Life Sciences
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Life Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the structure, function, growth, origin, evolution, and distribution of living organisms. This course covers foundational concepts in biology, genetics, ecology, physiology, and biochemistry, providing students with a comprehensive understanding of the mechanisms that underlie life processes. Emphasizing both theoretical knowledge and practical laboratory skills, students will engage in scientific inquiry, critical analysis, and experimental techniques to investigate how living systems interact with each other and their environments. The course prepares students for advanced studies and diverse careers in healthcare, research, biotechnology, environmental science, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Biology A Guide to the Natural World 5th Edition by David Krogh
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2587 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: Science As a Way of Learning: a Guide to the Natural World
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Sample Questions
Q1) A scientific explanation that is tentative and testable is termed a/an: A)hypothesis.
B)theory.
C)fact.
D)control.
E)observation.
Answer: A
Q2) A unifying principle of biology states that there is a gradual modification of populations of living things over time that sometimes results in new species.This principle is called ________.
Answer: evolution
Q3) Which of the following is true?
A)A scientific theory is a hunch about a natural event.
B)A scientific fact and a scientific theory carry the same weight in the scientific community.
C)A scientific theory explains what we know to this date about a natural event.
D)A scientific theory is the final answer to a question about a natural event.
Answer: C
Q4) The scientist who demonstrated that the Earth moves around the sun was ________.
Page 3
Answer: Copernicus
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Chapter 2: Fundamental Building Blocks: Chemistry, water, and Ph
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nonpolar molecules develop when:
A)shared electrons are not shared equally.
B)both atoms have similar electronegativity.
C)one atom is much more electronegative than the other.
D)electrons are completely transferred from one atom to another.
Answer: B
Q2) What is the difference between an ionic and covalent bond?
A)In an ionic bond, one atom accepts electrons from the other; in a covalent bond, a pair of atoms share electrons.
B)In an ionic bond, one atom has more electronegativity than the other; in a covalent bond, the atoms have the same electronegativity.
C)Ionic bonding involves the inner electron shells; covalent bonding involves the valence electron shell.
D)Ionic bonds form between atoms of different elements; covalent bonds form between atoms of the same element.
Answer: A
Q3) Which elements make up the majority of the human body?
Answer: Carbon,oxygen,and hydrogen make up the majority of the human body.
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Chapter 3: Lifes Components: Biological Molecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) Every protein has a unique shape and function because:
A)each protein has a unique sequence of nucleotides.
B)each protein has a unique sequence of amino acids.
C)the bonds between the amino acids vary from protein to protein.
D)the number of nitrogen atoms in each amino acid differs.
Answer: B
Q2) Phospholipids can be made to mix with water if mixed vigorously enough.Predict what kind of structure would be produced based on the chemical characteristics of phospholipids if they are mixed vigorously with water.If water exists outside a cell and water exists inside a cell,propose a way that phospholipids can be used to create a cell membrane.
Answer: In order to mix with water,phospholipids would have to form a sphere in which the hydrophilic head groups are on the surface and the hydrophobic tails are pointing in toward each other.Two layers of phospholipids are needed to make a cell membrane.The hydrophilic head groups can point outward,toward each side where there is water,and the hydrophobic tails of one layer would point toward the hydrophobic tails of the other layer.
Q3) ATP (adenosine triphosphate)is an energy-carrying,modified ________.
Answer: nucleotide
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Lifes Home: the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mitochondria and chloroplasts are similar to one another in that both:
A)capture the energy of the sun during photosynthesis and store it as sugar.
B)have their own DNA and their own ribosomes.
C)convert the energy of the sugar into ATP for use by the cell.
D)are present in all eukaryotic cells.
Q2) Nerve cells have long thin extensions of their cell membrane called axons.The cell has to get mitochondria from the body of the cell all the way down to the end of the axon to provide energy for nerve signal transmission.What structure in a nerve cell would be involved in moving the mitochondria,and how would it work?
Q3) mRNA carries a code from the ________ to make a particular polypeptide.
Q4) Which of the following are associated with energy transfer in eukaryotic cells?
A)chloroplasts and mitochondria
B)mitochondria and rough ER
C)mitochondria and smooth ER
D)chloroplasts and the cell wall
E)lysosomes and Golgi complex
Q5) Every form of life is either a single cell or is composed of cells.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The organelles of a eukaryotic cell are suspended in its ________.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Lifes Border: the Plasma Membrane
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have isolated a cell that is unable to produce cholesterol for its cell membranes.Which of the following defects is this cell most likely to have?
A)The cell membrane will not have the correct fluidity.
B)The cell will not be able to communicate with other cells.
C)The cell will be unable to transport nutrients.
D)The cell will burst as a result of osmosis.
E)The cell will not be able to regulate the transportation of substances into and out of the cell.
Q2) Water moves from a:
A)hypotonic environment to a hypertonic environment.
B)hypertonic environment to a hypotonic environment.
C)low free-water solution toward a high free-water solution.
D)solution with more salt to a solution with less salt.
Q3) Cholesterol is a hormone receptor in the plasma membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are two major differences between active transport and passive transport?
Please give a specific example of each that occurs within a eukaryotic cell.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Lifes Mainspring: an Introduction to Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes a transition state molecule?
A)the distorted shape the product takes while being released from the enzyme
B)the distorted shape the substrate takes when being converted by an enzyme into product
C)the distorted shape the enzyme takes when converting substrate into product
D)the distorted shape a coenzyme takes while it is bound to an enzyme
Q2) Which of the following statements concerning enzymes is false?
A)They accelerate the rate of chemical reactions.
B)Many activities in living organisms require multiple enzymes.
C)One enzyme will work on many different substrate molecules to produce many different products.
D)They can carry out hundreds of chemical transformations per second.
Q3) The function of chymotrypsin is to:
A)break down proteins into amino acids.
B)synthesize glycogen.
C)synthesize proteins.
D)break down glycogen into glucose.
Q4) A ________ is a set of enzymatically controlled steps that results in the completion of a product or process in an organism.
Q5) Explain how vitamins play a role in cellular metabolism.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Vital Harvest: Deriving Energy From Food
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Krebs cycle must turn six times for each glucose molecule.
A)True
B)False
Q2) There is an energy investment step needed to get glycolysis started,requiring the use of ________ ATPs.
A)zero
B)four
C)two
D)three
E)one
Q3) Which stage or stages of aerobic respiration require both NAD and ADP as reactants?
A)glycolysis
B)the Krebs cycle
C)the electron transport chain
D)the Krebs cycle and the electron transport chain
E)glycolysis and the Krebs cycle
Q4) Glycolysis probably evolved before the Krebs cycle.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: The Green Worlds Gift: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The stomata are located in the leaf's ________,and the chloroplasts are located in the leaf's ________.
A)epidermis; epidermis
B)mesophyll; epidermis
C)epidermis; mesophyll
D)epidermis; stomata
E)mesophyll; mesophyll
Q2) When sunlight hits chlorophyll,the electrons are excited out of the chlorophyll; the electrons go ________ an energy hill,and as they pass through the electron transport chain they go ________ an energy hill.
Q3) The Calvin cycle takes place in the:
A)thylakoids.
B)grana.
C)stroma.
D)cytoplasm.
Q4) How many carbon dioxide molecules are required to make one molecule of glucose?
A)two
B)three
C)six
D)eight
10
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Chapter 9: The Links in Lifes Chain: Genetics and Cell
Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) What would happen if the cell cycle proceeded normally except cytokinesis did not occur?
A)The absence of cytokinesis would inhibit mitosis.
B)The G1 and G2 phases would become shorter.
C)Cells without nuclei would be formed.
D)A large cell with multiple nuclei would result.
Q2) Human skin cells and human white blood cells of the immune system both perform protective functions.Skin cells function primarily in external physical protection,whereas white blood cells function primarily in internal protection.Nonetheless,both types of cells contain a complete copy of the human genome.Explain how cells can have the same genetic information and yet perform different functions.What prevents skin cells from making all the same proteins of a white blood cell?
Q3) A cell plate is forming across the middle of a cell and new nuclei are forming at the poles.What kind of cell is this?
A)an animal cell going through cytokinesis
B)an animal cell during telophase
C)a bacterial cell
D)a plant cell during metaphase
E)a plant cell going through cytokinesis
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Preparing for Sexual Reproduction: Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a eukaryotic cell has 20 chromosomes and it undergoes meiosis,how many cells will result,and how many chromosomes will they contain?
A)4 cells, each with 20 chromosomes
B)4 cells, each with 10 chromosomes
C)2 cells, each with 10 chromosomes
D)2 cells, each with 20 chromosomes
Q2) ________ is the process in which a single diploid cell divides to produce haploid reproductive cells.
Q3) Errors in meiosis can be one mechanism of evolution.A change in the number of chromosomes can lead to the production of new species.Some plant species may have originated from errors during cell division,which led to them having more than two sets of chromosomes,a condition called polyploidy.Hypothesize what kind of error during meiosis might occur to cause a normally diploid plant to generate tetraploid offspring,in which the offspring have four sets of chromosomes.
Q4) The primary purpose of meiosis is to ________ the number of chromosomes; meiosis also generates ________ in the resulting cells.
Q5) Describe the process of meiosis and ova formation in a human female; start with prenatal life,and end with fertilization.
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Chapter 11: The First Geneticist: Mendel and His Discoveries
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Sample Questions
Q1) In his basic experiments,Mendel began with true-breeding parental (P)plants.What results did he see when he cross-fertilized P generation plants that had different traits?
A)The F plants had new traits that were a blend of P traits.
B)All F plants had the trait of one or the other P plant.
C)The F plants had an entirely new trait, not seen in either P plant.
D)The F plants showed a combination of the two P traits in a 1:1 ratio.
E)The F plants showed a combination of the two P traits, in a 3:1 ratio.
Q2) If an individual has genotype AaBb,how many different gametes can he or she produce? What combinations of alleles are possible?
Q3) Let S = smooth pea and s = wrinkled pea; Y = yellow pea and y = green pea.What are the different possible genotypes of the gametes produced by a plant that is heterozygous for both characters?
A)All will be SsYy.
B)Ss, Yy
C)S, s, Y, y
D)SY, Sy, sY, sy
E)SY, sy
Q4) What is the difference between a monohybrid and a dihybrid cross?
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Chapter 12: Units of Heredity: Chromosomes and Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cri-du-chat syndrome babies are mentally challenged and have an abnormal larynx that makes sounds like the cry of a cat.This disorder is due to a/an:
A)deletion in chromosome 5.
B)inversion in chromosome 2.
C)translocation between chromosome 9 and 22.
D)duplication in chromosome 7.
E)trisomy 21.
Q2) A pedigree is a representation of:
A)a genetic family tree.
B)a series of chromosomes arranged in order.
C)the inheritance pattern of recessive disorders.
D)the inheritance pattern of dominant disorders.
E)all the genetic disorders that can be inherited.
Q3) Explain why a female can be heterozygous for an X-linked gene but a male cannot.
Q4) Aneuploid human embryos are least likely to survive except those involving:
A)chromosome 1, 2, 3, X, Y.
B)chromosome 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
C)chromosome 13, 18, 21, X, Y.
D)chromosome 6, 7, 8, 9, 10.
E)chromosome 11, 12, 14, 15.
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Chapter 13: Passing on Lifes Information: Dna Structure and Replication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cancer is a disease caused by mutations.Yet in most instances if one of your parents tragically died from cancer,this does not put you at greater risk than a person whose parents do not develop cancer.How can cancer be caused by mutations and yet not be heritable?
A)The mutations that cause cancer are special and cannot be passed on regardless of what type of cell they occur in.
B)Most cancers arise from mutations in germ-line cells.
C)Most cancers arise from mutations in somatic cells.
D)Cancer-causing mutations are repaired in offspring but not in parents.
Q2) A mutation involving a single base pair in the genome is called a ________.
Q3) In a normal DNA molecule,adenine always pairs with ________,and cytosine always pairs with ________.
Q4) How do most mutations affect an organism?
A)Most mutations either are harmful, or they have no effect.
B)Most mutations will kill the organism.
C)Most mutations create cancerous cells.
D)Most mutations are beneficial and create a more adapted organism.
Q5) Describe what happens to the two parent strands of DNA during DNA replication.
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Q6) ________ is the enzyme involved in joining nucleotides as they are paired up.
Chapter 14: How Proteins Are Made: Genetic Transcription, translation,
and Regulation
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Q1) tRNAs will move from the A site to the P site to the E site during protein synthesis.These sites are found in:
A)mRNA.
B)tRNA.
C)the large ribosomal subunit.
D)the small ribosomal subunit.
E)the nucleus.
Q2) A portion of a gene has the following DNA sequence: GAAGGAGTAGCA,which when translated gives the amino acid sequence leucine-proline-histidine-arginine.Assume a mutation causes a C to be inserted into the sequence in between the second A and the second G.Predict how this would affect the protein produced when it is translated.
Q3) There are between 20,000 and 25,000 genes in the human genome,yet our cells are capable of producing more than 90,000 different proteins.How is this possible?
A)Many genes are actually yet to be discovered.
B)Introns are spliced back together to form mRNAs.
C)Micro-RNAs can also be used to make proteins.
D)Primary transcripts can be edited in different ways by alternative splicing to produce different mRNAs.
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Chapter 15: The Future Isnt What It Used to Be: Biotechnology
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Q1) If a restriction enzyme leaves a sticky end on a DNA fragment,it means the fragment: A)has a protruding end of a small number of unpaired bases.
B)will stick only to DNA from the same organism.
C)can attach to any other sticky end produced by any other restriction enzyme. D)can transform bacteria without the need for a cloning vector.
Q2) "Bacterial transformation" is a bacterium's ability to:
A)take up DNA from its surroundings.
B)connect DNA fragments once they are cut with restriction enzymes.
C)produce restriction enzymes.
D)produce proteins from another organism's genes.
Q3) The enzyme EcoRI cuts between the G and the A in the sequence GAATTC.The enzyme BamHI cuts between adjacent G nucleotides in the sequence GGATCC.The sticky ends that are generated by the two enzymes are complementary and will stick together.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the purpose of introducing recombinant DNA plasmids into bacterial cells?
Q5) How might stem cells be used to treat disease?
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Chapter 16: An Introduction to Evolution: Charles Darwin, evolutionary Thought, and the Evidence for Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many commercial pesticides become less effective after two to three years because:
A)pests with resistant genes will survive and reproduce.
B)new pests invade the area.
C)pests without resistant genes will ignore any plant coated with pesticide.
D)the chemicals mutate.
Q2) Instead of being trained as a biologist,Charles Darwin actually received a ________ degree.
Q3) In Charles Lyell's Principles of Geology,what idea had a significant impact on Charles Darwin's thinking?
A)Organisms change form over generations.
B)A series of catastrophes wiped out life in given areas.
C)Populations produce more individuals than can survive.
D)Geological forces that are still operating act to change the Earth's surface.
Q4) Who is the co-discoverer of the principle of natural selection along with Charles Darwin?
A)Charles Lyell
B)Jean-Baptiste de Lamarck
C)Georges Cuvier
D)Alfred Russel Wallace
Page 18
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Chapter 17: The Means of Evolution: Microevolution
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Q1) The most important kind of selection acting on a well-adapted population in a relatively constant environment is:
A)disruptive.
B)stabilizing.
C)directional.
D)catastrophic.
Q2) The formation of new species over many generations is an example of:
A)microevolution.
B)macroevolution.
C)gene pools.
D)allelic variants.
Q3) If every sexually reproducing organism has only two alleles for each gene,how can there be a range of traits seen for a physical characteristic?
A)One of the alleles in an organism is expressed at different levels, while the other is turned off.
B)Sometimes one of the alleles works, and other times the other allele works.
C)There can be more than two variations of a gene in a population.
D)In a population there are only two variations of a gene, but they are blended differently during sexual reproduction.
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Chapter 18: The Outcomes of Evolution: Macroevolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Eastern and western meadowlarks look almost identical and sometimes inhabit the same areas of prairies.They recognize members of their own species by distinctive songs and thus do not breed with each other.This is an example of:
A)geographic isolation.
B)ecological isolation.
C)no isolation mechanism.
D)behavioral isolation.
Q2) Describe the difference between homologous and analogous structures in organisms,and give an example of each.
Q3) When a species invades a new habitat and evolves rapidly into several new species,what has occurred?
A)divergent speciation
B)polyploidy
C)adaptive radiation
D)phyletic speciation
Q4) Speciation can never occur unless populations become separated by a geographic barrier.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: A Slow Unfolding: the History of Life on Earth
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Q1) Examine and explain the connections between Stanley Miller's experiments and the importance of the evolution of photosynthesis to the current state of life on Earth.
Q2) If a 10-mile-wide comet hit Earth,how would this likely affect the history of life?
A)A mass extinction would occur, followed by lots of evolutionary change among descendants of the survivors.
B)A slow climate warming and drying would begin, decreasing the biological diversity on Earth.
C)Continental drift would be reversed, and all the continents would slowly be pushed together again.
D)Most species would become extinct, and the rest would remain more or less unchanged.
Q3) Which of the following is the most likely candidate for the first eukaryotic life-forms to move onto land?
A)amphibians in shallow water
B)algae in shallow water
C)fungi
D)trilobites
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Chapter 20: Arriving Late,traveling Far: the Evolution of Human Beings
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Q1) The brain of Australopithecus afarensis was almost the same size as that of modern humans.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Taung baby,a member of Australopithecus africanus,is estimated to have lived about:
A)1 million years ago.
B)2-3 million years ago.
C)4-5 million years ago.
D)5-10 million years ago.
Q3) Place the following in correct order from least to most closely related to modern humans: (1)orangutans,(2)monkeys,(3)Homo erectus,(4)Australopithecus afarensis.
A)1, 2, 3, 4
B)4, 3, 2, 1
C)2, 1, 3, 4
D)2, 1, 4, 3
Q4) Homo sapiens and Homo neanderthalensis coexisted for thousands of years.
A)True
B)False
Page 22
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Diversity of Life 1
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Q1) Cilia are:
A)the cytoplasmic extensions or false feet that some cell types use for locomotion.
B)different kinds of cells, each designed to perform a different function.
C)the circular chromosomes of bacteria.
D)many short, hair-like cellular extensions that beat to produce movement.
Q2) The viral capsid is:
A)a fatty membrane surrounding the virus.
B)the genetic material at the core.
C)a protein coat around the genetic material.
D)the viral offspring that rupture the cell and escape.
Q3) Chlamydomonas "mating types" differ in what way?
A)chloroplasts
B)flagella structure
C)interlocking male and female parts
D)membrane phospholipids
Q4) Rod-shaped bacteria are called spirochetes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Overuse of antibiotics has likely produced MRSA.MRSA stands for ________.
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Chapter 22: Fungi: the Diversity of Life 2
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Q1) Which of the following is a fungal skin disease?
A)dry rot
B)ringworm
C)Dutch elm disease
D)skin rust
Q2) Lichens are:
A)a mutualistic association of algae or photosynthetic bacteria and fungi.
B)algae-like fungi.
C)fungi that grow on the roots of plants.
D)fungi adapted for life in rocky soil.
Q3) As part of your independent study of pond water samples,you notice one of the flagellated organisms latch on to a pollen grain and eventually release spores.You initially thought you were looking at a group exclusively made of protists,but upon further observation,you realize the organism you have been observing is classified with the fungi.In which group would you place this organism?
A)basidiomycetes
B)ascomycetes
C)zygomycetes
D)chytrids
Q4) Most fungi are ________,or fixed in one spot.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Animals: the Diversity of Life 3
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Q1) Annelids demonstrate the important animal characteristic of body segmentation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Copulation is necessary for all animals using internal fertilization.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is a group of parasitic flatworms?
A)annelids
B)flukes
C)nematodes
D)leeches
E)sea anemones
Q4) Reptiles,birds,and some mammals share which of the following characteristics?
A)are predators
B)are warm-blooded
C)exhibit live birth
D)have light, hollow bones
E)produce amniotic eggs
Q5) Sponges acquire food by ________ as water passes through.
Q6) Animals that do not have a backbone are called ________.
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Chapter 24: Plants: the Diversity of Life 4
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Q1) What trend do we observe as we look at alternation of generations and plant kingdom evolution?
A)The sporophyte generation is dominant in more advanced plants.
B)The gametophyte generation is dominant in more advanced plants.
C)Only ferns show a significant gametophyte generation.
D)Only gymnosperms show a significant sporophyte generation.
Q2) Ferns differ from mosses in that ferns contain vascular tissue and mosses do not.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In plant life cycles,eggs and sperm are produced by mitosis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Ginkgo biloba belongs in the plant group ________.
Q5) Movement of the hormone ________ to different areas of a plant to promote growth is one of the ways a plant is able to respond to external signals.
Q6) The life cycle of mosses contains only a haploid generation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: The Angiosperms: Form and Function in Flowering Plants
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Q1) The anther in a flower produces microspores. A)True
B)False
Q2) The outer portion of the "ground tissue" of a stem is referred to as its:
A)cortex.
B)pith.
C)sepal.
D)mesophyll.
Q3) Narrow,parallel-veined leaves are characteristic of: A)monocots.
B)many dicots.
C)both monocots and dicots.
D)non-flowering seed plants.
Q4) Although they produce flowers,cacti with needle-like leaves would be classified as gymnosperms rather than angiosperms.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The "style" is the long,slender structure of the stamen. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Body Support and Movement: the
Integumentary, skeletal, and Muscular Systems
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Q1) Which part of the muscle cell actually does the work of contraction by attaching,pivoting,and pulling?
A)myosin heads
B)actin filaments
C)calcium ions
D)neurotransmitter molecules
Q2) Bone and cartilage are examples of ________ tissues.
Q3) Which of the following is the study of the body's structure?
A)physiology
B)anatomy
C)zoology
D)endocrinology
E)homeostasis
Q4) Which of the following systems are involved in bringing nutrients into the body and to its cells?
A)respiratory and cardiovascular
B)digestive and cardiovascular
C)urinary and cardiovascular
D)lymphatic and respiratory
Q5) Glands are part of the ________ tissue category. To view
Chapter 27: Communication and Control 1: the Nervous System
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Q1) Neurons are not correct cells because they aren't spherical in shape.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Damage to the medulla oblongata in the brain could interfere with breathing.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The brain and the spinal cord make up the central nervous system (CNS).
A)True
B)False
Q4) The portion of the nervous system that most directly controls skeletal muscles is the: A)somatic.
B)autonomic.
C)sympathetic.
D)parasympathetic.
E)afferent.
Q5) The cilia that respond to sounds in the cochlea have "trapdoor" channels for K+ ions. A)True
B)False
29
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Chapter 28: Communication and Control 2: the Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which endocrine gland is associated with proper development of certain white blood cells?
Q2) Which organ that is a target of insulin plays the most significant role in regulating sugar levels in circulation?
A)adrenal glands
B)kidneys
C)stomach
D)pituitary
E)liver
Q3) Hormones that are released by the posterior pituitary were made in the:
A)hypothalamus.
B)anterior pituitary.
C)brain stem.
D)adrenal glands.
E)thalamus.
Q4) Alpha cells of the pancreas make insulin.
A)True
B)False
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Q5) The hormone that stimulates mammary gland development and milk production is
Chapter 29: Defending the Body: the Immune System
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Q1) Which statement about the B cells' abilities to produce antibodies is most accurate?
A)B cells wait to encounter an antigen and then copy it.
B)There are no B cells until an antigen is encountered.
C)There may be 100 million different B-cells, each producing a different antibody.
D)Most B cells are capable of producing any kind of antibody.
E)B cells don't produce antibodies until they develop in the thymus.
Q2) The figure above shows antibody-mediated immunity.The cells indicated by a "1" are:
A)bacterial cells.
B)cytotoxic T cells.
C)helper T cells.
D)memory cells.
E)plasma cells.
Q3) Phagocytes can ingest pathogens,cells,and cell parts in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is a phagocyte?
Q5) Antibodies are a part of our ________ immune response.
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Chapter 30: Transport and Exchange 1: Blood and Breath
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many people regularly donate plasma.Which of the following substances is not given when the plasma is donated?
A)electrolytes
B)antibodies
C)water
D)red blood cells
Q2) People with high blood pressure often take medication to lower blood pressure.Some of these medications might do this by:
A)increasing the blood volume.
B)relaxing the smooth muscles in the arteries.
C)opening the valves in the veins.
D)increasing the number of platelets in the blood.
Q3) An athletic friend of yours recently had a blood test,asked for a copy of the report,and looked up numbers for his "total cholesterol," or combined LDL/HDL numbers.An online source lists his total as slightly high.He says,"My doctor's a quack! He told me my cholesterol was fine!" You press your friend for more details and come to understand that his LDL levels are within the healthy range,but his HDL levels are higher than average.What do you say to your friend to help him understand his doctor's comments?
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Chapter 31: Transport and Exchange 2: Digestion, nutrition, and Elimination
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Q1) How does food move from the pharynx to the stomach?
A)Gravity alone pushes food through the trachea.
B)Gravity alone pushes food through the esophagus.
C)Peristalsis and gravity push food through the trachea.
D)Peristalsis and gravity push food through the esophagus.
Q2) The functional units of the kidneys are the ________.
Q3) Why does alcohol ingestion increase urine output?
A)The alcohol increases blood pressure.
B)The alcohol suppresses ADH production.
C)The alcohol stimulates ADH production.
D)The alcohol redirects blood flow away from the skin and to the kidneys.
E)The alcohol is converted to excess water by the liver.
Q4) A friend tells you that she wants to try to be a strict vegetarian or vegan,but her parents are discouraging her from doing so.Her parents say she will not get enough protein or vitamins.What advice can you offer your friend to help her convince her parents she will get enough protein and vitamins on a vegetarian or vegan diet?
Q5) Complex carbohydrates that are digestible are known as ________.
Page 33
Q6) What are the two main chemicals secreted by the gastric pits in the stomach?
Q7) The layer of the digestive tract that contains smooth muscle is the ________.
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Chapter 32: An Amazingly Detailed Script: Animal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) ZPA cells of the chick embryo produce which morphogen?
A)sonic hedgehog
B)sonic chicken
C)bicoid
D)chicken wing factor
Q2) The blastocoel is:
A)a fertilized egg.
B)the group of cells that form the archenteron.
C)a fluid-filled cavity.
D)a hollow sphere of cells.
Q3) Bicoid mRNAs are produced by the zygote.
A)True
B)False
Q4) You are a substitute teacher in a high school biology lab class on the day the students are dissecting fetal pigs.One student finds that his pig's lungs,liver,pancreas,and digestive organs are either missing or small and malformed.The student scratches his head with his clean hand and says,"What went on here?" Although there may be more than one reason,what might you propose as an explanation based on embryonic development?
Page 34
Q5) During gastrulation in sea urchins,which forms first,the mouth or the anus?
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Chapter 33: How the Baby Came to Be: Human Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Given the loss of childbearing ability and negative health effects associated with menopause,there is cause to question why it exists given that evolution usually selects against most negative health effects and reduced fertility.Appraise and compare the two possible explanations covered in this section.
Q2) What changes occur in the endometrium as the time of possible fertilization approaches?
A)Menstruation occurs.
B)The endometrium enters the proliferative phase.
C)The endometrium enters the secretory phase.
D)The endometrium secretes estrogen.
Q3) An ectopic pregnancy is:
A)implantation of the embryo in the uterus.
B)another name for fraternal twins.
C)another name for identical twins.
D)attachment of an embryo outside the uterus.
Q4) Evaluate this statement: By the end of the first trimester,most growth in a fetus is in size,not complexity.
Q5) Which is the only trimester to include both the embryo and fetal stages?
Q6) Enzymes are carried in the ________ of a sperm.
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Chapter 34: An Interactive Living World 1: Populations in Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does the graph of Daphnia population growth suggest about this species?
A)The slow start suggests long generation time and a K-selected species.
B)The J-curve suggests short generation time and an r-selected species.
C)The straight line suggests a changing carrying capacity.
D)The high numbers suggest arithmetic increase.
Q2) Which of the following would be a valid,general pattern seen in generation time?
A)Nearly all K-selected organisms have short generation times.
B)Species with the fastest growth rates have the longest generation times.
C)The larger the species is, the longer its generation time tends to be.
D)All vertebrates have long generation times.
Q3) Oak trees grow slowly and put a lot of resources into the trunk,bark,and roots.Seeds are relatively heavy.In the plant kingdom,oaks might be considered:
A)density independent.
B)r-selected.
C)opportunistic.
D)K-selected.
Q4) Most K-selected species have short generation times.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An "S" shaped curve would be indicative of ________ growth.
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Chapter 35: An Interactive Living World 2: Communities in Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The graph indicated by a "2" demonstrates which principle of community ecology?
A)biodiversity
B)ecological dominants
C)facilitation
D)resource partitioning
E)competitive exclusion
Q2) Ecological dominants are typically the top predators in a community.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Commensalism often results in competitive exclusion.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A red-shouldered hawk chases a falcon away from a dead squirrel.This is an example of:
A)interspecific competition.
B)coexistence.
C)mutualism.
D)commensalism.
Q5) What is the relationship between a biodiversity and geographic diversity?
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Chapter 36: An Interactive Living World 3: Ecosystems and Biomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Humans function primarily at which trophic levels?
A)producers; primary consumers
B)all trophic levels
C)secondary consumers; tertiary consumers
D)primary consumers; secondary consumers
Q2) Which of the following is a biotic factor of an ecosystem?
A)soil minerals
B)water
C)oxygen
D)bacteria
Q3) In this diagram,the blue heron is playing which role in the ecosystem when it eats the garter snake?
A)primary consumer and second trophic level
B)secondary consumer and third trophic level
C)tertiary consumer and third trophic level
D)tertiary consumer and fourth trophic level
Q4) The tropical savannahs of Africa are a type of tropical ________.
Q5) A carnivore,such as a lion,that mainly eats herbivores,such as zebras and wildebeests,would be placed at which trophic level?
Page 38
Q6) The ozone layer is found in which layer of the atmosphere?
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