Life Sciences
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Life Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the structure, function, growth, origin, evolution, and distribution of living organisms. This course covers the foundational concepts in biology, including cell theory, genetics, evolution, ecology, and physiology. Students will investigate the processes that govern life at the molecular, cellular, and organismal levels, with an emphasis on real-world applications in medicine, biotechnology, and environmental science. Through lectures, laboratory experiments, and collaborative projects, learners will develop a comprehensive understanding of how living systems interact with each other and their environments, preparing them for advanced study or careers in diverse scientific disciplines.
Recommended Textbook
Biology 8th Edition by Neil A. Campbell
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Chapter 1: Introduction: Themes in the Study of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following properties or processes do we associate with living things?
A)evolutionary adaptations
B)energy processing
C)responding to the environment
D)growth and reproduction
E)all of the above
Answer: E
Q2) All of the following statements are part of Charles Darwin's concept of natural selection except
A)Slight inheritable variations within a population may make an individual significantly more or less likely to survive in its environment, and thus to reproduce.
B)Every organism has the potential to produce more offspring than the local environment can support.
C)Characteristics of organisms are inherited as genes on chromosomes.
D)Better adapted members of a species will survive and reproduce more successfully.
E)Most individuals in a species do not survive to reproduce.
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: The Chemical Context of Life
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Q1) What is the maximum number of covalent bonds an element with atomic number 8 can make with hydrogen?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)6
Answer: B
Q2) What is the approximate atomic mass of an atom with 16 neutrons, 15 protons, and 15 electrons?
A)15 daltons
B)16 daltons
C)30 daltons
D)31 daltons
E)46 daltons
Answer: D
Q3) Which drawing depicts an atom with a valence of 2?
Answer: C
Q4) Which drawing is of an atom with the atomic number of 6?
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Water and the Fitness of the Environment
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Q1) Which of the following is a hydrophobic material?
A)paper
B)table salt
C)wax
D)sugar
E)pasta
Answer: C
Q2) Carbon dioxide (CO )is readily soluble in water, according to the equation CO + H O
H CO . Carbonic acid (H CO )is a weak acid. Respiring cells release CO . What prediction can we make about the pH of blood as that blood first comes in contact with respiring cells?
A)Blood pH will decrease slightly.
B)Blood pH will increase slightly.
C)Blood pH will remain unchanged.
D)Blood pH will first increase, then decrease as CO combines with hemoglobin.
E)Blood pH will first decrease, then increase sharply as CO combines with hemoglobin.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Carbon and the Molecular Diversity of Life
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Q1) Which molecule functions to transfer energy between organic molecules?
Q2) Amino acids are acids because they always possess which functional group?
A)amino
B)carbonyl
C)carboxyl
D)sulfhydryl
E)aldehyde
Q3) Which of the following people synthesized an organic compound, acetic acid, from inorganic substances that had been prepared directly from pure elements?
A)Stanley Miller
B)Jakob Berzelius
C)Friedrich Wohler
D)Hermann Kolbe
E)August Kekulé
Q4) Which of the structures contain(s)a carboxyl functional group?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)C and E
E)none of the structures
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Structure and Function of Large Biological
Molecules
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Q1) The function of each protein is a consequence of its specific shape. What is the term used for a change in a protein's three-dimensional shape or conformation due to disruption of hydrogen bonds, disulfide bridges, or ionic bonds?
A)hydrolysis
B)stabilization
C)destabilization
D)renaturation
E)denaturation
Q2) Which molecule is glycerol?
A)1
B)6
C)10
D)14
E)15
Q3) Which bond is closest to the carboxyl end of the molecule?
Q4) Which bond is closest to the N-terminus of the molecule?
Q5) Which bond is a peptide bond?
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Q6) At which bond would water need to be added to achieve hydrolysis of the peptide, back to its component amino acid?
Chapter 6: A Tour of the Cell
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Q1) Organelles other than the nucleus that contain DNA include A)ribosomes.
B)mitochondria.
C)chloroplasts.
D)B and C only
E)A, B, and C
Q2) Why is it important to know what microscopy method was used to prepare the images you wish to study?
A)so that you can judge whether the images you are seeing are of cells or of organelles
B)so that you can make a judgment about the likelihood of artifacts having been introduced in the preparation
C)so that you can decide whether the image is actually of the size described
D)so that you can know whether to view the image in color or not
E)so that you can interpret the correct biochemical process that is occurring
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Chapter 7: Membrane Structure and Function
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Q1) What are the membrane structures that function in active transport?
A)peripheral proteins
B)carbohydrates
C)cholesterol
D)cytoskeleton filaments
E)integral proteins
Q2) What mechanisms do plants use to load sucrose produced by photosynthesis into specialized cells in the veins of leaves?
A)an electrogenic pump
B)a proton pump
C)a contransport protein
D)A and C only
E)A, B, and C
Q3) Which of the following would you expect to be a problem for someone with nonfunctional chloride channeling?
A)inadequate secretion of mucus
B)buildup of excessive secretions in organs such as lungs
C)buildup of excessive secretions in glands such as the pancreas
D)sweat that includes no NaCl
E)mental retardation due to low salt levels in brain tissue
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Chapter 8: An Introduction to Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following is considered an open system?
A)an organism
B)liquid in a corked bottle
C)a sealed terrarium
D)food cooking in a pressure cooker
Q2) In coupled reactions, in which direction would the endergonic reaction be driven relative to the clockwise direction of the ATP reaction above and shown in the figure?
A)from left to right at the top of the figure
B)under the symbol for energy doing cellular work in the figure
C)from right to left at the bottom of the figure
D)it would be shown separately after the figure
E)it would be shown in a clockwise direction at the top of the figure
Q3) If an enzyme is added to a solution where its substrate and product are in equilibrium, what would occur?
A)Additional product would be formed.
B)Additional substrate would be formed.
C)The reaction would change from endergonic to exergonic.
D)The free energy of the system would change.
E)Nothing; the reaction would stay at equilibrium.
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Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration: Harvesting Chemical Energy
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Q1) What is the term for metabolic pathways that release stored energy by breaking down complex molecules?
A)anabolic pathways
B)catabolic pathways
C)fermentation pathways
D)thermodynamic pathways
E)bioenergetic pathways
Q2) During oxidative phosphorylation, H O is formed. Where does the oxygen for the synthesis of the water come from?
A)carbon dioxide (CO )
B)glucose (C H O )
C)molecular oxygen (O )
D)pyruvate (C H O )
E)lactate (C H O )
Q3) Which of the following couples chemiosmosis to energy storage?
A)NADH
B)FADH
C)cytochromes
D)electron transport
E)ATP synthase
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Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Which of the following sequences correctly represents the flow of electrons during photosynthesis?
A)NADPH O CO
B)H O NADPH Calvin cycle
C)NADPH chlorophyll Calvin cycle
D)H O photosystem I photosystem II
E)NADPH electron transport chain O
Q2) Which of the following does not occur during the Calvin cycle?
A)carbon fixation
B)oxidation of NADPH
C)release of oxygen
D)regeneration of the CO acceptor
E)consumption of ATP
Q3) Where do the enzymatic reactions of the Calvin cycle take place?
A)stroma of the chloroplast
B)thylakoid membranes
C)outer membrane of the chloroplast
D)electron transport chain
E)thylakoid space
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Chapter 11: Cell Communication
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Q1) Of the following, a receptor protein in a membrane that recognizes a chemical signal is most similar to
A)the active site of an allosteric enzyme in the cytoplasm that binds to a specific substrate.
B)RNA specifying the amino acids in a polypeptide.
C)a particular metabolic pathway operating within a specific organelle.
D)an enzyme with an optimum pH and temperature for activity.
E)genes making up a chromosome.
Q2) Adenylyl cyclase has the opposite effect of which of the following?
A)protein kinase
B)protein phosphatase
C)phosphodiesterase
D)phosphorylase
E)GTPase
Q3) Sutherland discovered that epinephrine
A)signals bypass the plasma membrane of cells.
B)lowers blood glucose by binding to liver cells.
C)interacts with insulin inside muscle cells.
D)interacts directly with glycogen phosphorylase.
E)elevates the cytosolic concentration of cyclic AMP.
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Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) If a cell has 8 chromosomes at metaphase of mitosis, how many chromosomes will it have during anaphase?
A)1
B)2
C)4
D)8
E)16
Q2) Which of the following is True concerning cancer cells?
A)They do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition when growing in culture.
B)When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle.
C)They are not subject to cell cycle controls.
D)B and C only
E)A, B, and C
Q3) If there are 20 centromeres in a cell at anaphase, how many chromosomes are there in each daughter cell following cytokinesis?
A)10
B)20
C)30
D)40
E)80
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Chapter 13: Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles
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Q1) Which sample might represent an animal cell in G phase of the cell cycle?
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)Both I and II
E)Both II and III
Q2) Whether during mitosis or meiosis, sister chromatids are held together by proteins referred to as cohesions. Such molecules must have which of the following properties?
A)They must persist throughout the cell cycle.
B)They must be removed before meiosis can begin.
C)They must be removed before anaphase can occur.
D)They must reattach to chromosomes during G1.
E)They must be intact for nuclear envelope reformation.
Q3) A human cell containing 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is A)a sperm.
B)an egg.
C)a zygote.
D)a somatic cell of a male.
E)a somatic cell of a female.
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Chapter 14: Mendel and the Gene Idea
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Q1) The fact that all seven of the pea plant traits studied by Mendel obeyed the principle of independent assortment most probably indicates which of the following?
A)None of the traits obeyed the law of segregation.
B)The diploid number of chromosomes in the pea plants was 7.
C)All of the genes controlling the traits were located on the same chromosome.
D)All of the genes controlling the traits behaved as if they were on different chromosomes.
E)The formation of gametes in plants occurs by mitosis only.
Q2) When crossing an organism that is homozygous recessive for a single trait with a heterozygote, what is the chance of producing an offspring with the homozygous recessive phenotype?
A)0%
B)25%
C)50%
D)75%
E)100%
Q3) Two pea plants heterozygous for the characters of pod color and pod shape are crossed. Draw a Punnett square to determine the phenotypic ratios of the offspring.
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Chapter 15: The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) When Thomas Hunt Morgan crossed his red-eyed F generation flies to each other, the F generation included both red- and white-eyed flies. Remarkably, all the white-eyed flies were male. What was the explanation for this result?
A)The gene involved is on the X chromosome.
B)The gene involved is on the Y chromosome.
C)The gene involved is on an autosome.
D)Other male-specific factors influence eye color in flies.
E)Other female-specific factors influence eye color in flies.
Q2) A space probe discovers a planet inhabited by creatures that reproduce with the same hereditary patterns seen in humans. Three phenotypic characters are height (T = tall, t = dwarf), head appendages (A = antennae, a = no antennae), and nose morphology (S = upturned snout, s = downturned snout). Since the creatures are not "intelligent," Earth scientists are able to do some controlled breeding experiments, using various heterozygotes in testcrosses. For tall heterozygotes with antennae, the offspring are: tall-antennae, 46; dwarf-antennae, 7; dwarf-no antennae, 42; tall-no antennae, 5. For heterozygotes with antennae and an upturned snout, the offspring are: antennae-upturned snout, 47; antennae-downturned snout, 2; no antennae-downturned snout, 48; no antennae-upturned snout, 3. Calculate the recombination frequencies for both experiments.
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Chapter 16: The Molecular Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) In trying to determine whether DNA or protein is the genetic material, Hershey and Chase made use of which of the following facts?
A)DNA contains sulfur, whereas protein does not.
B)DNA contains phosphorus, but protein does not.
C)DNA contains nitrogen, whereas protein does not.
D)DNA contains purines, whereas protein includes pyrimidines.
E)RNA includes ribose, while DNA includes deoxyribose sugars.
Q2) In E. coli, there is a mutation in a gene called dnaB that alters the helicase that normally acts at the origin. Which of the following would you expect as a result of this mutation?
A)No proofreading will occur.
B)No replication fork will be formed.
C)The DNA will supercoil.
D)Replication will occur via RNA polymerase alone.
E)Replication will require a DNA template from another source.
Q3) In the late 1950s, Meselson and Stahl grew bacteria in a medium containing "heavy" nitrogen (¹ N)and then transferred them to a medium containing ¹ N. Which of the results in Figure 16.1 would be expected after one round of DNA replication in the presence of ¹ N?
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Chapter 17: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) RNA polymerase in a prokaryote is composed of several subunits. Most of these subunits are the same for the transcription of any gene, but one, known as sigma, varies considerably. Which of the following is the most probable advantage for the organism of such sigma switching?
A)It might allow the transcription process to vary from one cell to another.
B)It might allow the polymerase to recognize different promoters under certain environmental conditions.
C)It could allow the polymerase to react differently to each stop codon.
D)It could allow ribosomal subunits to assemble at faster rates.
E)It could alter the rate of translation and of exon splicing.
Q2) The nitrogenous base adenine is found in all members of which group?
A)proteins, triglycerides, and testosterone
B)proteins, ATP, and DNA
C)ATP, RNA, and DNA
D)alpha glucose, ATP, and DNA
E)proteins, carbohydrates, and ATP
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19
Chapter 18: Control of Gene Expression
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Q1) These genes form gradients and help establish the axes and other features of an embryo:
A)homeotic genes
B)segmentation genes
C)egg-polarity genes
D)morphogens
E)inducers
Q2) Tumor suppressor genes
A)are frequently overexpressed in cancerous cells.
B)are cancer-causing genes introduced into cells by viruses.
C)can encode proteins that promote DNA repair or cell-cell adhesion.
D)often encode proteins that stimulate the cell cycle.
E)all of the above
Q3) If a particular operon encodes enzymes for making an essential amino acid and is regulated like the trp operon, then the
A)amino acid inactivates the repressor.
B)enzymes produced are called inducible enzymes.
C)repressor is active in the absence of the amino acid.
D)amino acid acts as a corepressor.
E)amino acid turns on transcription of the operon.
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Chapter 19: Viruses
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Q1) What characteristics of electron microscopes make them most useful for studying viruses?
A)high energy electrons with high penetrance
B)requirement that specimens be viewed in a vacuum
C)necessity for specimens to be dry and fixed
D)shorter wavelengths providing higher resolution
E)use of magnetic fields to focus electrons
Q2) Which treatment could definitively determine whether or not the component is a viroid?
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)IV
E)first II and then III
Q3) Which of the following describes plant virus infections?
A)They can be controlled by the use of antibiotics.
B)They are spread throughout a plant by passing through the plasmodesmata.
C)They have little effect on plant growth.
D)They are seldom spread by insects.
E)They can never be inherited from a parent.
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Chapter 20: Biotechnology
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Q1) Imagine you want to study human crystallins, proteins present in the lens of the eye.
To obtain a sufficient amount of the protein, you decide to clone the crystallin gene.
Would you construct a genomic library or a cDNA library?
What material would you use as a source of DNA or RNA?
Q2) Restriction fragments of DNA are typically separated from one another by which process?
A)filtering
B)centrifugation
C)gel electrophoresis
D)PCR
E)electron microscopy
Q3) RNAi methodology uses double-stranded pieces of RNA to trigger a breakdown or blocking of mRNA. For which of the following might it more possibly be useful?
A)to raise the rate of production of a needed digestive enzyme
B)to decrease the production from a harmful gain-of-function mutated gene
C)to destroy an unwanted allele in a homozygous individual
D)to form a knockout organism that will not pass the deleted sequence to its progeny
E)to raise the concentration of a desired protein
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Chapter 21: Genomes and Their Evolution
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Q1) What is bioinformatics?
A)a technique using 3D images of genes in order to predict how and when they will be expressed
B)a method that uses very large national and international databases to access and work with sequence information
C)a software program available from NIH to design genes
D)a series of search programs that allow a student to identify who in the world is trying to sequence a given species
E)a procedure that uses software to order DNA sequences in a variety of comparable ways
Q2) Alu elements account for about 10% of the human genome. What does this mean?
A)Alu elements cannot be transcribed into RNA.
B)Alu elements evolved in very ancient times, before mammalian radiation.
C)Alu elements represent the result of transposition.
D)No Alu elements are found within individual genes.
E)Alu elements are cDNA and therefore related to retrotransposons.
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Chapter 22: Descent With Modification: a Darwinian View of Life
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Q1) According to this tree, what percent of the species seem to be extant (i.e., not extinct)?
A)25%
B)33%
C)50%
D)66%
E)75%
Q2) In Darwin's thinking, the more closely related two different organisms are, the
A)more similar their habitats are.
B)less similar their DNA sequences are.
C)more recently they shared a common ancestor.
D)less likely they are to have the same genes in common.
E)more similar they are in size.
Q3) What was the prevailing notion prior to the time of Lyell and Darwin?
A)Earth is a few thousand years old, and populations are unchanging.
B)Earth is a few thousand years old, and populations gradually change.
C)Earth is millions of years old, and populations rapidly change.
D)Earth is millions of years old, and populations are unchanging.
E)Earth is millions of years old, and populations gradually change.
Q4) Which stratum should contain the greatest proportion of extinct organisms?
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Chapter 23: The Evolution of Populations
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Q1) Cattle breeders have improved the quality of meat over the years by which process?
A)artificial selection
B)directional selection
C)stabilizing selection
D)A and B
E)A and C
Q2) The recessive allele that causes phenylketonuria (PKU)is harmful, except when an infant's diet lacks the amino acid, phenylalanine. What maintains the presence of this harmful allele in a population's gene pool?
A)heterozygote advantage
B)stabilizing selection
C)diploidy
D)balancing selection
Q3) What proportion of the population is probably heterozygous (Aa)for this trait?
A)0.05
B)0.25
C)0.50
D)0.75
E)1.00
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Chapter 24: The Origin of Species
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Q1) Which of these five species (V-Z)in the evolutionary tree would likely have fossil records indicating that punctuated equilibrium was an important part of their evolutionary history?
A)V and W
B)V and Y
C)X and Y
D)W, Y, and Z
E)X, Y, and Z
Q2) One species lives only in tree holes; another species lives only in streams.
A)behavioral
B)gametic
C)habitat
D)temporal
E)mechanical
Q3) A defining characteristic of allopatric speciation is
A)the appearance of new species in the midst of old ones.
B)asexually reproducing populations.
C)geographic isolation.
D)artificial selection.
E)large populations.
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Chapter 25: The History of Life on Earth
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Q1) A major evolutionary episode that corresponds in time most closely with the formation of Pangaea was the A)origin of humans.
B)Cambrian explosion.
C)Permian extinctions.
D)Pleistocene ice ages.
E)Cretaceous extinctions.
Q2) Fly species W, found in a certain part of the island, produces fertile offspring with species Y. Species W does not produce fertile offspring with species X or Z. If no other species can hybridize, then species W and Y
A)have genomes that are still similar enough for successful meiosis to occur in hybrid flies.
B)have more genetic similarity with each other than either did with the other two species.
C)may fuse into a single species if their hybrids remain fertile over the course of many generations.
D)A and B only
E)A, B, and C
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Chapter 26: Phylogeny and the Tree of Life
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Q1) The common housefly belongs to all of the following taxa. Assuming you had access to textbooks or other scientific literature, knowing which of the following should provide you with the most specific information about the common housefly?
A)order Diptera
B)family Muscidae
C)genus Musca
D)class Hexapoda
E)phylum Arthropoda
Q2) The importance of computers and of computer software to modern cladistics is most closely linked to advances in A)light microscopy.
B)radiometric dating.
C)fossil discovery techniques.
D)Linnaean classification.
E)molecular genetics.
Q3) Shared derived characters are most likely to be found in taxa that are A)paraphyletic.
B)polyphyletic.
C)monophyletic.
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Chapter 27: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) Which of the following are responsible for high levels of O in Earth's atmosphere?
A)photoautotrophs
B)photoheterotrophs
C)chemoautotrophs
D)chemoheterotrophs that perform decomposition
E)parasitic chemoheterotrophs
Q2) E. coli cells typically make most of their ATP by metabolizing glucose. Under the conditions of this experiment, what should be True of E. coli's generation time (especially early in the course of the experiment, but less so later on)?
A)Generation time should be the same as in the typical environment.
B)Generation time should be faster than in the typical environment.
C)Generation time should be slower than in the typical environment.
D)It is theoretically impossible to make any predictions about generation time, under these conditions.
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Chapter 28: Protists
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Q1) Which term most accurately describes the nutritional mode of healthy P. bursaria?
A)photoautotroph
B)photoheterotroph
C)chemoheterotroph
D)chemoautotroph
E)mixotroph
Q2) Biologists have long been aware that the defunct kingdom Protista is paraphyletic. Which of these statements is both True and consistent with this conclusion?
A)Many species within this kingdom were once classified as monerans.
B)Animals, plants, and fungi arose from different protist ancestors.
C)The eukaryotic condition has evolved only once among the protists, and all eukaryotes are descendants of that first eukaryotic cell.
D)Chloroplasts among various protists are similar to those found in prokaryotes.
E)Some protists, all animals, and all fungi share a protist common ancestor, but these protists, animals, and fungi are currently assigned to three different kingdoms.
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Chapter 29: Plant Diversity I: How Plants Colonized Land
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Q1) During glacial periods in the early evolution of land plants, which of these is a beneficial adaptation regarding the number of stomata per unit surface area, and what accounts for it?
A)increased numbers of stomata, to maximize absorption of increasing levels of atmospheric CO
B)increased numbers of stomata, to maximize ability to absorb ever-decreasing levels of atmospheric CO
C)decreased numbers of stomata, to retain CO produced by the chloroplasts
D)decreased numbers of stomata, to maximize absorption of ever-decreasing levels of atmospheric CO
Q2) The following are all adaptations to life on land except A)rosette cellulose-synthesizing complexes.
B)cuticles.
C)tracheids.
D)reduced gametophyte generation.
E)seeds.
Q3) Which graph of soil nitrogen loss over time in Figure 29.2 most strongly supports the hypothesis that if rhizoids had helped stabilize the soil, then less erosion and less loss of nitrogen would occur?
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Plant Diversity Ii: the Evolution of Seed Plants
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Q1) Which of the following can be found in gymnosperms?
A)non-fertile flower parts.
B)triploid endosperm.
C)fruits.
D)pollen.
E)carpels.
Q2) Meiosis is most likely to be represented by which number(s)?
A)2
B)4
C)2 and 8
D)4 and 8
E)10 and 12
Q3) The sporophytes of mosses depend on the gametophytes for water and nutrition. In seed plants, the reverse is True. From which seed plant sporophyte structure(s)do the immature (unfertilized)gametophytes directly gain water and nutrition?
A)sporophylls
B)embryos
C)sporangia
D)sporopollenin
E)ovary
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Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) Assume now that all four locations are 0.5 m above the surface. On a breezy day with prevailing wings blowing from left to right, where should one expect to find the highest concentration of free basidiospores in an air sample?
Q2) Mycorrhizae are to the roots of vascular plants as endophytes are to vascular plants'
A)leaf mesophyll.
B)stem apical meristems.
C)root apical merisems
D)xylem.
E)waxy cuticle.
Q3) This phylum contains the mushrooms, shelf fungi, and puffballs:
A)Zygomycota
B)Ascomycota
C)Basidiomycota
D)Glomeromycota
E)Chytridiomycota
Q4) At which location should one find the lowest concentration of fungal enzymes, assuming that the enzymes do not diffuse far from their source, and that no other fungi are present in this habitat?
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Page 33
Chapter 32: An Introduction to Animal Diversity
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Q1) Among the characteristics unique to animals is
A)gastrulation.
B)multicellularity.
C)sexual reproduction.
D)flagellated sperm.
E)heterotrophic nutrition.
Q2) What is characteristic of all ecdysozoans?
A)the deuterostome condition
B)some kind of exoskeleton, or hard outer covering
C)a pseudocoelom
D)agile, speedy, and powerful locomotion
E)the diploblastic condition
Q3) Which group includes both ecdysozoans and lophotrochozoans?
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)IV
E)V
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34
Chapter 33: Invertebrates
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Q1) While sampling marine plankton in a lab, a student encounters large numbers of fertilized eggs. The student rears some of the eggs in the laboratory for further study and finds that the blastopore becomes the mouth. The embryo develops into a trochophore larva and eventually has a True coelom. These eggs probably belonged to a(n)
A)chordate.
B)echinoderm.
C)mollusc.
D)nematode.
E)arthropod.
Q2) Many of which of the following annelid classes are parasites?
A)Oligochaeta
B)Polychaeta
C)Hirudinea (leeches)
D)all three of these
E)two of these
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Chapter 34: Vertebrates
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Q1) Their scales closely resemble teeth in both structure and origin.
A)amphibians
B)nonbird reptiles
C)chondrichthyans
D)mammals
E)birds
Q2) What is a distinctive feature of the chondrichthyans?
A)an amniotic egg
B)unpaired fins
C)an acute sense of vision that includes the ability to distinguish colors
D)a mostly cartilaginous endoskeleton
E)lack of jaws
Q3) Which pair of numbers includes extant endotherms?
A)3 and 4
B)4 and 5
C)6 and 8
D)3 and 8
E)6 and 7
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36
Chapter 35: Plant Structure, Growth, and Development
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Q1) Shoot elongation in a growing bud is due primarily to A)cell division at the shoot apical meristem.
B)cell elongation directly behind the shoot apical meristem.
C)cell division localized in each internode.
D)cell elongation localized in each internode.
E)A and B only.
Q2) If you were able to walk into an opening cut into the center of a large redwood tree, when you exit from the middle of the trunk (stem)outward, you would cross, in order,
A)the annual rings, phloem, and bark.
B)the newest xylem, oldest phloem, and periderm.
C)the vascular cambium, oldest xylem, and newest xylem.
D)the secondary xylem, secondary phloem, and vascular cambium.
E)the summer wood, bark, and phloem.
Q3) Plants contain meristems whose only function is to A)attract pollinators.
B)absorb ions.
C)photosynthesize.
D)divide.
E)produce flowers.
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Transport in Vascular Plants
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Q1) Ignoring all other factors, what kind of day would result in the fastest delivery of water and minerals to the leaves of a tree?
A)cool, dry day
B)warm, dry day
C)warm, humid day
D)cool, humid day
E)very hot, dry, windy day
Q2) The ancestors of land plants were aquatic algae. Which of the following is not an evolutionary adaptation to life on land?
A)C3 photosynthesis
B)a waxy cuticle
C)root hairs
D)xylem and phloem
E)guard cells
Q3) Water can cross the cortex via the symplast or apoplast, but minerals moving via the apoplast must finally cross the selective membranes of endodermal cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Soil and Plant Nutrition
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Q1) What soil(s)is(are)the most fertile?
A)humus only
B)loam only
C)silt only
D)clay only
E)both humus and loam
Q2) The rhizosphere would best be described as
A)legume root swellings that are involved in nitrogen fixation.
B)the part of the topsoil that supplies carbohydrates to plants.
C)soil that is bound to roots and differs from the surrounding soil in containing many more microbes.
D)the spherical soil horizon in which roots typically grow.
E)all of the living organisms that inhabit the soil.
Q3) What is the major function of nitrogen in plants?
A)component of lignin-biosynthetic enzymes
B)component of DNA and RNA
C)a component of chlorophyll
D)active in amino acid formation
E)required to regenerate phospophenolpyruvate in C4 and CAM plants
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Angiosperm Reproduction and Biotechnology
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Q1) For this pair of items, choose the option that best describes their relationship. (A)The number of cells within the embryo sac
(B)The number of nuclei within the embryo sac
A)Item (A)is greater than item (B).
B)Item (A)is less than item (B).
C)Item (A)is exactly or very approximately equal to item (B).
D)Item (A)may stand in more than one of the above relations to item (B).
Q2) Genetic incompatibility does not affect the
A)attraction of a suitable insect pollinator.
B)germination of the pollen on the stigma.
C)growth of the pollen tube in the style.
D)membrane permeability of cells.
E)different individuals of the same species.
Q3) Which of the following types of plants is not able to self-pollinate?
A)dioecious
B)monoecious
C)complete
D)wind-pollinated
E)insect-pollinated
Q4) Draw and label the parts of a flower.
Page 40
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Chapter 39: Plant Responses to Internal and External Signals
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Q1) Most plants close their stomata at night. What color of light would be most effective in promoting stomatal opening in the middle of the night?
A)red
B)far-red
C)blue
D)red followed by far-red
E)far-red followed by blue
Q2) Which of the following does not reduce the level of the Pfr form of phytochrome?
A)exposure to far-red light
B)exposure to red light
C)long dark period
D)destruction of phytochrome
E)synthesis of phosphorylating enzymes
Q3) Why might animal hormones function differently from plant hormones?
A)Animals move rapidly away from negative stimuli, and most plants don't.
B)Plant cells have a cell wall that blocks passage of many hormones.
C)Plants must have more precise timing of their reproductive activities.
D)Plants are much more variable in their morphology and development than animals.
E)Both A and D are correct.
Page 41
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Chapter 40: Basic Principles of Animal Form and Function
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Q1) Which choice best describes a reasonable evolutionary mechanism for animal structures becoming better suited to specific functions?
A)Animals that eat the most food become the most abundant.
B)Animals that restrict their food intake will become less abundant.
C)Animals with mutations that give rise to effective structures will become more abundant.
D)Animals with inventions that curtail reproduction will become more abundant.
E)Animals with parents that continually improve their offspring's structures will become more abundant.
Q2) Fibroblasts secrete
A)fats.
B)chondroitin sulfate.
C)interstitial fluids.
D)calcium phosphate for bone.
E)proteins for connective fibers.
Q3) Draw a model of the control loop(s)required for driving an automobile at a fairly constant speed over a hilly road. Assuming either a driver or a cruise control device is the control center, indicated each feature that represents a sensor, input, or response.
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Chapter 41: Animal Nutrition
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Q1) Most nutrients absorbed into the lymph or bloodstream are in which form?
A)disaccharides
B)polymers
C)monomers
D)enzymes
E)peptides
Q2) When more energy sources are needed than are generated by diet, in which order does the animal draw on stored sources?
A)fat, glycogen, protein
B)glycogen, protein, fat
C)liver glycogen, muscle glycogen, fat
D)muscle glycogen, fat, liver glycogen
E)fat, protein, glycogen
Q3) In which blood vessel is glucose concentration likely to vary the most?
A)abdominal artery
B)coronary arteries
C)pulmonary veins
D)hepatic portal vessel
E)hepatic vein, which drains the liver
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) A group of students was designing an experiment to test the effect of smoking on grass frogs. They hypothesized that to keep the frogs in a smoke-filled environment for defined periods would result in lung cancer in the animals. However, when they searched for previously published information to shore up their hypothesis, they discovered they were quite wrong in their original assessment. Even though they were never going to go ahead with their experiment (so as not to harm frogs needlessly)they knew that a more likely outcome would be which of the following?
A)the amphibian equivalent of hypertension
B)skin cancer
C)gill abnormalities in the next generation of tadpoles
D)tracheal tube abnormalities
E)diminished absorption of oxygen
Q2) What would be expected if the amount of interstitial fluid surrounding the capillary beds of the lungs were to increase significantly?
A)The amount of carbon dioxide entering the lungs from the blood would increase.
B)The amount of oxygen entering the circulation from the lungs would increase.
C)The amount of oxygen entering the circulation from the lungs would decrease.
D)The pressure would cause the capillary beds to burst.
E)Both C and D would be expected.
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Page 44
Chapter 43: The Immune System
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Q1) In which of the cases could the mother exhibit an anti-Rh-factor reaction to the developing fetus?
A)Case 1 only
B)Case 3 only
C)Cases 1 and 2 only
D)Cases 1, 2, and 3
E)It cannot be determined from the data given.
Q2) The number of MHC protein combinations possible in a given population is enormous. However, an individual in that population has only a couple of MHC possibilities. Why?
A)The MHC proteins are made from several different gene regions that are capable of rearranging in a number of ways.
B)MHC proteins from one individual can only be of class I or class II.
C)Each of the MHC genes has a large number of alleles, but each individual only inherits 2 for each gene.
D)Once a B cell has matured in the bone marrow, it is limited to two MHC response categories.
E)Once a T cell has matured in the thymus, it can only respond to two MHC categories.
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Chapter 44: Osmoregulation and Excretion
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Q1) Natural selection should favor the highest proportion of juxtamedullary nephrons in which of the following species?
A)a river otter
B)a mouse species living in a tropical rain forest
C)a mouse species living in a temperate broadleaf forest
D)a mouse species living in the desert
E)a beaver
Q2) What substance is secreted by the proximal-tubule cells and prevents the pH of urine from becoming too acidic?
A)bicarbonate
B)salt
C)glucose
D)ammonia
E)NaOH
Q3) The transfer of fluid from the glomerulus to Bowman's capsule
A)results from active transport.
B)transfers large molecules as easily as small ones.
C)is very selective as to which subprotein sized molecules are transferred.
D)is mainly a consequence of blood pressure in the capillaries of the glomerulus
E)usually includes the transfer of red blood cells to the Bowman's capsule.
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Chapter 45: Hormones and the Endocrine System
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Q1) What happens when beta cells of the pancreas release insulin into the blood?
A)Blood glucose levels rise to a set point and stimulate glucagon release.
B)Body cells take up more glucose.
C)The liver breaks down glycogen to glucose.
D)Alpha cells are stimulated to release glucose into the blood.
E)Both B and D are correct.
Q2) Which of the following is secreted by the pancreas?
A)ecdysone
B)glucagon
C)thyroxine
D)oxytocin
E)growth hormone
Q3) Estradiol is an example of
A)an androgen.
B)an estrogen.
C)a progestin.
D)a catecholamine.
E)melatonin.
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Chapter 46: Animal Reproduction
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Q1) For water fleas of the genus Daphnia, switching from a pattern of asexual reproduction to sexual reproduction coincides with A)environmental conditions becoming more favorable.
B)greater abundance of food resources.
C)periods of temperature or food stresses.
D)completion of puberty.
E)exhaustion of an organism's supply of eggs.
Q2) Prior to ovulation, the steroid hormone secreted by the growing follicle is A)LH.
B)FSH.
C)inhibin.
D)GnRH.
E)estradiol.
Q3) The breakdown and discharge of the soft uterine tissues that occurs if no egg is fertilized is called A)menstruation.
B)lactation.
C)fertilization.
D)menopause.
E)ovulation.
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Chapter 47: Animal Development
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Q1) As an embryo develops, new cells are produced as the result of A)differentiation.
B)preformation.
C)cell division.
D)morphogenesis.
E)epigenesis.
Q2) The vegetal pole of the zygote differs from the animal pole in that A)the vegetal pole has a higher concentration of yolk.
B)the blastomeres originate only in the vegetal pole.
C)the posterior end of the embryo forms at the vegetal pole.
D)the vegetal pole cells undergo mitosis but not cytokinesis.
E)the polar bodies bud from this region.
Q3) In frog embryos, the blastopore becomes the A)anus.
B)ears.
C)eyes.
D)nose.
E)mouth.
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Chapter 48: Neurons, Synapses, and Signaling
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Q1) Action potentials are normally carried in only one direction: from the axon hillock toward the axon terminals. If you experimentally depolarize the middle of the axon to threshold, using an electronic probe, then
A)no action potential will be initiated.
B)an action potential will be initiated and proceed only in the normal direction toward the axon terminal.
C)an action potential will be initiated and proceed only back toward the axon hillock. D)two action potentials will be initiated, one going toward the axon terminal and one going back toward the hillock.
E)an action potential will be initiated, but it will die out before it reaches the axon terminal.
Q2) An amino acid that operates at inhibitory synapses in the brain
A)acetylcholine
B)epinephrine
C)endorphin
D)nitric oxide
E)GABA
Q3) The membrane's permeability to sodium ions is at its maximum at label
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Chapter 49: Nervous Systems
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Q1) Which of the following is a discovery that suggests that neural stem cells might someday be used to treat brain disease?
A)the discovery that each disease affects specialized cells
B)the discovery that each disease affects different neurotransmitters
C)the discovery that brain cells are capable of cell division
D)the discovery of the function of specific groups of glia
Q2) Which of the following structures or regions is incorrectly paired with its function?
A)limbic system-motor control of speech
B)medulla oblongata-homeostatic control
C)cerebellum-coordination of movement and balance
D)corpus callosum-communication between the left and right cerebral cortices
E)hypothalamus-regulation of temperature, hunger, and thirst
Q3) Which of the following is (are)characteristic of a simple nervous system?
A)a nerve net such as is found in cnidarians
B)nerve cell ganglia
C)having electrical impulses traveling in both directions
D)both A and C
E)A, B, and C
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Chapter 50: Sensory and Motor Mechanisms
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Q1) Which of the major senses responds by means of a very large gene family?
A)taste
B)smell
C)vision
D)hearing
E)equilibrium
Q2) Immediately after putting on a shirt, your skin feels itchy. However, the itching stops after a few minutes and you are unaware that you are wearing a shirt. Why?
A)Sensory adaptation has occurred.
B)Accommodation has increased.
C)Transduction has increased.
D)Motor unit recruitment has decreased.
E)Receptor amplification has decreased.
Q3) Which section consists only of myosin filaments?
Q4) Which section consists of both actin and myosin filaments?
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Chapter 51: Animal Behavior
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Q1) Every morning at the same time, John went into the den to feed his new tropical fish. After a few weeks, he noticed that the fish swam to the top of the tank when he entered the room. This is an example of A)habituation.
B)imprinting.
C)classical conditioning.
D)operant conditioning.
E)maturation.
Q2) What type of signal is brief and can work at night or among obstructions?
A)olfactory
B)visual
C)auditory
D)tactile
E)electrical
Q3) Which of the following is True about imprinting?
A)It may be triggered by visual or chemical stimuli.
B)It happens to many adult animals, but not to their young.
C)It is a type of learning that does not involve innate behavior.
D)It occurs only in birds.
E)It causes behaviors that last for only a short time (the sensitive period).
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Chapter 52: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
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Q1) If Earth's axis of rotation suddenly became perpendicular to the plane of its orbit, the most predictable effect would be
A)no more night and day.
B)a big change in the length of the year.
C)a cooling of the equator.
D)a loss of seasonal variation at high latitudes.
E)the elimination of ocean currents.
Q2) The success with which plants extend their range northward following glacial retreat is best determined by
A)whether there is simultaneous migration of herbivores.
B)their tolerance to shade.
C)their seed dispersal rate.
D)their size.
E)their growth rate.
Q3) Species introduced to new geographic locations
A)are usually successful in colonizing the area.
B)always spread because they encounter no natural predators.
C)increase the diversity and therefore the stability of the ecosystem.
D)can out-compete and displace native species for biotic and abiotic resources.
E)are always considered pests by ecologists.
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Chapter 53: Population Ecology
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Q1) As N approaches K for a certain population, which of the following is predicted by the logistic equation?
A)The growth rate will not change.
B)The growth rate will approach zero.
C)The population will show an Allee effect.
D)The population will increase exponentially.
E)The carrying capacity of the environment will increase.
Q2) Uniform spacing patterns in plants such as the creosote bush are most often associated with
A)chance.
B)patterns of high humidity.
C)the random distribution of seeds.
D)competitive interactions among individuals in the population.
E)the concentration of nutrients within the population's range.
Q3) A population's carrying capacity
A)can be accurately calculated using the logistic growth model.
B)generally remains constant over time.
C)increases as the per capita growth rate (r)decreases.
D)may change as environmental conditions change.
E)can never be exceeded.
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Chapter 54: Community Ecology
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Q1) With a few exceptions, most of the food chains studied by ecologists have a maximum of how many links?
A)2
B)3
C)5
D)10
E)15
Q2) Which of the following is an example of Müllerian mimicry?
A)two species of unpalatable butterfly that have the same color pattern
B)a day-flying hawkmoth that looks like a wasp
C)a chameleon that changes its color to look like a dead leaf
D)two species of rattlesnakes that both rattle their tails
E)two species of moths with wing spots that look like owl's eyes
Q3) Community 1 contains 100 individuals distributed among four species (A, B, C, and
D). Community 2 contains 100 individuals distributed among three species (A, B, and C).
Community 1: 5A, 5B, 85C, 5D
Community 2: 30A, 40B, 30C
Calculate the Shannon diversity (H)for each community. Which community is more diverse?
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Chapter 55: Ecosystems
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Q1) Which of the following has the greatest effect on the rate of chemical cycling in an ecosystem?
A)the ecosystem's rate of primary production
B)the production efficiency of the ecosystem's consumers
C)the rate of decomposition in the ecosystem
D)the trophic efficiency of the ecosystem
E)the location of the nutrient reservoirs in the ecosystem
Q2) Which of the following statements is True?
A)An ecosystem's trophic structure determines the rate at which energy cycles within the system.
B)At any point in time, it is impossible for consumers to outnumber producers in an ecosystem.
C)Chemoautotrophic prokaryotes near deep-sea vents are primary producers.
D)There has been a well-documented increase in atmospheric nitrogen over the past several decades.
E)The reservoir of ecosystem phosphorous is the atmosphere.
Q3) Which species is most likely the decomposer?
Q4) Which species is most likely an omnivore?
Q5) A toxic pollutant would probably reach its highest concentration in which species?
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Chapter 56: Conservation Biology and Restoration Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the following, which ecosystem types are the ones that have been impacted by humans the most?
A)wetland and riparian
B)open and benthic ocean
C)desert and high alpine
D)taiga and second growth forests
E)tundra and arctic
Q2) If we say a species is endemic to a certain area, we mean that
A)it is found only in one particular area of the world.
B)it has been introduced to that area.
C)it is endangered in that area.
D)it is threatened in that area.
E)it used to live there but no longer does.
Q3) Which of the following statements is correct about landscape ecology?
A)It is the application of ecological principles to the design and construction of sustainable lawns and gardens.
B)It is the application of ecological principles to land-use planning.
C)It focuses primarily on human-altered ecological systems.
D)It deals primarily with ecosystems in urban settings.
E)It deals with the study of the home ranges of various animals.
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