bifurcating selection
B) directional selection
C) diversifying selection
D) intermediate selection
E) stabilizing selection
Q3) All the individuals of a species living in a specific area compose a A) colony.
B) species.
C) community.
D) population.
E) clade.
Q4) Bacteria lack meiosis.Explain how they produce offspring without meiosis.
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Chapter 15: A: Nonadaptive Evolution and Speciation Urban
Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Nature Conservancy buys and then protects land inhabited by endangered or threatened species.Why is this a good strategy for saving these species? Be sure to discuss evolution and adaptation in your answer.
Q2) Evolution may best be explained as a
A) change in the frequency of proteins in a population over time.
B) change in the frequency of alleles in a population over time.
C) change in the number of individuals in a population over time.
D) change in the proportion of males to females in a population over time.
E) change in the birth rate in a population over time.
Q3) In North America,there are more than 60 species of mice in the genus Peromyscus,most of whom closely resemble one another.You wish to determine the relatedness of three of these species: the deer mouse,the oldfield mouse,and the white-footed mouse.You set up breeding experiments and find that deer mice and oldfield mice will reluctantly breed with one another,but neither one will breed with white-footed mice.What do you determine to be the pattern of relatedness of these three species?
Q4) List at least five ways that two species may be reproductively isolated from each other.
Page 18
Q5) What are the four main forces of evolution that act upon a species' gene pool?
Q6) Why doesn't the egg cell receive the mitochondria found in a sperm cell?
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Page 19
Chapter 15: B: Nonadaptive Evolution and Speciation Urban
Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Snail species A has a shell that spirals counterclockwise,but a mutation has caused some individuals to have a clockwise shell.The genitalia of the two versions are incompatible,leading some scientists to say that the clockwise snails are reproductively isolated.Could the clockwise snails become a new species?
Q2) There are 13 species of finch inhabiting the Galápagos islands,all of which descend from just one species from the mainland.Given this,what do you suppose were the characteristics of the founding population in terms of number of individuals and allelic diversity of those founding individuals?
Q3) You have a population of flies with three alleles for wing size,L (large),M (medium),and S (small).Individuals with SS,SM,or SL have small wings.Individuals with MM have medium wings.Individuals with LL or LM have large wings.After a sudden storm,all of the small-winged individuals have been killed.What will happen to the population?
Q4) With respect to country mice and city mice,
A) city mice have more allele diversity than country mice.
B) country mice have more alleles for stress compared to city mice.
C) both have similar allele diversity for most genes.
D) city mice share allele diversity with country mice with respect to diversity.
E) city mice are stressed less compared to country mice.
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Chapter 16: Evidence for Evolution a Fish With Fingers
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Sample Questions
Q1) A structure inherited from an ancestor that no longer serves a function is a _______ structure.
A) homologous
B) primitive
C) faulty
D) vestigial
E) embryonic
Q2) How is a fossil mold formed?
Q3) List three challenges of living on land as compared with living in the water?
Q4) A 100-nucleotide sequence of DNA from humans and five other vertebrates were analyzed,with the following results:
Species A had 45 nucleotides that differed from the human DNA.
Species B had 65 nucleotides that differed from the human DNA.
Species C had 10 nucleotides that differed from the human DNA.
Species D had 4 nucleotides that differed from the human DNA.
Species E had 44 nucleotides that differed from the human DNA. Which of these is most distantly related to humans?
Q5) Regardless of the specifics,fossils may only form if the organism is preserved quickly.Why?
Page 21
Q6) Compare the forearms of alligators and Tiktaalik.
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Chapter 17: Life on Earth Qa: Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Forests of large seedless plants dominated the planet during the _____ period.
A) Cambrian
B) Jurassic
C) Cretaceous
D) Carboniferous
E) Tertiary
Q2) Which one of the habitats below would have the most species diversity?
A) tundra
B) deciduous forest
C) peat bog
D) tropical rain forest
E) desert
Q3) The half-life of an isotope is 5,000 years.With a starting material of 1g of an isotope,after 5,000 years,how much would remain?
A) 2 g
B) 0.5 g
C) 1 g
D) 2.5 g
E) 0.25 g
Q4) Why are there no penguins in the Arctic?
Page 22
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Chapter 18: Prokaryotic Diversity Lost City
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an adaptation for the survival of Helicobacter pylori in the intestinal gut?
A) cilium
B) capsule
C) flagellum
D) pili
E) ribosomes
Q2) Which two domains contain prokaryotic organisms?
A) Archaea and Eukarya
B) Monera and Eukarya
C) Bacteria and Archaea
D) Archaea and Monera.
E) Bacteria and Monera
Q3) The habitats surrounding a deep-sea hydrothermal vent support differing microbial communities because of variations in
A) temperature.
B) pH.
C) hydrogen concentration.
D) methane concentration.
E) All of the above.
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Page 23
Chapter 19: A: Eukaryotic Diversity Rain Forest Riches
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Sample Questions
Q1) Conservationists prefer to protect large,contiguous tracts of land rather than areas that are fragmented by roads,farmland,and other human-induced changes.Why are large,undisturbed areas better for protecting biodiversity?
Q2) The most successful animal group is the
A) chordate group.
B) nematode group.
C) mollusk group.
D) arthropod group.
E) echinoderm group.
Q3) Which trait do ferns,gymnosperms,and angiosperms share?
A) seeds
B) flowers
C) vasculature
D) fruit
E) cones
Q4) Define both radial symmetry and bilateral symmetry.Why have animals with bilateral symmetry been more successful than animals with radial symmetry?
Q5) List at least three of the four distinguishing characteristics of the arthropod group.
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Chapter 19: B: Eukaryotic Diversity Rain Forest Riches
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Sample Questions
Q1) Circle one of each pair in italics: An "animal" is defined as a single-celled / multi-celled organism with prokaryotic / eukaryotic cells and is considered to be a(n)autotroph / heterotroph.
Q2) The most successful animal group is the A) chordate group. B) nematode group.
C) mollusk group.
D) arthropod group.
E) echinoderm group.
Q3) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) There are more prey species than predator species.
B) There are more predator species than prey species.
C) There are an equal number of predator and prey species.
D) Predators have little impact on an ecosystem.
E) Most predators have many natural predators.
Q4) List three types of fungi.
Q5) Explain the role of fungi in an ecosystem.What would happen if fungi were not present?
Q6) Why are the protists so difficult to classify?
Q7) List at least three ways that humans are reducing global biodiversity.
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Chapter 20: Human Evolution Skin Deep
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following BEST describes mitochondrial inheritance in humans?
A) Mitochondria are inherited only from the mother. Once the mitochondrion from the sperm enters the egg, it is inactivated. Only maternal mitochondria divide as the fertilized egg divides.
B) Mitochondria are inherited only from the mother. Sperm don't have mitochondria, only eggs do.
C) Mitochondria are inherited only from the mother. Sperm mitochondria aren't contained in the head of the sperm, which is the only part that penetrates the egg.
D) Mitochondria are inherited only from the father. Eggs don't have mitochondria, but sperm do.
E) Mitochondria are inherited from both parents. Both eggs and sperm contain mitochondria, so every cell in a human body includes both paternal and maternal mitochondria.
Q2) In a person of very dark skin tone,it is expected that their melanocytes produce
A) small quantities of melanin pigment.
B) very large quantities of melanin pigment.
C) limited quantities of melanin pigment.
D) some quantities of melanin pigment.
E) average quantities of melanin pigment.
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Page 26
Chapter 21: A: Population Ecology on the Tracks of Wolves and Moose
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain how temperature,ticks,moose,and wolves are all related.
Q2) The term _______ describes the interacting populations (e.g.,moose and ticks)within an ecosystem.
A) competition
B) community
C) niche
D) habitat
E) predator-prey relationships
Q3) A researcher who investigates how flooding affects the different populations on an island is most interested in which level of organization?
A) ecosystem
B) community
C) biome
D) individual
E) biosphere
Q4) Why do populations rise and fall around carrying capacity instead of just remaining stable at carrying capacity?
Q5) Describe the method used to assess moose population size on Isle Royale.
Q6) What is the difference between a community and an ecosystem?
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Chapter 21: B: Population Ecology on the Tracks of Wolves and Moose
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define community.
Q2) Most species on the planet have a _____ distribution.
A) random
B) linear
C) spherical
D) clumped
E) uniform
Q3) Which population distribution pattern is encountered most often by ecologists?
A) random
B) clumped
C) uniform
D) irregular
E) asymmetric
Q4) Place the population distribution pattern in order from most to least frequently encountered by ecologists.
A) random, asymmetric, and uniform
B) clumped, random, and uniform
C) clumped, uniform, and random
D) uniform, asymmetric, and clumped
E) asymmetric, clumped, and random
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Chapter 22: A: Community Ecology Whats Happening to Honey Bees
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which has been observed in killer bees?
A) swarming
B) chasing away other pollinators from food sources
C) stinging animals near their hives
D) aggressive behavior
E) All of the above.
Q2) Colony collapse disorder (CCD)is thought to be caused by many different factors.To reduce the occurrence of CCD,do you think it is necessary to eliminate all the factors or just some? Explain your answer.
Q3) Symbioses describes
A) an interaction where one organism feeds on another.
B) feeding levels based on positions in a food chain.
C) interconnection of feeding relationships in a community.
D) species living in close association with each other.
E) a relationship where one member benefits and the other in unharmed.
Q4) If only 10% of the energy available in a plant is turned into body tissue of a cow,what happens to the other 90%?
Q5) Humans domesticated dogs 10,000 years ago.Of the three types of symbioses possible,which do you think best characterizes this relationship? Explain your answer.
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Chapter 22: B: Community Ecology Whats Happening to Honey Bees
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true of honey bees,EXCEPT
A) they pollinate more than 100 different crops.
B) the crops they pollinate are worth $15 billion annually.
C) they are a keystone species.
D) they help pollinate angiosperms.
E) the workers are all male.
Q2) Which is NOT a top-level consumer in a food chain?
A) hawk
B) coyote
C) wolves
D) human carnivore
E) human vegetarian
Q3) In the United States,how many crops are dependent on bees for pollination?
A) > 100
B) < 100
C) 50
D) < 50
E) < 25
Q4) Name at least three factors implicated in causing colony collapse disorder.
Q5) List and define the three types of symbioses possible between organisms.
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the evidence for global warming?
A) decreasing arctic sea ice
B) melting glaciers and ice caps
C) rising sea levels
D) historical records of Earth's surface temperature
E) All of the above.
Q2) Which is NOT true of greenhouse gases?
A) Humans are adding to the amount of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.
B) Carbon dioxide is a result of the burning of fossil fuels.
C) Global temperature is rising due to the greenhouse effect.
D) Greenhouse gases trap infrared radiation close to Earth's surface.
E) Greenhouse gases are relatively new in Earth's atmosphere.
Q3) Some animals have a very broad,varied diet,while others have very specialized diets.Which type of diet do you think will allow an animal to adapt to climate change the easiest? Explain your answer.
Q4) How would you respond to someone who says that the increase in global temperatures of the last 200 years is just part of normal global temperature fluctuations?
Q5) Explain how the greenhouse effect warms Earth and list two greenhouse gases.
Page 31
Q6) List three sources of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
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Q1) Which land mass is showing the most dramatic increase in surface temperatures in recent years?
A) North America
B) Arctic
C) Europe
D) Africa
E) South America
Q2) All of the following are true of the greenhouse effect,EXCEPT
A) it is a natural process that keeps Earth warm.
B) some of the light and heat from the Sun are reflected back into the atmosphere.
C) high oxygen levels are contributing to global warming.
D) greenhouse gases in the atmosphere trap the Sun's heat.
E) the greenhouse effect has increased over the past several years.
Q3) Why are ice cores useful in tracking carbon dioxide levels?
A) Ratios of isotopes can be compared.
B) They contain sediment from volcanoes.
C) Air bubbles in the ice contain gases that can be measured.
D) Water can be analyzed for carbon dioxide.
E) They are easy to obtain.
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Chapter 24: A: Sustainability the Makings of a Green City
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) The United States and China have roughly the same per-capita ecological footprint.
B) China has a higher per-capita ecological footprint than the United States.
C) The United States has a higher per-capita ecological footprint than China, but China's large population means their total footprint is almost as large as the total U.S. footprint.
D) China's large population means that its total ecological footprint is greater than that of the United States.
E) China's per-capita ecological footprint is near the world average of 2.6 global hectares per person.
Q2) In general,exponential population growth starts slow and rapidly increases until A) the natural increase is reached.
B) it decreases with disease.
C) it reaches a maximum.
D) resources become limited.
E) All of the above.
Q3) Why are some regions of the world more water-stressed than others?
Q4) Explain the role of women in limiting population growth.
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Chapter 24: B: Sustainability the Makings of a Green City
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Q1) The biological demand for _____ has stayed nearly the same over the last 45 years.
A) built-up land
B) grazing lands
C) fishing grounds
D) crop land
E) All of the above.
Q2) Globally,which renewable energy resource is relied upon MOST for energy production?
A) hydroelectric power
B) solar power
C) wind power
D) biofuels
E) nuclear power
Q3) Globally,which resource is relied upon MOST for energy production?
A) hydroelectric power
B) fossil fuels
C) nuclear power
D) wind power
E) biofuels
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Chapter 25: A: Overview of Physiology Man Versus Mountain
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Sample Questions
Q1) The organ system below that regulates many body functions is the _______ system.
A) endocrine
B) integumentary
C) skeletal
D) digestive
E) lymphatic
Q2) List four tightly regulated body functions whose regulation is part of maintaining the body's homeostasis.
Q3) Define homeostasis.
Q4) Where is the hypothalamus located?
Q5) What is the proper order for the following four events?
i.glucagon is released
II.blood glucose drops
III.insulin is released
IV.blood glucose rises
A) IV, I, II, III
B) III, IV, I, II
C) II, III, IV, I
D) III, I, II, IV
E) I, IV, III, II
Page 35
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Chapter 25: B: Overview of Physiology Man Versus Mountain
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Sample Questions
Q1) You're stranded on a deserted island,but you know you will be rescued in a week.You have plenty of water,and the temperature is nice,but there is very little food available to tide you over until your rescue.How will your body respond to this lack of food energy?
Q2) What is the proper order for the following four events? I.glucagon is released
II)blood glucose drops
III)insulin is released
IV)blood glucose rises
A) IV, I, II, III
B) III, IV, I, II
C) II, III, IV, I
D) III, I, II, IV
E) I, IV, III, II
Q3) Whale blubber represents which of the following strategies for thermoregulation?
A) trapping existing heat within the body
B) generating additional heat by shivering
C) storing energy to support shivering
D) burning fat via nonshivering thermogenesis
E) All of the above.
Q4) Where is the hypothalamus located?
Page 37
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Chapter 26: Digestive System Drastic Measures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The enzyme ______ breaks down fats.
Q2) Chemical digestion of fats begins in the __________.
A) small intestine
B) stomach
C) mouth
D) large intestine
E) pancreas
Q3) The graph illustrates some of the study's results.From it,you can conclude that
A) patients who underwent gastric banding had lost about 15 pounds at the end of 15 years, while those who underwent gastric bypass lost about 25 pounds
B) patients who underwent gastric banding had lost about 15% of their body weight at the end of 15 years, while those who underwent gastric bypass lost about 25%
C) patients in the experimental group lost weight initially but gained it all back by the end of the study
D) patients in the control group lost no weight by the end of the study
E) None of the above.
Q4) What is bariatric surgery?
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Chapter 27: A: Cardiovascular System Death in Bogalusa
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Q1) Considering the functions of the cardiovascular system,why is heart disease such a deadly condition?
Q2) What chemical property did scientists and physicians utilize in order to identify the early signs of atherosclerosis in young people? What were they identifying?
Q3) Why is obesity a risk factor for cardiovascular disease?
A) Obesity can lead to hypertension.
B) Obesity can lead to type 2 diabetes.
C) Obesity overworks the heart.
D) A and C only.
E) A, B, and C are risk factors.
Q4) In the pulmonary circuit,which structures contain the highest blood pressure?
A) the aorta
B) the pulmonary vein
C) the pulmonary artery
D) the right atrium
E) the lungs
Q5) Describe the pathway of blood through both the systemic and pulmonary circulatory systems,starting and ending with the left atrium.
Q6) Why do LDL and HDL have to accompany cholesterol in the blood?
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Chapter 27: B: Cardiovascular System Death in Bogalusa
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Sample Questions
Q1) Foods high in saturated fats contribute to which of the following?
A) Low levels of LDL in the blood
B) High levels of LDL in the blood
C) Low levels of HDL in the blood
D) High levels of HDL in the blood
E) This changes neither LDL or HDL
Q2) Beyond the cellular components of blood and the nutrients and proteins carried in plasma,why is a blood draw such a representative snapshot of our environmental exposures?
Q3) Diastolic pressure is measured
A)during ventricular relaxation.
B)as the pulse.
C)in the veins.
D)A and C.
E)It cannot be measured.
Q4) Considering the functions of the cardiovascular system,why is heart disease such a deadly condition?
Q5) What chemical property did scientists and physicians utilize in order to identify the early signs of atherosclerosis in young people? What were they identifying?
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Chapter 28: Respiratory System Peak Performance
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Q1) Low partial pressure of oxygen in the atmosphere has what effect on the oxygen diffusion into the blood from alveoli?
A) The diffusion rate of oxygen into the blood is always constant and does not change due to a change in the number of available oxygen molecules in the alveolar air.
B) The diffusion rate is increased because there are more oxygen molecules available in the alveolar air.
C) The diffusion rate is decreased because there are more oxygen molecules available in the alveolar air.
D) The diffusion rate is increased because there are fewer oxygen molecules available in the alveolar air.
E) The diffusion rate is decreased because there are fewer oxygen molecules available in the alveolar air.
Q2) Ram ventilation in some fish requires an open mouth and constant movement to push water over the gills.How does this system of ventilation allow for an increased muscle ATP demand when the fish speeds up and a decrease in muscle ATP demands when the fish slows down?
Q3) What is the primary function of the combined respiratory system structures?
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Chapter 29: A: Central Nervous System Smoke on the Brain
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Q1) Release of dopamine in the brain leads to feelings of _______.
A) anxiety
B) lethargy
C) pleasure
D) fear
E) loathing
Q2) The proper path for an action potential is _________.
A) axon terminals to axon to dendrites
B) axon to axon terminals to dendrites
C) dendrites to axon terminals to axon
D) dendrites to axon to axon terminals
E) Either A or D
Q3) This region controls movement,coordination,and balance.
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
E) 7
Q4) The root word in dendrite means "tree." Explain why this is an appropriate name.
Q5) Explain the steps required for smoking to cause a feeling of pleasure.
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Chapter 29: B: Central Nervous System Smoke on the Brain
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Sample Questions
Q1) This is the prefrontal cortex.
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
E) 7
Q2) A pharmaceutical company is developing an anti-addiction drug that lowers dopamine reception in the limbic system.This drug will most likely _________.
A)work very well because the limbic system is one of the main centers of the brain responsible for addiction
B)not work very well because lowered dopamine release is caused by most drugs of abuse
C)work very well because reducing dopamine sensitivity should help people break their addiction
D)not work very well because many different regions in the brain are involved in addiction
E)A and C.
Q3) What are the parts of the limbic system?
Q4) What is an action potential?
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Chapter 30: Reproductive System Too Many Multiples
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Sample Questions
Q1) Testes are located in a sac called the ________.
Q2) Compare and contrast costs and benefits of internal fertilization,such as in mammals,and external fertilization,such as in fish.
Q3) Progesterone is produced by the _________ (specific region of cells),which forms from the follicle after release of the egg.
Q4) What are some of the reasons that ovaries may fail to produce eggs?
Q5) Testosterone is produced here.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Q6) Of the following contraception methods,________ work(s)by increasing cervical mucus,preventing implantation of the embryo,or both.
A) surgery
B) hormonal methods
C) intrauterine devices (IUDs)
D) A and B
E) B and C
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Chapter 31: Immune System Viral Mysteries
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Q1) B and T cells wait in the ________ until they are needed.
A) lymphatic system
B) gall bladder
C) thymus
D) blood stream
E) bone marrow
Q2) Encapsulation in fruit flies after an infection is similar to a human response to infections such as tuberculosis,which results in the formation of a _________.
A) granuloma
B) plasmatocyte
C) amoebocyte
D) lamellocyte
E) phagocyte
Q3) All of the following are examples of the innate immune system,EXCEPT _________.
A) memory T cells
B) phagocytes
C) skin
D) mucus
E) complement
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Chapter 32: A: Plant Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary nutrient carnivorous plants seek from capturing insects is _______.
A) phosphorus
B) sulfur
C) carbon
D) nitrogen
E) potassium
Q2) You need ripe (soft)avocados to make guacamole for a party in 3 days,but you need to do your shopping today.Although the avocados at the grocery store are all labeled with a sticker proclaiming "Ripe!" each is hard as a rock.How can you get them soft in time? Explain.
Q3) Most plants get their nitrogen with the help of nitrogen fixing _______.
A) fungi
B) bacteria
C) roots
D) yeasts
E) protists
Q4) Why do seeds often contain the most lethal chemical defenses of any plant tissue?
Q5) How is this shading a water conservation strategy?
Q6) Explain how auxin controls phototropism.
Page 46
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Chapter 32: B: Plant Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A seed is best described as _______.
A) a plant embryo
B) a plant embryo along with nutrients for early growth and development
C) a plant embryo along with nutrients and a cone
D) a plant embryo along with nutrients and a fruit to attract dispersers
E) a plant embryo with nutrients and a structure to allow wind dispersal
Q2) Why do leaves of deciduous trees change color in the fall?
Q3) The male sexual organ of the plant is the _______.
A) flower
B) pistil
C) filament
D) stamen
E) receptacle
Q4) In plants,the aging process (including ripening)is regulated by _______.
A) auxin
B) ethylene
C) gibberellin
D) abscisic acid
E) A and B
Q5) How is this shading a water conservation strategy?
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