Life Sciences
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Life Sciences is a multidisciplinary field that explores the structure, function, growth, evolution, and distribution of living organisms, including plants, animals, and microorganisms. The course covers foundational principles of biology, genetics, cell biology, ecology, and physiology, as well as recent advancements in biotechnology and molecular biology. Students will gain an understanding of how living systems interact with each other and their environments, preparing them for further study or careers in healthcare, research, environmental sciences, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Campbell Essential Biology with Physiology 4th Edition by Eric J. Simon
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29 Chapters
1325 Verified Questions
1325 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction- Biology Today
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these is required for natural selection to occur?
A) inheritance
B) unequal reproductive success
C) individual variation
D) all of the above
Answer: D
Q2) Humans are composed of ______ cells.
A) bacterial
B) eukaryotic
C) plant
D) prokaryotic
Answer: B
Q3) More than half of all known species are ______.
A) plants
B) insects
C) bacteria
D) vertebrates
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Essential Chemistry for Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sugar dissolves when stirred into water.The sugar is the ______,the water is the ______,and the sweetened water is the ______.
A) solution... solvent... solute
B) solute... solvent... solution
C) solvent... solute... solution
D) solution... solute... solvent
Answer: B
Q2) In the following reaction,what type of bond is holding the two atoms together? K + Cl K<sup>+</sup> + Cl<sup>-</sup> KCl
A) hydrophilic
B) ionic
C) hydrophobic
D) covalent
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: The Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) A fat that is hydrogenated is ______.
A) more unsaturated
B) easier to digest
C) more solid
D) less likely to cause strokes
Answer: C
Q2) In the following equation,lactose is a ______. galactose + glucose lactose + water
A) nucleic acid
B) fatty acid
C) disaccharide
D) dipeptide
Answer: C
Q3) ______ is a hydroxyl group.
A) -NH<sub>2</sub>
B) -OH
C) -COOH
D) -H
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: A Tour of the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Based on its function in detoxifying drugs,you would expect to find a large amount of smooth ER in ______ cells.
A) brain
B) liver
C) intestinal
D) muscle
Q2) Which of the following is a feature of prokaryotic cells but not eukaryotic cells?
A) pili
B) cell wall
C) flagella
D) DNA
Q3) What type of microscope would be best for studying the detailed structure of the surface of a plasma membrane?
A) light microscope
B) transmission electron microscope
C) scanning electron microscope
D) both a light microscope and an electron microscope
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Chapter 5: The Working Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cell that neither gains nor loses water when it is immersed in a solution is ______.
A) isotonic to its environment
B) hypertonic to its environment
C) hypotonic to its environment
D) metabolically inactive
Q2) In a hypotonic solution,a plant cell will ______.
A) undergo plasmolysis
B) become flaccid
C) burst
D) become turgid
Q3) Which component of the following reaction is the enzyme?
sucrose + sucrase + water sucrase + glucose + fructose
A) sucrose
B) sucrase
C) glucose
D) fructose
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Chapter 6: Cellular Respiration: Obtaining Energy from Food
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Sample Questions
Q1) The second stage of aerobic respiration is ______.
A) ATP production
B) the citric acid cycle
C) lactic acid fermentation
D) glycolysis
Q2) The waste products of cellular respiration include ______.
A) water only
B) carbon dioxide only
C) water and carbon dioxide
D) water and glucose
Q3) Which part of cellular respiration produces the most NADH?
A) electron transport chain
B) citric acid cycle
C) glycolysis
D) Calvin cycle
Q4) The first electron acceptor of cellular respiration is ______.
A) CO<sub>2</sub>
B) O<sub>2</sub>
C) NAD<sup>+</sup>
D) H<sub>2</sub>O
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Chapter 7: Photosynthesis: Using Light to Make Food
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Calvin cycle makes direct use of ______ to make ______.
A) light energy and CO<sub>2</sub>... sugar
B) CO<sub>2</sub>, ATP, and NADPH... sugar and O<sub>2</sub>
C) light energy, CO<sub>2</sub>, and water... sugar and O<sub>2</sub>
D) CO<sub>2</sub>, ATP, and NADPH... sugar
Q2) ______ is the source of the oxygen gas released by a photosystem.
A) H<sub>2</sub>O
B) Chlorophyll a
C) CO<sub>2</sub>
D) C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub>
Q3) The products of the light reactions of photosynthesis are ______.
A) ATP and NADH
B) ATP and NADPH
C) RuBP and O<sub>2</sub>
D) ATP and NADP<sup>+</sup>
Q4) What compound is found at the reaction center of a photosystem?
A) chlorophyll b
B) carotenoids
C) phycobilins
D) chlorophyll a
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Chapter 8: Cellular Reproduction: Cells from Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the best description of the events of anaphase I?
A) Half of the chromosomes inherited from the mother go to one pole along with half of the chromosomes inherited from the father.
B) Sister chromatids separate and the daughter chromosomes migrate to opposite poles.
C) Homologous chromosomes randomly separate and migrate to opposite poles.
D) All of the chromosomes inherited from the mother go to one pole of the cell, and all of the chromosomes inherited from the father go to the other pole.
Q2) Anaphase II is essentially the same as mitotic anaphase except that in anaphase II ______ and in mitotic anaphase ______.
A) the cells are diploid... the cells are haploid
B) chromosomes line up double file in the middle of the cell... chromosomes line up single file in the middle of the cell
C) crossing over occurs... crossing over does not occur
D) the cells are haploid and sister chromatids separate... the cells are diploid and sister chromatids separate
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Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Linked genes are usually
A) found on the X chromosome.
B) found on the Y chromosome.
C) codominant.
D) located close together on a chromosome.
Q2) What name is given to the specific location of a gene on a chromosome?
A) locus
B) chromaddress
C) genotype
D) allele
Q3) An individual with (naturally)curly hair and an individual with (naturally)straight hair mate; all of their offspring have (naturally)wavy hair. What is the relationship between the alleles for hair texture?
A) pleiotropy
B) incomplete dominance
C) wavy hair is dominant to both straight and curly hair
D) codominance
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11
Chapter 10: The Structure and Function of DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a strand of DNA has the sequence AAGCTC,transcription will result in a(n)______.
A) single RNA strand with the sequence TTCGAG
B) DNA double helix with the sequence AAGCTC for one strand and TTCGAG for the complementary strand
C) single RNA strand with the sequence UUCGAG
D) RNA double helix with the sequence UUCGAG for one strand and AAGCUC for the complimentary strand
Q2) What is the ultimate source of all diversity?
A) natural selection
B) sexual recombination
C) meiosis
D) mutation
Q3) In a DNA double helix,adenine pairs with ______ and guanine pairs with ______.
A) cytosine... thymine
B) guanine... adenine
C) thymine... cytosine
D) uracil... cytosine
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Chapter 11: How Genes Are Controlled
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many proto-oncogenes regulate ______.
A) cell growth
B) cell suicide
C) cell division
D) cell repair
Q2) In an operon,the ______ acts as an on/off switch.
A) operator
B) promoter
C) activator
D) repressor
Q3) How can a single RNA transcript be translated into different polypeptides?
A) There is more than one way to splice an RNA transcript.
B) There is more than one way to modify the coded polypeptide.
C) The length of its tail can vary.
D) Two different genes can produce the same RNA transcript, which will then be translated differently.
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Chapter 12: DNA Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these is a genetically modified organism?
A) an organism carrying a gene that was acquired by artificial means
B) the first organism in which a particular mutation has appeared
C) a cloned organism carrying two different alleles
D) an organism that gestated in an artificial womb
Q2) To make restriction fragments,a DNA sample is treated with ______.
A) DNA ligase
B) restriction enzymes
C) gel electrophoresis
D) PCR
Q3) A DNA fragment with a sticky end that reads -ATTCG will bind with another DNA fragment with a sticky end that reads ______.
A) TAAGC-
B) CGGAT-
C) GCCTA-
D) ATTGC-
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Page 14
Chapter 13: How Populations Evolve
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Sample Questions
Q1) The similarity of the embryos of fish,frogs,birds,and humans is evidence of ______.
A) analogy
B) common ancestry
C) genetic drift
D) convergent evolution
Q2) During his trip on the Beagle,Darwin found that ______.
A) plants and animals living in temperate regions were most similar to each other, regardless of the continent on which they were found
B) plants and animals living on a continent seemed more closely related to each other than to plants and animals living in similar regions on other continents
C) fossils found on a particular continent were clearly not related to the plants and animals living on that continent today
D) plants and animals were similar on every continent and in every type of region
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15
Chapter 14: How Biological Diversity Evolves
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Q1) You are examining the fossil record and notice that through time a series of fossils exhibits very little change.During the period of time you are studying,this fossil lineage can be described as exhibiting ______.
A) genetic drift
B) punctuation
C) gradualism
D) equilibrium
Q2) The current geological era is the ______.
A) Paleozoic
B) Cenozoic
C) Mesozoic
D) Cambrian
Q3) ______ is the discipline of biology that focuses on classifying organisms and determining their evolutionary relationships.
A) Taxonomy
B) Epistemology
C) Systematics
D) Biogeography
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Chapter 15: The Evolution of Microbial Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) What accounts for the similarity between seaweeds and plants?
A) Plants are the ancestors of seaweeds.
B) Convergent evolution caused their similarity.
C) Seaweeds are the ancestors of plants.
D) Seaweeds are aquatic plants.
Q2) According to the theory of endosymbiosis,which organelles evolved from small prokaryotes that established residence within other,larger prokaryotes?
A) vacuoles and lysosomes
B) Golgi apparatus and endoplasmic reticulum
C) centrioles and ribosomes
D) mitochondria and chloroplasts
Q3) The idea that life regularly arises from nonliving matter is referred to as ______.
A) speciation
B) spontaneous generation
C) endosymbiosis
D) biogenesis
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Chapter 16: Plants, Fungi, and the Move onto Land
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Sample Questions
Q1) Seeds develop from ______.
A) carpels
B) anthers
C) ovules
D) ovaries
Q2) At current rates of destruction,all of Earth's tropical forests will be gone within ______ years.
A) 10
B) 25
C) 50
D) 100
Q3) What global climatic change gave gymnosperms an advantage over ferns?
A) the climate becoming hotter and wetter
B) increased fluctuations in global climate
C) the climate becoming cooler and drier
D) the climate becoming hotter and drier
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Chapter 17: The Evolution of Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a feature of birds that makes them valuable as biological indicators?
A) Many migrate long distances.
B) Many are brightly colored.
C) There are over 10,000 different species of birds.
D) Birdwatching is a popular hobby.
Q2) What does the term tetrapod mean?
A) egg-laying
B) living on land
C) living a double life
D) having four feet
Q3) The lancelet is a(n)_____.
A) annelid
B) flatworm
C) chordate
D) tunicate
Q4) Rays are a type of ______.
A) tunicate
B) cartilaginous fish
C) jawless fish
D) bony fish
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Chapter 18: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) What name is given to the seafloor?
A) pelagic realm
B) intertidal zone
C) benthic realm
D) aphotic zone
Q2) ______ are the dominant herbivores of savanna ecosystems.
A) Antelopes
B) Zebras
C) Buffalo
D) Insects
Q3) Which of the following can moderate climate by absorbing heat when the air is warm and releasing heat when the air is cold?
A) clouds
B) glaciers
C) mountains
D) oceans
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What most likely happened when the wolves first arrived on the island?
A) The wolf population increased exponentially.
B) The wolf population was at its carrying capacity.
C) The moose population crashed because of the introduction of a predator.
D) The moose population increased exponentially.
Q2) ______ is the maximum population size that a particular habitat can support.
A) Crash point
B) Carrying capacity
C) Intrinsic population size
D) Intrinsic rate of increase
Q3) Throughout most of human history,human population size _____.
A) was at carrying capacity
B) grew very slowly
C) showed boom and bust cycles
D) skyrocketed
Q4) Which population is growing at the fastest rate?
A) Population A
B) Population B
C) Population C
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Chapter 20: Communities and Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the ecosystem shown above,a toxin that accumulates in body tissues would have the largest effect on ______.
A) corals that obtain their food from photosynthesizing dinoflagellates
B) herbivorous shrimp
C) fish that eat shrimp and other invertebrates
D) The toxin would affect all of these equally.
Q2) Species found in only one place on Earth are called ______ species.
A) hot spot
B) exotic
C) keystone
D) endemic
Q3) Small areas that have a large number of endangered and threatened species are referred to as ______.
A) biologically magnified
B) endemic environments
C) biodiverse environments
D) biodiversity hot spots
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Chapter 21: Unifying Concepts of Animal Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A diuretic is a substance that ______.
A) promotes sweating
B) regulates the contraction of cardiac muscle
C) inhibits urinary water loss
D) promotes urinary water loss
Q2) The vertebrate kidney helps to keep the acidity of the body fluids constant by varying the amount of hydrogen ions (H<sup>+</sup>)it secretes into the urine.You can confidently predict that this aspect of kidney function will be controlled by ______.
A) a negative feedback mechanism
B) nerve impulses from the brain
C) a hormone produced in the brain
D) a hormone produced in the kidney itself
Q3) Which type of tissue forms a communication and coordination system within the body?
A) nervous
B) blood
C) connective
D) muscle
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Chapter 22: Nutrition and Digestion
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Sample Questions
Q1) An digestive tube is best defined as ______.
A) the compartment in which an animal digests its food
B) a tube-shaped digestive compartment with either one or two openings
C) a tube-shaped digestive compartment that has two openings and through which food moves in one direction
D) a tubelike digestive compartment that has two openings and consists, at minimum, of a mouth, esophagus, stomach, intestine, and anus
Q2) The four stages of food processing are,in order:
A) ingestion, absorption, elimination, digestion
B) ingestion, elimination, digestion, absorption
C) ingestion, digestion, absorption, elimination
D) digestion, absorption, ingestion, elimination
Q3) Which of the following nutrients begins undergoing digestion only when it reaches the small intestine?
A) fat
B) protein
C) starch
D) complex carbohydrate
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24
Chapter 23: Circulation and Respiration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cigarette smoking ______.
A) kills about 440,000 Americans every year
B) accounts for 90% of all cases of lung cancer
C) can affect the health of nonsmokers through secondhand smoke
D) all of the above
Q2) A scientist claimed that students might get better scores on written exams if they wiggle their legs frequently while taking an exam.This could work (but it is not better than studying)because wiggling legs might ______.
A) propel more blood from the legs back to the heart, increasing oxygen flow to the brain
B) add more oxygen to the blood that is returning to the heart
C) shake out more of the carbon dioxide that lingers in the blood returning to the heart
D) break up blood clots in the legs, which slow the movement of blood back to the heart
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Chapter 24: The Body's Defenses
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Q1) The primary immune response ______.
A) results in the production of short-lived effector cells via clonal selection
B) results in the production of short-lived memory cells via clonal selection
C) peaks about two days after first exposure
D) triggers the secondary immune response
Q2) When the immune system improperly turns again the body's own molecules,the result is _____.
A) an allergy
B) lupus
C) an autoimmune disease
D) progressive paralysis
Q3) Which of the following compounds do mast cells produce?
A) interferon
B) allergens
C) histamine
D) perforin
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Chapter 25: Hormones
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following glands is located nearest the kidneys?
A) ovaries
B) pineal gland
C) parathyroid glands
D) adrenal glands
Q2) ______ can be a symptom of hypothyroidism.
A) Goiter
B) A low sperm count
C) Graves' disease
D) Hyperactivity
Q3) Which of the following are sex hormones?
A) androgens
B) estrogens
C) progestins
D) all of the above
Q4) Which of the following best describes the relationship of insulin to glucagon?
A) They work together to prepare the body to deal with stress.
B) Insulin stimulates the pancreas to secrete glucagon.
C) High levels of insulin inhibit pancreatic secretion of glucagon.
D) They are antagonistic hormones.
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Chapter 26: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) Reproductive systems with external fertilization are most common in ______.
A) populations with many more males than females
B) animals that are widely dispersed
C) aquatic animals
D) populations with many more females than males
Q2) Menstruation ______.
A) involves the breakdown of the endometrium
B) is stimulated by HCG
C) occurs after ovulation but prior to degeneration of the follicle
D) is triggered by an LH surge
Q3) The yolk sac of humans ______.
A) stores nutrients to support the developing embryo
B) produces blood cells and gamete-forming cells
C) secretes HCG
D) absorbs nutrients from, and releases waste to, the mother's blood
Q4) Which of these events occurs first?
A) gastrulation
B) cleavage
C) implantation
D) formation of the placenta
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Chapter 27: Nervous, Sensory, and Locomotor Systems
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Q1) Which of the following was supported by the terrible accident that happened to Phineas Gage?
A) The cerebrum plays a major role in the sense of balance.
B) You cannot live without your hypothalamus.
C) The frontal lobes are associated with personality.
D) The pons plays a crucial role in hearing.
Q2) Bloodshot eyes reflect increased blood flow to the eye surface because of irritants such as dust and smoke.These swollen blood vessels are located on the ______.
A) cornea
B) sclera
C) iris
D) lens
Q3) Which,if any,of the following types of personal characteristics are not based in the cerebral cortex?
A) reasoning abilities
B) artistic talents
C) personality traits
D) All of the choices are based in the cerebral cortex.
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Chapter 28: The Life of a Flowering Plant
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Q1) Which of the following describes the delivery of pollen to the stigma?
A) fertilization
B) double fertilization
C) germination
D) pollination
Q2) Which plant structure is adapted for attracting beneficial insects such as honeybees?
A) axillary bud
B) terminal bud
C) flower
D) petiole
Q3) Which of the following is responsible for the increase in girth (width)of trees?
A) primary growth
B) secondary growth
C) growth in apical meristems
D) an increase in the width of vessel elements
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Chapter 29: The Working Plant
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Q1) Which of the following hormones promotes seed germination?
A) auxin
B) ethylene
C) gibberellin
D) abscisic acid
Q2) Which of the following supplies water and absorbed nutrients to a typical plant?
A) the air
B) its sap
C) sunlight
D) the soil
Q3) Most plants rely on bacteria to supply them with a usable form of which of the following substances?
A) nitrogen
B) carbon dioxide
C) water
D) amino acids
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