Life Sciences
Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Life Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the structure, function, and interactions of living organisms, from the smallest microorganisms to complex plants and animals. This course delves into core biological concepts such as cell biology, genetics, evolution, physiology, ecology, and biotechnology. Students will gain an understanding of how life processes are regulated and interconnected, the diversity of life on Earth, and the application of scientific methods to solve biological problems. The course also considers the societal and ethical implications of advances in life sciences, preparing students for further study or careers in research, healthcare, environmental management, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Biology The Unity and Diversity of Life 14th Edition by Cecie Starr
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Chapter 1: Invitation to Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each cell is able to maintain an internal environment within a range that favors survival. This condition is called
A) metabolism.
B) homeostasis.
C) physiology.
D) adaptation.
E) evolution.
Answer: B
Q2) Why do people get cancer?
A)Observation
B)Question
C)Hypothesis
D)Prediction
E)Law of nature
F)Scientific theory
G)Assessment
H)Report
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Lifes Chemical Basis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A salt will dissolve in water to form ____.
A) acids
B) only hydrogen and oxygen bonds
C) ions other than H<sup>+</sup> and OH<sup>-</sup>
D) bases
E) buffers
Answer: C
Q2) Substance that releases, but does not accept, H<sup>+</sup>
A)pH
B)acid
C)base
D)buffer
Answer: B
Q3) The sharing of two pairs of electrons between two atoms is called a(n)
Answer: double bond
Q4) Water surface tension is caused by ____________________ bonds.
Answer: hydrogen
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Chapter 3: Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) the basic unit of RNA
A)amino acid
B)glucose
C)glycerol
D)fatty acid
E)nucleotide
Answer: E
Q2) Polyunsaturated fats ____.
A) have fewer hydrogen atoms than do saturated fats
B) are more characteristic of animal fats than plant fats
C) have no double bonds
D) are solid at room temperature
E) are gas at room temperature
Answer: A
Q3) A(n) _____________________ is a term given to a macromolecule (large molecule) made up of individual subunits.
Answer: polymer
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which property is true of living things?
A) They are stable over time.
B) They are stable over many generations.
C) They use protein as their hereditary material.
D) They must obtain all organic molecules of life from external sources.
E) They consist of one or more cells.
Q2) What are the structures labeled "C" in the accompanying figure?
A) plasmodesmata
B) basement membranes
C) tight junctions
D) gap junctions
E) adhering junctions
Q3) What microscope is best to use to view internal features of specimens?
A) basic light microscope
B) phase contrast light microscope
C) Nomarski process light microscope
D) scanning electron microscope
E) transmission electron microscope
Q4) Eukaryotic cells contain membrane bound _____________________ in their cytoplasm.
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Chapter 5: Ground Rules of Metabolism
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Q1) feedback inhibition
A)amount of energy to start a reaction
B)coenzyme that carries electrons
C)attachment of a phosphate group by a high-energy bond
D)an excess of end-product molecules alters the shape of the first enzyme in the pathway and shuts off that metabolic pathway
E)part of an enzyme that binds to the substrate
F)by binding a regulatory molecule, it changes the activity of a metabolic pathway
G)affects rates of chemical reactions by reducing activation energy
H)important energy currency in metabolism
I)enzyme that participates in the neutralization of hydrogen peroxide
J)a measure of the degree of energy change after a concentrated form of energy has been dispersed
Q2) During the process of phosphorylation, ____.
A) a molecule gains a phosphate group
B) a molecule synthesizes a phosphate group
C) molecules become more stable
D) molecules are passed to enzymes
E) ADP is produced from ATP
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Chapter 6: Where It Starts - Photosynthesis
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Q1) Actual assembly of sugars during photosynthesis ____.
A) occurs during light-dependent reactions
B) takes place in the mitochondria
C) requires NADPH
D) yields ATP
E) requires oxygen
Q2) causes some fruits and vegetables to appear orange or yellow
A)chlorophyll b
B)chlorophyll a
C)phycoerythrobilin
D)phycocyanobilin
E)beta-carotene
Q3) A trip to space finds a planet rich with green light. Scientists hope to introduce a photosynthetic organism to this planet. What sort of organism should they choose?
Q4) Any light-driven reaction that attaches phosphate to a molecule is called
Q5) Both C and CAM plants have modified carbon fixation. How do they each perform carbon fixation and what is the benefit of each of these types of carbon fixation?
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Chapter 7: How Cells Release Chemical Energy
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Q1) This compound is an intermediate product of alcoholic fermentation but not lactate fermentation.
A)ethanol
B)pyruvate
C)lactate
D)citrate
E)acetaldehyde
Q2) How many molecules of ATP are produced at each stage of aerobic respiration?
Q3) What is the ultimate fate of the carbon atoms in a glucose molecule that goes through aerobic respiration?
Q4) Acetyl-CoA is produced when ____________________ is broken down.
Q5) Lactate fermentation transfers the electrons and hydrogen ions carried by NADH directly to ____.
A) acetaldehyde
B) pyruvate
C) carbon dioxide
D) oxygen
E) myoglobin
Q6) The electron transport chain begins when ____________________ or ____________________ are oxidized.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Dna Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) This nucleotide is a double-ring molecule.
A)guanine
B)cytosine
C)pyrimidine
D)thymine
E)uracil
Q2) Franklin's assignment at Cambridge was to investigate the structure of ____.
A) proteins
B) ultraviolet radiation
C) DNA
D) embryonic fluid
E) lipids
Q3) James Watson and Francis Crick ____.
A) were both English researchers working at Cambridge University
B) performed elegant experiments in DNA chemistry
C) constructed an accurate model of DNA's double helix structure
D) performed experiments that convinced scientists that DNA is a double-stranded molecule
E) used x-ray diffraction in all of their experiments
Q4) Does reproductive cloning always involve somatic cell nuclear transfer?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: From Dna to Protein
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Q1) Each tRNA has a(n) __________ that base-pairs with a codon, and each binds to the amino acid specified by the codon.
Q2) A base-pair substitution may alter a protein by changing an amino acid or by introducing a(n) _____________________.
Q3) The genetic code is made up of codons consisting of how many nucleotides?
A) two
B) three C) five D) six E) nine
Q4) Gene _____________________ requires the participation of RNA, tRNA, and _____________________.
Q5) What does the fact that all organisms use essentially the same genetic code suggest about the origin of life?
Q6) The concepts of transcription and translation have been said to form the 'central dogma' of molecular biology. Is this a fitting description?
Q7) In transcription, RNA polymerase binds to a(n) _____________________ sequence near a gene, and then assembles a strand of RNA.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Gene Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) repressors, activators, and transcription factors
A)operon
B)operator
C)promoter
D)riboswitch
E)regulator protein
Q2) Transcription factors include
A) activators and repressors.
B) repressors.
C) activators, repressors, and enhancers.
D) activators, repressors, and translational factors.
E) enhancers and repressors.
Q3) The two different forms of fibronectin mRNA produced by two different kinds of cells is an example of
A) transcriptional control.
B) post-transcriptional control..
C) transport control.
D) translational control.
E) post-translational control.
Q4) Why is SRY considered to be a master gene?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: How Cells Reproduce
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cytokinesis occurs after this phase of mitosis.
A)interphase
B)prophase
C)metaphase
D)anaphase
E)telophase
Q2) The most common type of skin cancer is __________.
Q3) Centromeres break apart as the separated sister chromatids begin to move to opposite poles.
A)interphase
B)prophase
C)metaphase
D)anaphase
E)telophase
Q4) The microtubular spindle develops.
A)interphase
B)prophase
C)metaphase
D)anaphase
E)telophase
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Meiosis and Sexual Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following occur in telophase I of meiosis?
A) nuclear envelope formation
B) pairing of homologues
C) formation of a bipolar spindle
D) crossing over
E) condensation of chromosomes
Q2) During meiosis II, ____.
A) cytokinesis results in the formation of a total of two cells
B) sister chromatids of each chromosome are separated from each other
C) homologous chromosomes pair up
D) homologous chromosomes separate
E) sister chromatids exchange parts
Q3) Fertilization of plant gametes produces a
A) zygote.
B) gametophyte.
C) spore.
D) meiospore.
E) multicellular haploid plant.
Q4) __________ are regions in an organism's DNA that encode information about heritable traits.
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Chapter 13: Observing Patterns in Inherited Traits
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Q1) The most accurate description of an organism with genotype AaBb is
A) homozygous dominant.
B) heterozygous.
C) heterozygous dominant.
D) homozygous recessive.
E) heterozygous recessive.
Q2) Mendel's monohybrid experiment results led to his law of __________.
Q3) Which most completely describes the circumstances under which yarrow will alter its phenotype?
A) temperature, soil conditions and water conditions
B) soil conditions only
C) being produced by sexual versus asexual reproduction
D) water conditions only
E) asexual reproduction, soil conditions, and water conditions
Q4) The allele for albinism (c) is recessive to the allele for normal pigmentation (C). A normally pigmented woman whose father is an albino marries an albino man whose parents are normal. They have three children, two normal and one albino. Give the genotypes for each person listed.
Q5) Consider the work Mendel did with his pea plants. Why is the study of human genetics much more difficult?
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Chromosomes and Human Inheritance
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Q1) monosomy
A)3n; generally sterile
B)a chromosome segment is permanently transferred to a nonhomologous chromosome
C)(2n - 1); a zygote deprived of a chromosome
D)a repeat of a particular DNA sequence in the same chromosome or in nonhomologous ones
E)(2n + 1); three chromosomes of the same kind are present in a set of chromosomes
F)a piece of the chromosome is inadvertently left out during the repair process
G)encodes a transport protein in melanosome membranes
H)a chromosome segment that has been cut out and rejoined at the same place, but backward
Q2) This disorder is an autosomal recessive disorder.
A)galactosemia
B)Turner syndrome
C)progeria
D)hemophilia A
E)Down syndrome
Q3) Some conditions like progeria do not run in families despite being autosomal dominant. How is this possible?
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Chapter 15: Studying and Manipulating Genomes
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Q1) Genetic engineering started with ____.
A) bacteria
B) viruses
C) fungi
D) plants
E) animals
Q2) The function of these is to cut apart foreign DNA molecules.
A)restriction enzymes
B)recombinant DNA
C)plasmids
D)clones
E)restriction sites
Q3) Identifying an individual by his or her DNA is referred to as ____.
A) structural genomics
B) genomic fingerprinting
C) RNAprofiling
D) DNA profiling
E) individual genomics
Q4) What is the current status of the Human Genome Project?
Q5) __________ can reveal the order of nucleotide bases in a fragment of DNA.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Evidence of Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) The tailbone of humans is an example of a(n) ____.
A) developing feature
B) accidental feature
C) vestigial feature
D) great chain of being
E) fossil structure
Q2) Darwin's exposure to Lyell gave him insight on the ____.
A) existing evidence from fossils
B) record of catastrophic changes that encouraged evolution
C) soundness of Lamarck's theories
D) enormous lengths of time required for geologic events
E) arguments for creationism
Q3) The operation of natural selection depends upon the fact that ____.
A) the strong always survive, whereas the weak always die
B) some individuals have a better chance to produce more offspring
C) mutations are always harmful
D) acquired characteristics are inherited
E) reproduction of all members of a species follows the same path
Q4) ____________________ are evidence of life in the distant past.
Q5) Why are fossils older than 60 000 years hard to date using C14?
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Processes of Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two or more alleles of a gene present at relatively high frequencies in a population's gene pool is known as ____.
A) disruptive selection
B) sexual dimorphism
C) directional selection
D) stabilizing selection
E) balanced polymorphism
Q2) Speciation occurs ____.
A) after populations become reproductively isolated
B) when mutations generate observable differences
C) when transitional forms develop between different populations
D) when natural selection pressures reach their maximum
E) randomly as mutations build up in a population
Q3) Gene flow ____.
A) has a homogenizing influence between two populations
B) speeds up the divergence of two populations
C) increases the genetic variation between populations
D) is promoted by isolating mechanisms
E) promotes inbreeding
Q4) With __________ speciation, populations in physical contact speciate.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Organizating Information About Species
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Q1) ____ is the study of body plans and structures among groups of organisms.
A) Embryology
B) Molecular archeology
C) Evolution
D) Comparative morphology
E) Composition
Q2) The homeotic gene Hoxc6 is the vertebrate version of ____, which determines the identity of the thorax in fruit flies.
A) Dlx
B) thoracia
C) RHO
D) CCR5
E) antennapedia
Q3) Four of the following organisms belong in the clade of class Reptilia. Which one does not?
A) turtle
B) fish
C) birds
D) lizards
E) snakes
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Chapter 19: Lifes Origin and Early Evolution
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Q1) What is the most probable basis for the evolution of mitochondria and chloroplasts?
A) Bacteria can be taken up by host cells.
B) Light is an energy source.
C) ATP can carry energy.
D) Oxygen is a by-product of photosynthesis.
E) Energy can be transformed from one form to another.
Q2) The study of life's origins and distribution in the universe is called
A) astronomy.
B) xenology.
C) volcanology.
D) lunology.
E) astrobiology.
Q3) He/she provided experimental evidence for endosymbiosis.
A) David Deamer
B) Stanley Miller
C) Kwang Jeon
D) Leslie Orgel
E) Oliver Hardy
Q4) What can RNA do that DNA cannot that makes RNA a good starting point for life?
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Chapter 20: Viruses - Bacteria - and Archaea
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Q1) How does the lysogenic pathway differ from the lytic pathway?
Q2) Some viruses cause disease; they act as __________ in humans.
Q3) Gram-positive bacteria have ____ and appear ____ under the microscope after Gram staining.
A) thick cell walls; pink
B) thick cell walls; purple
C) thin cell walls; pink
D) thin cell walls; purple
E) thin cell walls; blue
Q4) Archaeans include three main groups methanogens (methane producers), extreme __________ (salt lovers), and extreme __________ (heat lovers).
Q5) Which characteristic is LEAST accurate about endospores?
A) They can be destroyed with boiling water.
B) They are resistant to acids.
C) They can withstand irradiation.
D) They can remain viable for millions of years.
E) They can withstand drying out.
Q6) How do archaea differ from bacteria?
Q7) Why are endospores so dangerous to food production?
Q8) A(n) __________ is a virus that infects only bacteria.
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Chapter 21: Protists - the Simplest Eukaryotes
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Q1) Four of the statements about malaria are true. Which one is FALSE?
A) It is caused by an evolving organism.
B) It is transmitted from person to person by the bite of a mosquito.
C) Its mortality rate is linked to the allele for sickle cell anemia.
D) Its greatest mortality rate is in Africa.
E) Its occurrencein the United States can be traced to ineffective mosquito spraying in the southern states.
Q2) The red algae are classified as ____.
A) rhodophytes
B) chlorophytes
C) phaeophytes
D) bryophytes
E) pterophytes
Q3) In ciliates, the ____ is used for ____.
A) gullet; digestion
B) cilia; flexible support
C) pellicle; digestion
D) contractile vacuole; food gathering
E) pellicle; water balance
Q4) __________ are aquatic heterotrophs and autotrophs with a cellulose covering.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: The Land Plants
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Q1) In conifers, meiosis of diploid cells in an ovule produces ____.
A) microspores
B) pollen sacs
C) pollination droplets
D) pollen grains
E) megaspores
Q2) Ferns, roots, and fronds grow from __________.
Q3) ginkgos
A)have rhizoids, cuticle, and protected embryo sporophyte
B)one cotyledon
C)non-seed-bearing, heart-shaped gametophytes; spore-bearing leaves with sori
D)Lycopodium; cone-bearing sporophyte; free-living gametophyte
E)only one species left
F)cypress and redwood; heterosporous; mostly evergreen
G)confined to tropics or warm, temperate zones; resemble squat cone-bearing palm trees
H)two cotyledons
I)Equisetum; homosporous; rhizomes present; aerial stems jointed; scouring rushes
J)have coevolved with pollinating vectors
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Chapter 23: Fungi
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Q1) Four of the following statements about mycorrhizae are true. Which one is the exception?
A) They benefit plant growth.
B) They are an example of mutualism.
C) They provide nutrients to their plant partner through photosynthesis.
D) They increase the root surface area for absorption.
E) They receive sugars from their plant partners.
Q2) Four of the following are fungal diseases. Which one is the exception?
A) Candida infections
B) Ringworm
C) athlete's foot
D) vaginal yeast infection
E) Tuberculosis
Q3) The common mushroom bought in the average supermarket is a member of this group.
A)Zygomycetes
B)Ascomycetes
C)Basidiomycetes
D)Glomeromycetes
Q4) All fungi are __________ that secrete digestive enzymes on organic matter and absorb released nutrients.
25
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Chapter 24: Animal Evolution - the Invertibrates
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Q1) chelicerates
A)two pairs of legs per segment
B)Arachnids
C)planarians, flukes, tapeworms
D)Nematodes
E)snails, squids, clams
F)wheel animals
G)flagellated collar cells present
H)jellyfish and corals
I)crustaceans, ticks, and insects
J)polychaetes, earthworms, leeches
K)sea urchins, sea stars
Q2) In the accompanying figure, a feeding individual in the mature colony is identified by the number
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Q3) __________ are asymmetrical and do not have tissues or organs.
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Chapter 25: Animal Evolution - the Chordates
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Q1) Some species of this class live in water but are not dependent upon an aquatic environment.
A)cartilaginous fishes
B)bony fishes
C)amphibians
D)reptilians
Q2) Four of the following statements about crocodilians are true. Which statement is false?
A) They live in or near water.
B) They are predators with sharp teeth.
C) They have a two-chambered heart.
D) They have powerful jaws.
E) They are the closest living relatives to birds.
Q3) The letter "A" in the accompanying figure represents the ____.
A) humerus
B) pectoral girdle
C) skull
D) sternum
E) pelvic girdle
Q4) Reptiles are __________ (cold-blooded animals) with scales.
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Chapter 26: Human Evolution
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Q1) Four of the following features are important evolutionary advancements in the evolution of the tree-dwelling primates. Which one is the exception?
A) grasping hands and feet
B) depth perception
C) well-developed sense of smell
D) the ability to see in 3D
E) a large brain relative to body size
Q2) The earliest humans primarily used tools to ____.
A) assist in locomotion
B) provide protection
C) facilitate the processing of food
D) ward off predators
E) construct shelters
Q3) Four of the following are typical features of anthropoids. Which one is the exception?
A) diurnal
B) good eyesight
C) color vision
D) carnivorous
E) dry nose
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Chapter 27: Plant Tissues
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Q1) What are leaf veins?
A) vascular bundles of leaves
B) photosynthetic cells of leaves
C) sclerenchyma cells of leaves
D) palisade mesophyll of leaves
E) spongy mesophyll of leaves
Q2) Most of the plant body is composed of ____.
A) dermal tissue
B) root tissue
C) ground tissue
D) vascular tissue
E) cork tissue
Q3) Division and differentiation of ground meristem gives rise to ____.
A) ground tissue
B) vascular tissue
C) dermal tissue
D) protoderm
E) procambium
Q4) Primary growth (lengthening) arises from ____________________.
Q5) The seeds are located inside the structure labeled __________.
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Plant Nutrition and Transport
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Q1) Which type of soil has the best oxygen and water penetration to support plant growth?
A) sand
B) silt
C) loam
D) clay
E) humus
Q2) Which element is considered a micronutrient needed by plants?
A) carbon
B) hydrogen
C) nitrogen
D) magnesium
E) zinc
Q3) Which element is considered a macronutrient needed by plants?
A) manganese
B) iron
C) copper
D) potassium
E) boron
Q4) Explain the cohesion-tension theory.
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Life Cycles of Flowering Plants
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Q1) ovary
A)haploid cell that gives rise to pollen grain
B)releases two sperm cells when it reaches and penetrates female gametophyte
C)develops into a fruit at maturity
D)created from a triploid cell that is produced when one sperm cell fuses with the endosperm mother cell
E)reproductive organs that produce the plant's male gametophytes
F)modified leaf with pigments and fragrance-producing cells
G)immature male gametophyte
H)female reproductive organ
I)landing platform for pollen
J)contains pollen sacs
K)forms in an ovule and gives rise to a female gametophyte
L)outermost whorl of leaf parts on a receptacle; generally green, but sometimes pigmented
M)region of carpel that receives pollen grains
N)arrival of pollen on a receptive stigma
O)forms a seed at maturity
Q2) receptacle
Q3) ovule
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Chapter 30: Communication Strategies in Plants
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Q1) Plants make ____, which are similar to female sex hormones in mammals but have nothing to do with sexual reproduction in plants.
A) estrogens
B) phytoestrogens
C) auxins
D) cytokinins
E) gibberellins
Q2) The requirement of cold weather before a particular plant process occurs (e.g., germination) is knownas ____.
A) the biological clock
B) vernalization
C) photoperiodism
D) biennial life cycle
E) perennial life cycle
Q3) Apical dominance is an effect that causes ____.
A) a directional adjustment of growth in response to environmental stimuli
B) leaves and other plant parts to fall off, or senesce
C) roots to lengthen while inhibiting shoot growth
D) lateral buds to become active when a shoot is lengthening at its tip
E) lateral buds to stay dormant when a shoot is lengthening at its tip
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Chapter 31: Animal Tissues
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Q1) hypodermis
Q2) Which tissue lines the gut?
A) A
B) B
C) C
Q3) If you sweat, are you losing extracellular fluid or intracellular fluid?
Q4) Where can a ciliated epithelial cell be found?
A) mouth
B) oviduct
C) blood vessels
D) heart
E) blood
Q5) blood vessels
Q6) This substance is derived from stem cells in bone.
A)loose connective tissue
B)dense connective tissue
C)adipose
D)cartilage
E)blood
Q7) hair follicle
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Chapter 32: Neural Control
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Q1) neuron membrane potential at which gated sodium channels open
A)cells that nurture and support neurons
B)sensory neuron
C)interneuron
D)acetylcholine or GABA
E)motor neuron
F)a type of active transporter
G)sheathed muscle cells that contain receptors
H)membrane potential
I)resting membrane potential
J)modified dendrite of a sensory neuron
K)action potential
L)positive feedback
M)threshold potential
N)produced by a Schwann cell
O)cluster of cell bodies outside the CNS
Q2) slows digestion
A)parasympathetic
B)sympathetic
Q3) An action potential is a brief reversal of the __________ potential.
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Chapter 33: Sensory Perception
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Q1) The major function of a receptor is to _____.
A) control the autonomic functions of the body
B) stabilize the internal environment to achieve homeostasis
C) produce responses to the various stimuli the body receives
D) give organisms or cells awareness of and sensitivity to their environment
E) control the visceral functions of the body
Q2) Insects have ____.
A) simple eyes
B) ocelli
C) ciliary eyes
D) compound eyes
E) "camera" eyes
Q3) When the brain assigns meaning to a sensory signal, we say that _____ has taken place.
A) sensory adaptation
B) sensory perception
C) semantic perception
D) sensory action
E) sensory activation
Q4) __________ sense pain.
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Chapter 34: Endocrine Control
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Q1) A simple way of thinking about the action of a steroid hormone on its target cell is that it _____.
A) requires no admission to enter
B) must find a friend to accompany it in C) can go right in but the admission price is high
D) must find a friend to accompany it in and the admission price is high
E) must know the right password to enter and to exit
Q2) Which gland is associated with seasonal biorhythms?
A) pineal
B) parathyroid
C) thymus
D) pituitary
E) thymus
Q3) Which of the following is a secondary sexual trait?
A) ovulation in females
B) production of semen in males
C) facial hair in males
D) ovaries in a female
E) testes in males
Q4) 34.4 The Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Structural Support and Movement
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Q1) This bone transfers force from the arms to the axial skeleton.
A)fibrous joint
B)cartilaginous joint
C)synovial joint
Q2) a mesh of cytoskeletal elements that attach the sarcomere to its surrounding components
A)Z line
B)ATP
C)mitochondria
D)actin
E)sarcomeres
F)phosphate group
G)myofibrils
H)smooth muscle
I)thick filaments
J)myosin
K)skeletal muscle
Q3) The spinal cord runs through, and is protected by, the __________.
Q4) Why is back pain so common in humans?
Q5) __________ are cells that synthesize bone, whereas __________ break bone down.
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Chapter 36: Circulation
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Q1) The anatomical structure identified with the letter "R" in the figure above is the ____.
A) pericardium
B) cardiac muscle
C) inferior vena cava
D) right atrium
E) heart apex
Q2) A typical systolic pressure for a normal adult is ____.
A) 60 mm Hg
B) 80 mm Hg
C) 100 mm Hg
D) 120 mm Hg
E) 140 mm Hg
Q3) Chart the path of blood through the heart, including the valves passed.
Q4) Blood is pumped to the majority of the body by this structure.
A)right atrium
B)left atrium
C)left ventricle
D)right ventricle
Q5) __________ is mostly water in which diverse ions and molecules are dissolved.
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Chapter 37: Immunity
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Q1) The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the human lungs in the ____.
A) bronchi
B) alveoli
C) bronchioles
D) trachea
E) glottis
Q2) The human voice is generated by air moving through the _____.
A) pharynx
B) glottis
C) epiglottis
D) pleura
E) trachea
Q3) An individual is exposed to a pathogen and takes five days to recover. When exposed a year later they again take five days to recover. Would you suspect that adaptive immunity was involved? Why or why not?
Q4) __________ relieve allergy symptoms by dampening the effects of histamines.
Q5) __________ are proteins, Y-shaped antigen receptors made only by __________ cells.
Q6) __________ fights infection by increasing the metabolic rate.
Q7) Why is it beneficial to urinate after sexual activity?
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Chapter 38: Respiration
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Q1) Adaptive mechanisms, such as ____, can help animals live at a high elevation.
A) carbonic acid
B) a large heart
C) hemoglobin with more heme groups
D) decreased nitric oxide
E) small efficient lungs
Q2) nasal cavity
Q3) oxyhemoglobin
A)pharynx
B)larynx
C)trachea
D)bronchiole
E)alveolus
Q4) left lung
Q5) intercostal muscles
Q6) __________, the volume of air that moves in and out of the lungs during one respiratory cycle, is normally far less than __________.
Q7) pharynx
Q9) larynx Page 40
Q8) Why would athletes in aerobic sports benefit by training at high altitude?
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Chapter 39: Digestion and Nutrition
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Q1) Which of the following is an accessory organ of the human digestive system?
A) salivary gland
B) esophagus
C) stomach
D) small intestine
E) large intestine
Q2) bile
A)made in the small intestine and pancreas; act on peptide fragments
B)glucose, fructose, and galactose are examples
C)made in the pancreas; acts on fats
D)made by the pancreas and salivary glands; acts on starch
E)made by the small intestine; acts on two-unit sugars
F)made by the pancreas; acts on proteins and polypeptides
G)contains cholesterol; helps emulsify fats
H)made in the stomach; acts on proteins
I)stimulates hydrochloric acid secretion
J)circular muscle; acts like valve
Q3) salivary glands
Q4) pharynx
Q5) oral cavity
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Chapter 40: Maintaining the Internal Environment
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Q1) Urinalysis can be used to identify four of the following. Which one is the exception?
A) intoxication
B) prostate cancer
C) kidney disease
D) diabetes mellitus
E) previous heart attack
Q2) Ectothermic animals regulate their body temperature by ____.
A) adjusting their metabolism
B) relying on insulation such as feathers
C) growing hair
D) foraging for food
E) altering their position
Q3) __________ such as reptiles control core temperature mainly by behavior.
Q4) Marine bony fish __________ water by osmosis, while freshwater bony fish __________ water by osmosis.
Q5) Kidney __________ are small, tubular structures that interact with nearby capillaries to form urine.
Q6) Chart the path of urine from the blood to the outside of the body.
Q7) Why is high blood pressure damaging to the kidneys?
Page 43
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Chapter 41: Animal Reproductive Systems
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Q1) Spermatogenesis is governed by _____.
A) GnRH
B) luteinizing hormone only
C) luteinizing hormone and follicle stimulating hormone
D) follicle stimulating hormone only
E) GnRH, luteinizing hormone, and Sertoli cells
Q2) A woman is considered to have reached menopause when ____.
A) her menstrual cycles have diminished
B) her follicles are depleted
C) her follicles have regenerated
D) her eggs are mature
E) her eggs dissolve
Q3) A monogamous couple is researching birth control methods. They want children in the future, and the woman currently has high blood pressure. Which birth control method would be best for them?
Q4) scrotum
Q5) seminal vesicle
Q6) During the luteal phase, a(n) __________ forms from cells that surrounded the egg.
Q7) oviduct
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Chapter 42: Animal Development
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Q1) Without _____, humans might have a tail.
A) differentiation
B) epigenetics
C) cell migrations
D) apoptosis
E) the maternal gene effect
Q2) The placenta ____.
A) forms from endometrial and extraembryonic tissues
B) will cover about one-half of the inner uterine surface at full term
C) intermingles fetal blood with maternal blood
D) secretes only estrogen to maintain the uterine lining during the second and third trimesters
E) secretes only progesterone to maintain the uterine lining during the second and third trimesters
Q3) Organ formation is occurring at ____.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
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Chapter 43: Animal Behavior
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Q1) Females of various species shop around for males that _____.
A) are nomadic
B) are highly selective
C) are silent and strong
D) make showy displays
E) have a large family
Q2) The alarm signal one snail sends to another is most likely to be this.
A)tactile
B)auditory
C)visual
D)chemical
Q3) Which of the following communication signals matches the animal?
A) chemical; honeybees
B) tactile; frogs
C) auditory; baboons
D) visual; frogs
E) chemical; fireflies
Q4) Colonies of ants, termites, and some other insects, as well as naked mole rats, are __________ and thus include sterile workers who care for the reproducing members of the group.
Page 46
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