Life Sciences
Review Questions
Course Introduction
Life Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the structure, function, growth, origin, evolution, and distribution of living organisms. This course covers fundamental concepts in biology, genetics, ecology, microbiology, and physiology, providing students with an understanding of the processes that govern life at molecular, cellular, and organismal levels. Emphasis is placed on the scientific methods used in life science research and on the relevance of biological principles to human health, environmental sustainability, and biotechnology. Through lectures, laboratory activities, and fieldwork, students develop critical thinking and analytical skills essential for further studies or careers in science and health-related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Concepts of Biology 3rd Edition by Sylvia S. Mader Dr
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Chapter 1: Biology, the Study of Life
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Q1) Which theory helps us understand why various species differ from one another,tells us to what diseases we are predisposed,and enables us to produce drugs for a variety of diseases?
A)Cell
B)Gene
C)Evolution
D)Homeostasis
E)Ecosystem
Answer: B
Q2) In the scientific method,the condition which is deliberately changed is referred to as the
A)control group.
B)experimental variable.
C)control variable.
D)hypothesis.
E)test.
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Basic Chemistry of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) The identity of any atom can be determined by the A)number of electrons.
B)atomic charge.
C)atomic mass.
D)number of protons.
E)number of neutrons.
Answer: D
Q2) Although high doses of radiation are harmful to cells,how can low levels of radioactive isotopes be used medicinally?
A)as tracers in imaging organs using Xrays and PET Scans
B)to reduce obesity and diabetes in teenagers
C)to create drugs that work faster than normal
D)to destroy aging and unwanted cells
E)to prevent ultraviolet damage from the sun
Answer: A
Q3) The attraction of an atom for the electrons in a covalent bond is called electronegativity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Organic Molecules of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is sickle cell disease more common in Americans with African ancestors than Americans with European ancestors?
A)Sickle-shaped blood cells caused malarial parasites to die,and thus gave protection against malarial infections prevalent in AfricA.
B)Sickle-shaped blood cells were good hosts for tuberculosis,and thus spread tuberculosis widely throughout Africa.
C)Sickle-shaped blood cells caused cholera bacteria to die,and thus gave protection against large-scale cholera epidemics throughout Europe.
D)Sickle-shaped blood cells caused tuberculosis bacteria to die,and thus gave protection against large-scale Tb epidemics throughout crowded areas in Africa.
E)Sickle-shaped blood cells were good hosts for cholera bactera,and thus caused many people to die from cholera and diarrhea.
Answer: A
Q2) DNA molecules are single stranded,have no thymine,and contain uracil.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Structure and Function of Cells
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Q1) Which cellular activity can be well studied using pulse-label experiments?
A)breakdown of worn-out cell parts
B)cell division
C)cell movement
D)rebuilding of the cytoskeleton
E)secretion
Q2) A scientist studies a dark region inside the nucleus where rRNA joins with ribosomes.Which structure is this?
A)chromosomes
B)nuclear pores
C)nuclear envelope
D)nucleolus
E)chromatin
Q3) Cells are usually rather small.What does this ensure that they have?
A)a sufficient surface area-to-volume ratio
B)an exchange of genetic information
C)a need for lipid-based membranes
D)a reduction in size due to division
E)a group of new cells by division
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Dynamic Activities of Cells
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Q1) Osmosis requires
A)active transport of water molecules.
B)an equal concentration of solvent on both sides of the membrane.
C)no turgor pressure.
D)a differentially permeable membrane.
E)no osmotic pressurE.
Q2) When chloride ions cannot cross through the plasma membrane,what disease does the patient have?
A)Color blindness
B)Cystic fibrosis
C)Type 1 diabetes
D)Huntington's disease
E)Type 2 diabetes
Q3) A cell lacking ATP would be able to run all endergonic reactions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If an enzyme's was denatured,it would no longer bind efficiently with its substrate efficiently.
A)True
B)False
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Pathways of Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Calvin cycle in CAM plants exemplifies the term "light-independent reactions" because
A)CAM plants thrive in dimly-light conditions.
B)the stomata of CAM plants only open and allow carbon dioxide to enter at night.
C)sunlight is not used in chlorophyll synthesis.
D)CAM plants wither and die if exposed to sunlight.
E)the RuBP carboxylase in CAM plants is inhibited by light.
Q2) In photosynthesis,which of the following molecules will be directly converted into glucose and other organic molecules?
A)RuBP
B)ATP
C)NADPH
D)G3P
E)Carbon dioxide
Q3) In C<sub>4</sub> plants,the Calvin cycle occurs in the bundle sheath cells and not in the mesophyll cells.
A)True
B)False
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8
Chapter 7: Pathways of Cellular Respiration
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Q1) What is the significance of the cristae in the mitochondria?
A)increase surface area,therefore increasing glycolysis
B)increase surface area,therefore increasing the Krebs cycle
C)increase surface area,therefore increasing the preparatory reaction
D)increase surface area,therefore increasing fermentation
E)increase surface area,therefore increasing the electron transport chain
Q2) What role do NADH and FADH<sub>2</sub> play in the process of cellular respiration?
A)They help break down glucose.
B)They carry electrons to the electron transport chain.
C)They oxidize pyruvate.
D)They produce ATP.
E)They assist in making acetyl groups.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true about fermentation?
A)It produces more ATP then cellular respiration with oxygen.
B)It doesn't need enzymes.
C)It occurs without oxygen.
D)It produces pyruvate as its end product.
E)It is very efficient.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Cellular Reproduction
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Q1) What material is seen when examining a chromosome in its relaxed form?
A)chromatin
B)chromatids
C)centromeres
D)centrosomes
E)cytokinesis
Q2) The first phase of mitosis is called
A)prophase.
B)metaphase.
C)anaphase.
D)telophase.
E)interphasE.
Q3) In mitosis,the chromosomes line up on the equator of the cell during A)prophase
B)telophase
C)anaphase
D)interphase
E)metaphase
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Chapter 9: Sexual Reproduction
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Q1) A geneticist is studying the genetic makeup of a baby and discovers that part of chromosome five has a piece missing.The baby is suffering from:
A)Down syndrome
B)Turner syndrome
C)Edward syndrome
D)Klinefelter syndrome
E)Cri du Chat syndrome
Q2) Chromosomes condense during prophase I.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Mitosis and meiosis both require two nuclear divisions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Mitosis produces half as many daughter cells as meiosis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The nuclear envelope does not reform during telophase II.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Patterns of Genetic Inheritance
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Q1) Mendel's law of segregation implies that the two members of an allelic pair
A)are segregated pair wise.
B)are distributed to the same gamete.
C)are distributed to separate gametes.
D)are always code for the identical trait or feature.
E)are assorted dependently.
Q2) If a woman is a carrier for the X-linked recessive colorblindness and her husband is normal,what are their chances that a son will be colorblind?
A)25%,since the mother is a carrier
B)100% because the mother has the gene
C)50%,since the mother is a carrier
D)None,since the father is normal
E)None,since he will be also a carrier
Q3) If a genotype of an organism is YySsTt,then what does yST represent?
A)a possible phenotype of the offspring
B)a possible zygote
C)the P-generation
D)the genotype of the offspring
E)a possible gamete of the parent
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Molecular Biology of Inheritance
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Q1) Which molecule carries genetic information from the nucleus to where new proteins are manufactured?
A)RNA polymerase
B)rRNA
C)mRNA
D)DNA polymerase
E)tRNA
Q2) Which of these facts would be a fundamental and surprising discovery if found to be true of the DNA for all species in a newly discovered genus of plants?
A)It undergoes mutation.
B)It stores information.
C)It has variability between species.
D)It remains constant among different species.
E)It can be replicated.
Q3) A genetic mutation causes a temporary change to the sequences of bases in DNA.
A)True
B)False
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Regulation of Gene Activity
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Q1) Where in the cell do the translation repressor protein and the proteasome work?
A)on the nuclear membrane
B)within the ribosome
C)in the cytoplasm
D)on the plasma membrane
E)inside the nucleus
Q2) Which statement would be correct for genes controlling development,excluding Hox genes?
A)The sequence is the same in many different organisms.
B)It controls whether the cell will have organelles.
C)It has been conserved as evolution has occurred.
D)The homeobox encodes for a homeodomain.
E)It encodes for DNA binding part of a transcription factor.
Q3) Which developmental changes would have have been caused by genes other than Hox genes?
A)extra toes in foxes
B)extra fingers are fused together in humans
C)missing eyes in squid
D)short arms that are missing bones in mice
E)two pairs of wings in fruit flies
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Chapter 13: Biotechnology and Genomics
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Q1) Which of the following is least an obstacle to cloning animals?
A)It increases the genetic variability of a species.
B)Mutation rate is higher in clones.
C)There are ethical concerns associated with it.
D)It is very expensive.
E)It has a high failure ratE.
Q2) The manipulation of a person's gene(s)is also called
A)gene therapy.
B)gene cloning.
C)gene injection.
D)xenotransplantation.
E)gene doubling.
Q3) This figure shows how a human gene can be cloned.What does "E" represent?
A)Bacterium takes up a recombinant plasmid.
B)DNA ligase seals the gene into place.
C)Restriction enzyme cleaves DNA.
D)Gene cloning occurs.
E)Bacterium makes a protein.
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15
Chapter 14: Evidence of Evolution
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Q1) A type of nonrandom mating that occurs when individuals tend to mate with those having the same phenotype with respect to certain characteristics is referred to as A)disruptive mating.
B)directional mating.
C)artificial mating.
D)assortative mating.
E)homologous mating.
Q2) A biologist finds structures that serve the same function but are not considered similar,nor do they share a recent common ancestor.These are
A)vestigial structures.
B)analogous structures.
C)transitional structures.
D)directional structures.
E)homologous structures.
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Chapter 15: Speciation and Evolution
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Q1) Isolation mechanisms which occur after the formation of a zygote are called
A)gamete isolation mechanisms.
B)temporal isolation mechanisms.
C)postzygotic isolation mechanisms.
D)mechanical isolation mechanisms.
E)prezygotic isolation mechanisms.
Q2) According to the biological species concept,which of the following is true?
A)It relies on traits to define a species.
B)It recognizes that every species has an evolutionary history.
C)It can only be applied to prokaryotes.
D)It can only be applied to asexually reproducing species.
E)It relies primarily on reproductive isolation.
Q3) What is thought to have killed the animals found in the Burgess Shale?
A)global warming
B)volcanic activity
C)a mud slide
D)fire
E)an ice age
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Chapter 16: The Evolutionary History of Life on Earth
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Q1) Which answer choice is mismatched between geologic period and event?
A)Carboniferous--coal-forming forests
B)Jurassic--flowering plants appear
C)Ordovician--nonvascular plants appear on land
D)Devonian--first seed plants appear
E)Cambrian--humans influence plant life
Q2) A biologist is studying structures which have the same function but do not share a common ancestry,which are called
A)homologous structures.
B)parallel structures.
C)analogous structures.
D)divergent structures.
E)cladistic structures.
Q3) Fish appeared in the fossil record during the A)Devonian.
B)Mesozoic.
C)JurassiC.
D)Ordovician.
E)Tertiary.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Evolution of Microbial Life
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Q1) If you were a biologist studying how an RNA virus such as HIV can attack and infect a human cell which contains DNA,you would be studying which of the following enzymes?
A)RNA transcriptase
B)RNA polymerase
C)DNA transcriptase
D)DNA polymerase
E)reverse transcriptase
Q2) Prokaryotes which make their own nutrients with the use of sunlight are referred to as
A)photoautotrophic.
B)saprotrophic.
C)autoheterotrophiC.
D)chemoautotrophic.
E)chemoheterotrophic.
Q3) A small circle of DNA which can replicate independently of the bacterial chromosome is known as an endospore.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Evolution of Protists
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Q1) Which organism has chloroplasts containing pyrenoids?
A)<i>Giardia</i>
B)<i>Euglena</i>
C)<i>Trypanosoma</i>
D)<i>Trichomonas</i>
E)<i>Amoeba</i>
Q2) If you were writing a paper on the beneficial aspects of the protists for humans and the environment,which of the following would be excluded from your paper?
A)They have a parasitic relationship with some organisms
B)They can give off oxygen
C)They can be a major component of plankton
D)They can form symbiotic relationships with corals
E)They serve as a food source for many organisms
Q3) Which algae share most of the characteristics of plants?
A)dinoflagellates
B)diatoms
C)red
D)brown
E)green
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Evolution of Plants and Fungi
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Q1) Which of the following would have to be part of a male flower?
A)the anther
B)the stigma
C)the style
D)the ovary
E)the carpel
Q2) This figure shows the parts of the flower.What does "c" represent?
A)the anther
B)the carpel
C)the stigma
D)the pollen tube
E)the stamens
Q3) This figure shows the alternation of generations.What does "e" represent?
A)meiosis
B)mitosis
C)sporophyte
D)fertilization
E)haploid
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Chapter 20: Evolution of Animals
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Q1) Organisms in which the mouth appears at or near the blastopore are referred to as A)acoelomates.
B)deuterostomes.
C)pseudocoelomates.
D)coelomates.
E)protostomes.
Q2) The major insect body parts are
A)head,cephalothorax,and abdomen.
B)cephalothorax,midsection,and abdomen.
C)head,thorax,and abdomen.
D)head,pyothorax,and metathorax.
E)cephalothorax and abdomen.
Q3) Which feature existed before the adaptation of reptiles for life on land?
A)hard,horny scales
B)internal fertilization
C)shelled egg
D)ectothermic physiology
E)more advanced skeleton
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22
Chapter 21: Evolution of Humans
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Q1) Which is the closest relative of humans?
A)chimpanzees
B)tarsiers
C)lemurs
D)gibbons
E)gorillas
Q2) Lemurs are prosimian primates.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Proconsul is a link between
A)monkeys and apes.
B)gibbons and apes.
C)gibbons and gorillas.
D)chimpanzees and gorillas.
E)gorillas and humans.
Q4) One characteristic of primate evolution is decreasing brain size over time.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Plant Organization and Homeostasis
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Q1) Which of these associations is incorrect?
A)Epidermal cells-protection
B)Stomata-gas exchange
C)Sclerenchyma cells-cell division
D)Sieve-tube cells-sugar transport
E)Xylem cells-water transport
Q2) This figure shows the cross sectional anatomy of a leaf.What does "b" represent?
A)spongy mesophyll
B)cuticle
C)upper epidermis
D)leaf vein
E)palisade mesophyll
Q3) Which two structures function in gas exchange?
A)stomata and lenticels
B)stomata and the palisade layer of a leaf
C)root hairs and nodes of stems
D)root tip and apical meristem
E)lenticels and the cuticle
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Chapter 23: Transport and Nutrition in Plants
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Q1) Which of the following is a macronutrient rather than a micronutrient?
A)Molybdenum (Mo)
B)Boron (B)
C)Manganese (Mn)
D)Chlorine (Cl)
E)Calcium (Ca)
Q2) A biologist is studying the organisms which live in the root nodules found in plants which are called
A)fungi.
B)protists.
C)small parasitic plants.
D)insects.
E)bacteria.
Q3) This figure shows the pathways of water and mineral uptake by the roots.What does "a" represent?
A)apoplast route
B)root hairs
C)symplast route
D)vascular cylinder
E)endodermis and Casparian strip
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Chapter 24: Control of Growth Responses in Plants
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Q1) In root cap cells,there are ________________ which are sensors that detect which direction is down.
A)coleoptiles
B)statoliths
C)phytochromes
D)turgor cells
E)axilary buds
Q2) A plant physiologist is studying the plant's ability to seal off an area which is infected by a virus,bacteria,or fungus,a study of
A)the primary metabolite response.
B)the phytochrome response.
C)the dormancy response.
D)the hypersensitive response.
E)the secondary metabolite responsE.
Q3) Only humans use plants to fight infections.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Reproduction in Plants
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Q1) This figure shows the anatomy of a flower.What does "D" represent?
A)anther
B)sepal C)ovule
D)petal
E)stigma
Q2) Which structure will eventually become the seed?
A)stigma
B)style
C)ovary
D)anther
E)ovules
Q3) If you where studying the part of the flower which is most leaflike,you would be studying which of the following structures?
A)petals
B)stamens
C)carpels
D)anthers
E)sepals
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Animal Organization and Homeostasis
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Q1) Animals which get their heat from the outside environment are referred to as:
A)Homeothermic
B)Endothermic
C)Adipothermic
D)Ectothermic
E)Integuthermic
Q2) Study the following feedback loops and determine where the following effect should be placed.
Effect: blood vessels dilate and sweat glands secrete sweat
A)Temperature above normal - sensor - control center - 98.6 set point - _______negative feedback
B)Temperature above normal - sensor - control center - 98.6 set point - _______positive feedback
C)Temperature above normal - sensor - control center - 88.6 set point - _______negative feedback
D)Temperature below normal - sensor - control center - 98.6 set point - _______negative feedback
E)Temperature below normal - sensor - control center - 88.6 set point - _______negative feedback
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Chapter 27: Coordination by Neural Signaling
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Q1) Due to a car accident,a patient has suffered partial damage to several of his peripheral nerves.Which of the following statements is the most accurate in describing the level of his neural damage?
A)The myelin sheath and nerve fiber has been destroyed but the outer covering of the nerve is still intact.
B)The myelin sheath is intact,but the axon and outer covering of the nerve have both been damaged.
C)The axon has been damaged,but the myelin sheath and outer covering are still intact.
D)The outer covering and bundles of nerve fibers have been damaged but the myelin sheath and axons are still intact.
E)The bundles of nerve fibers and axons have been damaged while the myelin sheath and outer covering are still intact.
Q2) Neurotransmitters only cause stimulation in the nervous system.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Sense Organs
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Q1) Which structure divides the outer ear from the middle ear?
A)The pinna
B)The malleus
C)The round window
D)The auditory tube
E)The tympanic membrane
Q2) This figure shows the anatomy of the human ear.What does "e" represent?
A)The auditory canal
B)The semicircular canals
C)The cochlea
D)The tympanic membrane
E)The malleus
Q3) Which of the following functions to bend light rays?
A)Lens and cornea
B)Rods and cones
C)Ciliary body
D)Choroid
E)Iris and pupil
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Chapter 29: Locomotion and Support Systems
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Q1) If you were studying the neuromuscular transmitter that is released from the axon terminals you would be studying:
A)Lactic acid
B)Acetylcholine
C)Creatine phosphate
D)Calcium ions
E)ATP
Q2) Which of the following joints would be immovable?
A)A suture between two cranial bones
B)The joints between vertebrae
C)The pubic symphysis
D)The knee
E)The hip
Q3) The pads of fibrocartilage between the vertebrae are referred to as:
A)Myosin disks
B)Intervertebral disks
C)Articular disks
D)Axial disks
E)Synovial disks
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Chapter 30: Circulation and Cardiovascular Systems
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Q1) A biologist is studying types of cells called T cells and B cells.Based on this information you would conclude that he or she is studying which of the following?
A)Erythrocytes
B)Monocytes
C)Lymphocytes
D)Neutrophils
E)Thrombocytes
Q2) A circulatory system would have all of the following functions except:
A)It takes oxygen to tissues.
B)It takes waste away from tissues.
C)It takes carbon monoxide away from tissues.
D)It takes carbon dioxide away from tissues.
E)It takes nutrients to tissues.
Q3) Which of the following is not a correct association?
A)Arteries-lack valves
B)Capillaries-oxygen and nutrient exchange
C)Arteries-high blood pressure
D)Veins-high blood pressure
E)Veins-have valves
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Chapter 31: Lymph Transport and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) This figure shows the vessels and organs of the lymphatic system.What does "d" represent?
A)The spleen
B)The thymus gland
C)The axillary lymph nodes
D)The tonsils
E)The inguinal lymph nodes
Q2) If you were studying disorders that are classified by the failure of the immune system to distinguish between foreign tissue and the self-antigens which make up the bodies own tissue you would be studying which of the following?
A)Antibody-mediated disorders
B)Anaphylactic disorders
C)Autoimmune disorders
D)Monoclonal disorders
E)Self-antigen disorders
Q3) The skin is used as a defense mechanism against pathogens.
A)True
B)False
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33
Chapter 32: Digestive Systems and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The large intestine has a large population of the bacteria Escherichia coli.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Organisms which are parasites are described as ____________ feeders.
A)Filter
B)Suspension
C)Fluid
D)Bulk
E)Substrate
Q3) The main function of the esophagus is to:
A)Digest proteins
B)Digest carbohydrates
C)Transport food from the small intestine to the large intestine
D)Transport food from the mouth to the stomach
E)Transport food from the stomach to the small intestine
Q4) Most nutrients are absorbed by the stomach.
A)True
B)False
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Gas Exchange and Transport in Animals
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Q1) When air moves in and out by the same route it is referred to as:
A)Inspiration ventilation
B)Intercostal ventilation
C)Expiratory ventilation
D)Tidal ventilation
E)Diaphragm ventilation
Q2) The vocal cords are found in the:
A)Bronchi
B)Nose
C)Larynx
D)Lungs
E)Pharynx
Q3) Which respiratory organ normally allows both air and food passage?
A)Bronchi
B)Trachea
C)Larynx
D)Pharynx
E)Nasal cavity
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35
Chapter 34: Osmoregulation and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which mechanism used to form urine requires a high blood pressure?
A)Glomerular filtration
B)Tubular secretion
C)Tubular reabsorption
D)Countercurrent reabsorption
E)Glomerular reabsorption
Q2) Normally,concentrations of metabolically important substances,such as glucose,are:
A)High in the glomerular filtrate but only a trace in urine
B)Low in glomerular filtrate but high in urine
C)High in glomerular filtrate and urine
D)Low in both glomerular filtrate and urine
E)Excluded from entering the excretory system altogether
Q3) When renin is released it will eventually:
A)Lower blood pressure
B)Lower blood volume
C)Convert angiotensin II to angiotensin I
D)Increase blood pressure for homeostasis
E)Inhibit aldosterone secretion
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Chapter 35: Coordination by Hormone Signaling
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Q1) If you were studying the hormone which is responsible for lowering blood glucose you would be studying which of the following?
A)Oxytocin
B)Glucagon
C)Insulin
D)Melatonin
E)Glucocorticoids
Q2) ______________ is the most important mineralocorticoid produced by the endocrine system.
A)Oxytocin
B)Melatonin
C)Aldosterone
D)Epinephrine
E)Glucagon
Q3) Which of the following hormones require iodine?
A)Insulin
B)Parathyroid hormone
C)Cortisol
D)Thyroxine
E)Aldosterone
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Chapter 36: Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sac that surrounds the fetus and usually ruptures just before childbirth is the:
A)Gastrula
B)Allantois
C)Yolk sac
D)Amnion
E)Archenteron
Q2) A biologist is repeating the Hans Spemann experiment in which he observed the formation of a grey crescent which has formed after fertilization.Based on this information you would conclude that he or she is studying which of the following organisms?
A)A fish
B)A human
C)A reptile
D)A chicken
E)A frog
Q3) Sexual reproduction increases genetic diversity in a population.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Population Ecology
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Q1) If you were studying biotic factors which affect population size,you would most likely be studying which of the following?
A)Logistical-dependent factors
B)Carrying capacity-dependent factors
C)Density-dependent factors
D)Density-independent factors
E)Biotic-independent factors
Q2) A biologist is counting the number of individuals of a population per unit area.She is trying to determine the
A)Population frequency
B)Population density
C)Population capacity
D)Population distribution
E)Population potential
Q3) Equilibrium species are more likely to go extinct when compared to opportunistic species.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 38: Behavioral Ecology
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Q1) Why is it an advantage for a female cardinal to choose a brightly colored male as her mate?
A)A brightly colored male is less attractive to predators
B)Brightly colored males are able to camouflage the nest with their red feathers
C)Brightly colored males tend to be healthier
D)A brightly colored male sings the loudest
E)A brightly colored male will help her raise their offspring
Q2) If you were studying a very rapid kind of communication that works even at a distance and in the dark you would be studying which of the following?
A)Chemical communication
B)Auditory communication
C)Visual communication
D)Tactile communication
E)Pheromone communication
Q3) Which type of communication occurs when one animal touches another?
A)Chemical communication
B)Visual communication
C)Tactile communication
D)Auditory communication
E)Pheromone communication
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Chapter 39: Community and Ecosystem Ecology
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Q1) Which of these resources is the least likely to generate competition between two different species living in the same area?
A)Mates
B)Sunlight
C)Minerals
D)Space
E)Food
Q2) Another name for heterotrophs is consumer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Fungi and bacteria are detritus-feeders,also known as:
A)Autotrophs
B)Carnivores
C)Decomposers
D)Omnivores
E)Herbivores
Q4) Secondary succession occurs in an area where no soil is present.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Major Ecosystems of the Biosphere
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Q1) Which ecosystem contains the greatest diversity of species and total amount of living matter?
A)African savanna
B)Tundra
C)Taiga
D)Temperate deciduous forest
E)Tropical rain forest
Q2) The coral reef community would be described as:
A)A community based on animals that migrate from one area of the ocean to another
B)A hard stony desert made of plants with exoskeletons
C)A common feature on all ocean bottoms but can only be seen in shallow water
D)Undersea flowers
E)A densely populated community that occurs in shallow,warm,tropical waters
Q3) Which of the following is not a freshwater community?
A)Streams
B)Lakes
C)Estuaries
D)Rivers
E)Ponds
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Conservation Biology
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Q1) In what way are humans exposing wild populations to diseases they would normally not be exposed to?
A)As human communities expand,we are encroaching on species habitat.This causes them to become exposed to diseases they normally would not be exposed to
B)As humans spend more time in nature,they are exposing wild populations to our diseases
C)As humans increase the number of animals they domesticate,we are exposing them to diseases they are not used to.When the animals are released back into the wild they carry the diseases with them
D)The overuse of antibiotics have selected for the strongest diseases to continue within our population.This has enabled them to spread to wild populations as well
E)The illegal harvest of wild species is causing them to become exposed to many diseases they would normally not be exposed to
Q2) Nonrenewable resources are in unlimited supply.
A)True
B)False
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