Life Sciences
Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Life Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the structure, function, and processes of living organisms, ranging from microorganisms to plants, animals, and humans. The course covers fundamental concepts in biology, including cell theory, genetics, evolution, ecology, and physiology. Students will examine how living systems interact with each other and their environments, while also gaining knowledge about recent advances in biotechnology, molecular biology, and environmental science. Emphasis is placed on developing scientific inquiry skills, critical thinking, and the ability to analyze biological data, preparing students for further study or careers in health, research, and environmental sectors.
Recommended Textbook
Biology 11th Edition by Sylvia Mader
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Chapter 1: A View of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Choose which of the the following statements is a hypothesis for an experiment.
A)Based on the data collected during an experiment,S.aureus grows better at body temperature than room temperature.
B)Based on previous experience,it is predicted that S.aureus will grow better at body temperature than at room temperature.
C)S.aureus grew equally well at room temperature and at body temperature.
D)Based on the data collected during the experiment,it is confirmed that S.aureus grew better at room temperature.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following terms best describes the collection of scientific data through observation in the field,such as observing the behavior of birds?
A)a scientific model
B)an experiment
C)descriptive research
D)a scientific theory or principle
E)experimental results
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Basic Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the atomic number of an element is 6 and the atomic mass is 12.01,how many protons are there in the nucleus?
A)12
B)6
C)24
D)52
Answer: B
Q2) If an element contains 8 electrons how many electrons will be placed in the 2nd valence shell?
A)6
B)2
C)8
D)5
E)11
Answer: A
Q3) Draw three water molecules and the hydrogen bonding that may occur between the molecules.Define hydrogen bonding and explain how and why it occurs.
Answer: NOT ANSWER
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Chapter 3: The Chemistry of Organic Molecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are structural carbohydrate molecules?
A)starch and glycogen
B)starch and cellulose
C)glycogen and cellulose
D)cellulose and chitin
E)glycogen and chitin
Answer: D
Q2) ATP is a protein that supplies energy to the cell.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a protein function?
A)support
B)transportation
C)defense
D)motion
E)insulation
Answer: E
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Chapter 4: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA is housed within the nucleus,but the mRNA code needs to leave in order to be translated into a protein.How does the mRNA code leave the nucleus if the nucleus is surrounded by the nuclear envelope?
A)The nuclear envelope dissolves in order to allow the mRNA code to leave.
B)The nuclear envelope contains pores that allow the mRNA to exit through.
C)A vesicle will bud off from the nuclear envelope containing the mRNA.
D)The mRNA will be coded into a protein within the nucleus.Then the protein leaves the nucleus.
Q2) Which is NOT a characteristic of mitochondria?
A)A mitochondrion has two membranes.
B)Mitochondria are the site of cellular respiration.
C)Mitochondria have a single membrane for cellular respiration.
D)Mitochondria contain DNA and ribosomes.
E)The inner space of the mitochondrion contains a fluid matrix.
Q3) A multicellular organism like a rabbit will be _______________.
A)composed of many cells that are all the same type.
B)composed of a single cell.
C)composed of a variety of different cell types.
D)composed of one giant cell.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Membrane Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Imagine a person has a genetic disorder that prevents them from producing the protein collagen,what types of cellular issues will they be faced with?
A)The cell will not have the ability to divide properly.
B)The cell will not have the ability to regulate the movement of molecules through the membrane.
C)The cell would not be recognized by the body's immune system.
D)The cell would not have the ability to resist stretching.
E)All of the choices are plausible.
Q2) Fluidity of a membrane increases as the percentage of unsaturated fatty acids in the phospholipids goes up.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In a phospholipid bilayer,the
A)phosphate groups are hydrophobic.
B)fatty acid tails are ionized.
C)fatty acid tails are hydrophilic.
D)proteins are located only between the two layers.
E)phosphate heads are oriented toward the exterior of the cell or toward the cytoplasm.
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Chapter 6: Metabolism: Energy and Enzymes
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Q1) ATP is considered to be
A)an enzyme used widely in all kinds of cells.
B)a coenzyme used to inhibit or activate different enzymes.
C)a molecule that carries a great deal of chemical energy in a chemical bond.
D)the precursor of a high-energy membrane-bounded protein.
Q2) Astrophysicists explain that eventually the sun will swell to become a red giant,engulf the earth and "burn out" with all forms of energy dispersing in a final "heat death." Compared with conditions today,the entropy of the universe then will
A)have increased greatly.
B)have decreased greatly.
C)remain the same because energy cannot be created or destroyed.
Q3) Of the following,which process will not denature a protein?
A)heating to temperatures above 100 C
B)addition of strong acids or strong bases
C)phosphorylation
D)addition of distilled water
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Chapter 7: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) C-4 plants
A)store carbon dioxide temporarily as oxaloacetate.
B)are found in hot dry climates.
C)have a net photosynthetic rate two to three times that of C-3 plants.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) What are the end products of photosynthesis?
A)water and carbon dioxide
B)water and oxygen
C)oxygen and carbohydrate
D)carbohydrate and water
Q3) The function of sunlight in photosynthesis is to:
A)reduce NADPH to NADP
B)fix O<sub>2</sub> in the Calvin cycle
C)excite electrons in chlorophyll
D)combine carbon dioxide and water to form ATP and NADPH
Q4) Which of these is NOT a major photosynthetic pigment in plants?
A)chlorophyll a
B)chlorophyll b
C)chlorophyll c
D)carotenoid pigments
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Cellular Respiration
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first reaction in the citric acid cycle is binding
A)carbon dioxide to a four-carbon (C<sub>4</sub>)molecule.
B)carbon dioxide to a five-carbon (C<sub>5</sub>)molecule.
C)acetyl-CoA to a C<sub>5</sub> molecule.
D)acetyl-CoA to a C<sub>4</sub> molecule.
Q2) Acetyl-CoA is produced from
A)pyruvate and a coenzyme.
B)citric acid and a coenzyme.
C)ATP and pyruvate.
D)CO<sub>2</sub> and pyruvate.
E)citric acid and CO<sub>2</sub>.
Q3) The correct sequence for aerobic metabolic breakdown of glucose is
A)glycolysis-preparatory reaction--cirtric acid cycle--electron transport system
B)preparatory reaction--glycolysis---electron transport--citric acid cycle
C)electron transport system--citric acid cycle---preparatory reaction--glycolysis
D)None of the choices are correct.
Q4) Glycolysis occurs before the preparatory reaction and the citric acid cycle.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: The Cell Cycle and Cellular Reproduction
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Q1) Which statement below best describes the difference between mitosis and cytokinesis?
A)mitosis is the portion of the cell cycle that divides the nuclear material while cytokinesis divides the cytoplasm
B)mitosis is the portion of the cell cycle that divides the cytoplasm while cytokinesis divides the nuclear material
C)mitosis is the portion of the cell cycle that uses a contractile ring to divide the nuclear material while cytokinesis uses the contractile ring to divide the cell membrane
D)mitosis is the portion of the cell cycle that uses a cell plate to divide the cell membrane in plant cells while cytokinesis uses a contractile ring to divide the cell membrane in animal cells
Q2) Cancer cells require many nutrients,which are supplied by blood vessels.The growth of new blood vessels to cancerous tissue is called:
A)angiogenesis
B)metastasis
C)carcinogenesis
D)apotosis
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Chapter 10: Meiosis and Sexual Reproduction
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Q1) Monosomy occurs when an individual has only one of a particular type of chromosome.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Where in the human male does spermatogenesis occur?
A)ovaries
B)prostate gland
C)epididymus
D)testes
Q3) A change in the chromosome number resulting from nondisjunction is called euploidy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) During which stage of meiosis are the bivalents arranged along the equator?
A)prophase I
B)metaphase II
C)anaphase II
D)prophase II
E)metaphase I
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Chapter 11: Mendelian Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) If individuals exhibiting a dominant phenotype are crossed and produce only offspring with the dominant phenotype,what would be the logical genotype of the parents?
A)both are homozygous recessive B)one is heterozygous and one is homozygous dominant C)both are homozygous dominant D)both are heterozygous E)two of the options may be correct
Q2) Which allele combination represents a recessive individual?
A)aa
B)AA
C)Aa
D)None of these represent a recessive individual
Q3) In a case of incomplete dominance,the phenotypic ratio of the F<sub>2</sub> generation is the same as the genotypic ratio.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Each gamete carries one factor,now called an allele,for each inherited trait.
A)True
B)False
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Molecular Biology of the Gene
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Sample Questions
Q1) Scientists have created genetically modified organisms (GMOs)by isolating and then transferring the jellyfish gene for green fluorescent protein into pigs,bacteria,plants and mice.The result was bioluminescent organisms! These experiments demonstrate that:
A)jellyfish genes may be transferred into other aquatic ectotherms,but not mammals
B)genes have no difficulty crossing the species barrier
C)animal genes will not function if transferred into animals
D)genes can only be transferred to other organisms within the same species
Q2) Transformation of bacteria was shown to occur when _______ bacteria were injected into mice and the mice _______.
A)live S strain; died
B)live R strain; didn't die
C)live S and R strain; died
D)live R strain and dead S strain; died
E)live S strain and dead R strain; didn't die
Q3) A unit of a chromosome that consists of DNA wound around a core of eight histone proteins is a transposon.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a method of posttranscriptional control?
A)transcription factors
B)the life span of a mRNA molecule
C)differential processing of mRNA
D)how fast the mRNA leaves the nucleus
E)Both C and D are methods of posttranscriptional control.
Q2) Transposons
A)are specific DNA sequences that move within and between chromosomes.
B)alter the expression of neighboring genes especially if the transposon is a regulator gene.
C)have been discovered in corn,fruit flies,bacteria,and humans.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) The DNA of a _______ is wrapped around histone molecules to form a "beaded string."
A)prokaryote
B)eukaryote
C)bacterium
D)All of the above.
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15
Chapter 14: Biotechnology and Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following statements about CNVs are true EXCEPT
A)CNVs occur when genes have changed their number.
B)the changes may result from fork stalling and template switching.
C)CNVs have known links to disease.
D)All of the above are true.
Q2) It is estimated that humans have approximately ______ base pairs in our genome.
A)3 billion
B)2.5 million
C)180 million
D)12 trillion
Q3) Gene therapy is being used in cancer patients to make healthy cells more tolerant of chemotherapy and to make tumors more vulnerable to chemotherapy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The function of the polymerase chain reaction in genetic engineering is to A)cut DNA into many fragments.
B)carry DNA into a new cell.
C)link together newly joined fragments of DNA.
D)make multiple copies of a specific segment of DNA.
E)separate fragments of DNA by their length and electrical charges.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Darwin and Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is/are true about natural selection?
A)It acts on genotypes rather than phenotypes.
B)It assures the survival of each fit individual.
C)On average,it favors the survival of more young with adaptive characteristics.
D)It always selects for more complex forms.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Natural selection was independently proposed as a means of evolution by Darwin and A)Lyell.
B)Wallace.
C)LeClerc.
D)Lamarck.
Q3) What evidence would be studied by a biogeographer?
A)plate tectonics
B)amount of genetic similarity among current populations
C)ocean currents and wind patterns
D)ranges and migration patterns of animals
E)All of the choices are correct.
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17
Chapter 16: How Populations Evolve
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Sample Questions
Q1) A certain species of butterfly varies in color from white to dark blue.The birds found in the same area feed on the white or lightly colored butterflies,leaving butterflies that are darkly colored.This may result in what type of selection?
A)stabilizing selection
B)disruptive selection
C)directional selection
Q2) Which of the following would change the allele frequencies of a population?
A)DNA is stable from generation to generation and does not change,so allele frequencies do not change.
B)Tall people in a population preferentially marry other tall people and do not marry people who are short or average height.
C)A population on an island remains isolated and no one leaves or moves onto the island.
D)All of the above would change allele frequencies of a population.
Q3) The bottleneck effect is thought to be responsible for the loss of variability and loss of fertility in the cheetah species.
A)True
B)False
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18
Chapter 17: Speciation and Macroevolution
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Q1) Descriptions of new species of insects are more likely to contain diagrams of the shape of the male genitalia than head,wing,or leg parts.Why?
A)This is where mutations usually express themselves in animals.
B)Radiation damage to genes usually occurs in genitalia.
C)Small changes in the genitalia cause reproductive isolation while a single species can tolerate wider variation in head,wing,and leg morphology.
D)Arthropods have hard exoskeletons so head,wing,and leg structures can't vary as much.
E)This is the convention or custom of entomology.
Q2) Which of the following scenarios is explained by adaptive radiation?
A)The average running speed of a cheetah increases each generation due to the gazelles getting faster.
B)The toxicity level of the bark of a species of plant increases due to constantly being attacked by aphids.
C)The color pattern of the moths living in the woods of England become darker as the levels of pollution increase during the Industrial Revolution.
D)All of these are examples of adaptive radiation.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Origin and History of Life
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Q1) Biological evolution differs from chemical evolution in that it would have been possible only after the development of A)true cells.
B)nucleic acids.
C)enzymes.
D)a metabolic pathway.
Q2) The lack of oxygen in the ancient Earth's atmosphere was beneficial because oxygen combines with organic molecules to prevent them from forming polymers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The place where two plates meet and scrape past one another,creating stress that results in earthquakes is a
A)subduction zone.
B)transform boundary.
C)oceanic ridge.
D)supercontinent.
Q4) Organisms today are living in the Pleistocene epoch of the Cenozoic era.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Taxonomy,systematics,and Phylogeny
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Q1) Which type of trait is more valuable in determining the evolutionary relationship between two organisms?
A)derived
B)ancestral
C)Both traits are equally valuable in determining the evolutionary relationship between two organisms.
D)Neither trait is useful in determining the evolutionary relationship between two organisms.
Q2) Which kingdom or supergroup is characterized by organisms that are heterotrophic by ingestion?
A)Animal
B)Plant
C)Fungi
D)Protists
Q3) The use of a molecular clock may be used to indicate relatedness and evolutionary time
A)if nucleic acid changes are neutral and not tied to adaptation.
B)if nucleic acid changes occur at a fairly constant rate.
C)but still needs to be calibrated with the fossil record.
D)All of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 20: Viruses,bacteria,and Archaea
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Q1) Prokaryotes are now divided into the A)archaea and bacteria.
B)bacteria and cyanobacteria.
C)photosynthetic bacteria and chemosynthetic bacteria.
D)archaea and cyanobacteria.
E)autotrophs and heterotrophs.
Q2) Which description best describes the cell wall of a Gram-positive bacteria?
A)It is composed of a single plasma membrane and a thin outer layer of peptidoglycan.
B)It is composed of a double layer in the plasma membrane and a thin outer layer of peptidoglycan.
C)It is composed of a double layer in the plasma membrane and a thick outer layer of peptidoglycan.
D)It is composed of a single plasma membrane and a thick outer layer of peptidoglycan.
E)It is composed of a single plasma membrane and a thin outer layer of cellulose.
Q3) A lichen is a symbiotic relationship between cyanobacteria and fungi.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Protist Evolution and Diversity
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Q1) Which of the following pairs of Protists would be most closely related due to both of them possessing plastids?
A)Archaeplastids & Rhizaria
B)Archaeplastids & Chromalveolata
C)Rhizaria & Chromalveolata
D)Amoebozoa & Excavata
Q2) The reason biologists believe that green algae and land plants,both members of the supergroup Archaeplastida,are related is because both of them possess chlorophyll a & b as well as cell walls made of starch.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Slime molds,found in the Supergroup Amoebozoa,were once classified as fungi.What characteristics of the slime molds distinguish them from fungi?
A)Slime molds lack cell walls.
B)They are flagellated cells at certain stages of the life cycle.
C)The vegetative state of the slime mold is mobile and amoeboid.
D)All of these characteristics distinguish slime molds from fungi.
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Chapter 22: Fungi Evolution and Diversity
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Q1) A sexual spore produced by a sac fungus is called a(n)
A)mycelium.
B)conidiospore.
C)ascospore.
D)basidiospore.
E)hypha.
Q2) In time,bread becomes stale and grows mold on the exposed surfaces.Why does mold not begin growing inside the bread loaf?
A)Mold can grow only on dry surfaces.
B)Only molds at the surface of the bread can get oxygen to respire.
C)Mold actually begins from anywhere inside but produces colored spores only at the surface.
D)There is an antibiotic antagonism between the bread mold and the internal yeasts that made the bread rise.
E)The bread was sterilized when it was baked and thereafter mold spores from the air settle only on the outside of the cooled bread.
Q3) Fungi are thought to have been the first kind of eukaryotic cells that evolved.
A)True
B)False
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Plant Evolution and Diversity
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Q1) The dominant plants in modern times are the _________ due to their relationship with animal pollinators.
A)gymnosperms
B)angiosperms
C)club mosses
D)ferns
Q2) In the fern life cycle,the ______ generation is dominant.
A)haploid gametophyte
B)diploid gametophyte
C)haploid sporophyte
D)diploid sporophyte
Q3) Which of the following groups of plants contain microphylls?
A)Lycophytes
B)Pteridophytes
C)Bryophytes
D)Gymnosperms
E)Angiosperms
Q4) The gymnosperms produce seeds that are enclosed within a fruit.
A)True
B)False
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Flowering Plants: Structure and Organization
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Q1) The root endodermis
A)forms a boundary between the cortex and inner vascular cylinder of the root.
B)contains impermeable lignin and suberin called a Casparian strip that controls water and nutrient movement between adjacent cell walls.
C)is two to three layers of spherical cells.
D)All of the choices are true of root endodermis.
E)forms a boundary between the cortex and inner vascular cylinder of the root and contains impermeable lignin and suberin called a Casparian strip that controls water and nutrient movement between adjacent cell walls is correct.
Q2) Which of the following tissues makes up the majority of the interior of the plant?
A)ground tissue
B)epidermal tissue
C)meristem
D)vascular tissue
Q3) The outer annual rings where transport occurs is called heartwood.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Flowering Plants: Nutrition and Transport
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Q1) The absence of which of the following micronutrient would inhibit the plants ability to form chlorophyll?
A)Zinc
B)Chlorine
C)Magnesium
D)Calcium
E)Manganese
Q2) Select the correct sequence for mineral uptake in plants.
A.The root cells will initially uptake the minerals.
B.The upwards movement of water will carry the minerals towards the leaves.
C.Some of the minerals are deposited in the leaf cells.
D.The minerals move into the xylem of the vascular tissue.
E.Some of the minerals leave the xylem and enter the various tissues that require them.
A)a - d - b - e - c
B)a - b - d - e - c
C)c- a - d - b - e
D)d - b - e - a - c
E)d - b - c - a - e
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Chapter 26: Flowering Plants: Control of Growth Responses
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Q1) Horticulturists often use ______ and other growth regulators applied as a paste to plant cuttings to stimulate root formation.
A)ethylene
B)abscisic acid
C)cytokinins
D)indolacetic acid (IAA)
Q2) Which of the following statements is NOT correct about a circadian rhythm?
A)These rhythms tend to persist even in the absence of daily light cues.
B)An example is the opening of stomates in the morning and their closing at night.
C)If plants are maintained in total darkness or total light,their circadian rhythm acts on a faster time scale.
D)The primary usefulness of circadian rhythms seems to be to measure day-length changes so plants respond appropriately to seasonal environmental changes.
Q3) If a plant is placed on its side,cells on the lower side of the stem will respond to gravity and elongate,making the stem turn so that it continues to grow downward.
A)True
B)False
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28
Chapter 27: Flowering Plants: Reproduction
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Q1) Which of the flowering plant structures is used to attract a specific type of pollinator?
A)petals
B)stamens
C)sepals
D)carpel
Q2) Which of the following statements is NOT true about the germinated pollen grain?
A)The generative cell produces two sperm.
B)The pollen tube forms in the style.
C)The tube cell produces the pollen tube.
D)There are two sperm nuclei that move down the pollen tube to the micropyle.
E)Fertilization occurs when the pollen grain germinates.
Q3) Which of the following structures is found in the eudicot seed but not in the monocot seed?
A)radicle
B)cotyledon
C)plumule
D)pericarp
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Chapter 28: Invertebrate Evolution
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Q1) Animals are classified according to all of the following features EXCEPT
A)presence or absence of segmentation.
B)mode of reproduction.
C)type of body symmetry.
D)number of germ layers.
E)molecular data.
Q2) In deuterostomes,
A)cleavage is radial and the fate of the cells is indeterminate.
B)spiral cleavage occurs.
C)the fate of cells is fixed and determinate.
D)the mouth appears at or near the blastopore.
Q3) Which reproductive method would most likely lead to the greatest chance of success in sea stars?
A)fragmentation
B)sexual reproduction
C)budding
D)None of these methods would be successful.
Q4) The structure that directs food into the body of a rotifer is called the corona.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Vertebrate Evolution
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Q1) Vertebrates without jaws would be the A)rays.
B)turtles.
C)lampreys.
D)eels.
Q2) The position of mammals in evolution is best described as A)they dominate life in the sea.
B)they were among the first animals to live on land and their diversity is greater than all living things known.
C)they arose from mammal-like reptiles in the Jurassic but remained small and insignificant while dinosaurs dominated the land.
D)mammals gave rise to birds.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) ______ were the first vertebrates to live on land and they evolved from _____.
A)Amphibians; fish
B)Reptiles; amphibians
C)Mammals; reptiles
D)Amphibians; lancelets
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Chapter 30: Human Evolution
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Q1) Mistakenly,it is sometimes said that "man comes from monkeys." A more correct way to explain the apparent sequence of human evolution is
A)monkeys have evolved less than humans.
B)humans and monkeys share a common ancestor.
C)humans and monkeys are biologically identical.
D)evolution leads toward more perfect forms and humans therefore came after modern monkeys.
Q2) The earliest fossils of archaic humans known to have produced tools are
A)Australopithecus afarensis.
B)Australopithecus garhi.
C)Proconsul.
D)Homo habilis.
E)Homo erectus.
Q3) All primates have thumbs,but only Old World monkeys,great apes,and humans have truly opposable thumbs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Animal Organization and Homeostasis
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Q1) Which of the following structures begins in the dermis and extends to the surface of the epidermis?
A)oil and sweat glands
B)hair follicles and nerve fibers
C)sweat glands and hair follicles
D)oil glands and hair follicles
Q2) What type of fiber accounts for the strength of various connective tissues?
A)elastic
B)collagen
C)actin
D)reticular
Q3) Which statement is NOT true about cartilage?
A)Cartilage cells are located in small spaces called lacunae.
B)The matrix of cartilage includes calcium salts.
C)The matrix of cartilage is both solid and flexible.
D)The human fetal skeleton is made up of cartilage.
E)Adult bodies possess structures that are made up of cartilage such as the nose,ear,and pads between the vertebrae in the backbone.
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Chapter 32: Circulation and Cardiovascular Systems
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Q1) All capillary beds have blood running to them at all times.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Identify the correct sequence of events for the formation of a blood clot.
A)a - e - d - b - f - c
B)e - d - b - f - c - a
C)a- b - f - c - e - d
D)f - c - d - a - e - b
Q3) When you step on a cockroach or smash a fly,the blood appears colorless because
A)the blood is enclosed in a closed circulatory system.
B)the blood is actually a colorless hemolymph that carries oxygen on molecules other than reddish hemoglobin.
C)there are no cells in the hemolymph.
D)it does not contain hemoglobin or any other respiratory pigment.
Q4) What is the correct order of blood flow through the cardiovascular system?
A)Heart - artery - arterioles - capillaries - venules - veins
B)Heart - arterioles - artery - capillary - venules - veins
C)Heart - artery - arterioles - capillaries - veins - venules
D)Capillaries - venules - veins - heart - arterioles - artery
E)Capillaries - arterioles - artery - heart - venules - veins
Page 34
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Chapter 33: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Q1) The clonal selection theory states that
A)all B cells are exact clones of each other.
B)all T cells are exact clones of each other.
C)when a B or T cell is stimulated by encountering the correct antigen,it divides to form a clone of cells that will respond to the same antigen.
D)when a B or T cell is stimulated by encountering the correct antibody,it divides to form a clone of cells that will respond to the same antibody.
Q2) The first line of defense against invading microorganisms is nonspecific.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Complement and interferon are specific kinds of antibodies.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The presence of antibodies in a newborn baby is most often due to
A)exposure of the baby to antigens after birth.
B)antibodies that crossed the placenta from the mother's blood.
C)immunity developed after birth.
D)natural immunity developed in the baby before birth.
E)antibodies are inherited from the father.
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Chapter 34: Digestive Systems and Nutrition
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Q1) Food mixes with gastric juices in the stomach to form a thick creamy mass called chyme.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following statements are true about the clam's digestion EXCEPT
A)the clam is a filter feeder.
B)the clam has a single opening for the entry of food and the exit of digestive wastes.
C)the clam is a continuous feeder.
D)small food particles are collected on the gills and moved by cilia to the mouth.
Q3) Which of the following statements concerning dietary protein is true?
A)Protein should supply the bulk of our dietary calories.
B)It is not possible for vegetarians to have a balanced diet with adequate protein intake.
C)The average American eats about half the recommended protein.
D)Dietary protein is digested to nucleic acids,which are used to make DNA.
E)Growth in children may be delayed or stunted if essential amino acids are not present in their diets.
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Chapter 35: Respiratory Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following disorder is not associated with the lower respiratory tract?
A)Asthma
B)Pneumonia
C)Sinus infection
D)Pulmonary tuberculosis
E)Emphysema
Q2) The iron in a hemoglobin molecule is actually what binds the oxygen.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Pulmonary tuberculosis in an otherwise healthy individual may indicate a compromised immune system or HIV infection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Animals must continually acquire oxygen and release carbon dioxide because they do not have a storage area for gases.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: Body Fluid Regulation and Excretory Systems
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Q1) The concentration of protein in the blood is higher in post-glomerular blood as compared with that in arterial blood because
A)protein is digested and then concentrated in glomerular (Bowman's)capsule.
B)the kidney manufactures and then stores protein in the glomerulus.
C)reabsorption of protein occurs.
D)water passes into the capsule,but protein molecules are too large to move into the capsule and are concentrated in the blood.
E)water concentration increases and protein concentrations decrease.
Q2) Nutrient molecules are taken back into the blood from the urinary filtrate by means of
A)tubular reabsorption.
B)tubular secretion.
C)osmosis.
D)glomerular filtration.
Q3) The human kidney has an outer cortex,an inner medulla,and a renal pelvis that collects and stores urine before it leaves the kidney.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Neurons and Nervous Systems
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Q1) The connection space between the dendrite of one cell and the axon of another cell is called a(n)
A)synapse.
B)neurotransmitter.
C)axonic connection.
D)threshold.
Q2) The sodium-potassium pump is primarily responsible for
A)the resting potential.
B)the action potential.
C)the excretion of salts.
D)the contraction of muscle fibers.
E)maintaining isotonic water balance.
Q3) When the dorsal root of a spinal nerve is cut
A)death immediately occurs.
B)incoming sensory nerve impulses are lost.
C)outgoing motor nerve impulses are lost.
D)impulses do not cross over to the other side of the body.
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Chapter 38: Sense Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following eye conditions is NOT treated with corrective lenses?
A)farsightedness
B)cataracts
C)nearsightedness
D)astigmatism
E)nearsightedness and astigmatism are not treated with corrective lens.
Q2) Arthropods
A)have camera-type eyes.
B)have eyespots that sense the direction and intensity of light.
C)make use of a wider range of the electromagnetic spectrum than humans.
D)have compound eyes composed of independent units called ommatidia.
E)All of the above are true.
Q3) The organ of Corti consists of the
A)hammer,anvil,and stirrup.
B)eardrum,round window,and oval window.
C)hair cells and tectorial membrane.
D)saccule,utricle,and cochlea.
E)cochlea and auditory nerve.
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Chapter 39: Locomotion and Support Systems
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Q1) Which feature of the mammalian skeleton provides an advantage for animals that are land based predators?
A)Walking on their toes.
B)Elongated hindlimbs that propel them forward.
C)Bipedal locomotion on the soles of the feet.
D)Long legs and running on the tips of elongated phalanges.
E)All of these are advantages for land based predators.
Q2) Which of the following lists the correct order of vertebral regions from superior to inferior?
A)thoracic-lumbar-sacrum-cervical-coccyx
B)cervical-lumbar-sacrum-thoracic-coccyx
C)cervical-thoracic-lumbar-sacrum-coccyx
D)lumbar-sacrum-cervical-thoracic-coccyx
E)sacrum-cervical-thoracic-lumbar-coccyx
Q3) One of the major functions of the skeletal system is to store long term sources of energy for the body.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Hormones and Endocrine Systems
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Q1) Which of the following hormones is (are)NOT a product of the anterior lobe of the pituitary?
A)growth hormone
B)antidiuretic hormone
C)gonadotropic hormones
D)thyroid-stimulating hormone
Q2) Which of the following endocrine glands does NOT produce its own hormones,but stores hormones produced by the hypothalamus?
A)thyroid
B)adrenal cortex
C)adrenal medulla
D)posterior pituitary
E)anterior pituitary
Q3) The posterior pituitary gland secretes all of the following EXCEPT A)oxytocin.
B)ADH.
C)prolactin.
D)None of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 41: Reproductive Systems
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Q1) The lining of the uterus that is discharged during the menstrual phase is the A)endocardium.
B)endometrium.
C)oviduct.
D)hymen.
E)myocardium.
Q2) Which of the following is not one of the stages of HIV infection?
A)A greater than 500 CD4 + T cells per microliter of blood.
B)A CD4 + T cell count between 200 and 499 per microliter of blood.
C)A CD4 + T cell count below 200 per microliter of blood.
D)Opportunistic infections.
E)Flat or raised lesions on the penis or vulva.
Q3) Which of the following reproductive technologies would produce the greatest complications in defining the individuals who are considered the parents of the child?
A)Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
B)In vitro fertilization
C)Gamete intrafallopian transfer
D)Artificial insemination by donor
E)Using a surrogate mother
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Animal Development
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Q1) What is the correct order of steps of morphogenesis in Drosophila melanogaster.
A.Gap genes divide the body into broad regions
B.Establishment of anterior / posterior axes
C.Homeotic genes determine which body parts arise from each region
D.Pair-rule genes are activated in order to develop a preliminary segmentation pattern
A)b - a - d - c
B)a - d - c - b
C)b - a - c - d
D)a - b - c - d
E)a - d - b - c
Q2) Differentiation is characterized by
A)cellular division and growth.
B)cells becoming specialized in structure and function.
C)body parts being shaped and patterned into a specific form.
D)All of the choices are correct.
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q3) One of the earliest indications of cell differentiation is cellular movement.
A)True
B)False
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Behavioral Ecology
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Q1) Auditory communication is the most effective form of communication in every environment inhabited by animals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a disadvantage of maintaining a large territory?
A)There will be a large number of females that reside within the territory.
B)There will be a large diversity of food types within the territory.
C)There will be ample room for nesting sites.
D)It will be energetically expensive to control and defend the territory.
E)All of the choices are disadvantages of a large territory.
Q3) Altruism is
A)displaced aggressive behavior.
B)a means of ranking animals in a dominance hierarchy.
C)actions of an animal that immediately benefit others rather than itself.
D)belligerent behavior that helps an animal compete in its society.
Q4) A female chooses a mate by
A)courtship display rituals.
B)selecting the more aggressive and vigorous males.
C)selecting traits that improve the chances of offspring survival.
D)All of the choices apply.
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Chapter 44: Population Ecology
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Q1) The maximum rate of natural increase of a population that occurs under ideal conditions is the
A)population growth.
B)biotic potential.
C)environmental resistance.
D)carrying capacity.
E)density-independent population.
Q2) A pond represents a(n)_______ while the minnows represent a(n)______.
A)population; community
B)population; ecosystem
C)ecosystem; population
D)community; population
E)ecosystem; community
Q3) In trying to limit the growth of a pest,you will have more success if you can reduce the carrying capacity of the environment rather than reduce the population size of the pest.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 45: Community and Ecosystem Ecology
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Q1) Two communities may have exactly the same number of species,yet one might be measured as having a greater species diversity.Why?
A)composition or a listing of the various species in a community
B)a community and all of the abiotic factors associated with it
C)the native species plus the introduced species
D)the potential number of species that should exist in a community minus the species that have gone locally extinct
E)both the number of species and the evenness or relative abundance of individuals of the different species
Q2) Which of the following statements about parasitism is NOT true?
A)The host is generally larger than the parasite.
B)An efficient parasite usually kills its host.
C)Smaller parasites often live as endoparasites within the body of the host.
D)Ectoparasites are attached to the outside of the host's body by specialized organs.
E)Some organisms and all viruses are obligate parasites and must live inside a host.
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Chapter 46: Major Ecosystems of the Biosphere
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Q1) Ocean currents
A)are generated by friction between winds and ocean surfaces.
B)always move clockwise in an ocean basin.
C)are important in shipping but have little effect on living environments.
D)are driven by the Earth's core rotating faster than the ocean water.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Wetlands are generally classified by their vegetation.Wetlands dominated by trees and shrubs are _______ and wetlands dominated by grasses and sedges are _____.
A)marshes; swamps
B)swamps; marshes
C)marshes; pine savannas
D)bogs; swamps
Q3) All of the following are terrestrial biomes EXCEPT A)tundra.
B)lentic systems.
C)coniferous forests.
D)savannas.
E)deserts.
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Chapter 47: Conservation of Biodiversity
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Q1) Which of the following statements about keystone species is NOT true?
A)The extinction of keystone species can lead to other extinctions and a loss of biodiversity.
B)Keystone species are defined as a population subdivided into several small isolated populations due to habitat fragmentation.
C)Examples of keystone species are grizzly bears,bats,beavers and alligators.
D)The numbers of individuals in the keystone species in their respective community may or may not be excessively high.
Q2) If all of the endangered species in the United States were to go extinct the Earth's biodiversity would decrease by _________.
A)approximately .007%
B)approximately 2.3%
C)approximately 10%
D)approximately 3.4%
E)approximately 16.2%
Q3) Conservation biology is a field that relies on multiple other disciplines to support it.
A)True
B)False
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