Chapter 18: The Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26921
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT correct about the reaction catalyzed by citrate synthase?
A)Citrate synthase is allosterically activated by ATP.
B)The complete chemical equation is:
oxaloacetate + acetyl-CoA + H?O citrate + CoA
C)Citryl-CoA is formed as an intermediate.
D)The mechanism involves attack of the carbanion of acetyl-CoA on the carbonyl carbon of oxaloacetate.
Q2) Which enzyme carries out a reaction of the citric acid cycle with the largest negative G value?
A)citrate synthase
B)succinyl-CoA synthetase
C)succinyl-CoA dehydrogenase
D)malate dehydrogenase
Q3) Which molecule is generated between succinyl-CoA and ATP in mammals to "preserve" the energy of the thioester bond?
A)a-ketoglutarate
B)phosphohistidine
C)citrate
D)acetyl-CoA
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 20
Chapter 19: Electron Transport and Oxidative
Phosphorylation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26922
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT correct regarding the glycerophosphate shuttle?
A)Glycerol-3-phosphate is translocated across the inner mitochondrial membrane into the matrix.
B)There are 2 distinct forms of glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenase in cells with this shuttle.
C)It results in the net transfer of electrons to the electron-transport chain from NADH in the cytosol.
D)Electrons derived from this shuttle enter the electron-transport chain at UQ.
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of the binding charge mechanism?
A)Energy-driven conformational changes convert O-sites to L-sites.
B)One site is empty (L-sites).
C)One site contains ADP and Pi (O-sites).
D)T-sites become O-sites.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of proton gradient-driven enzyme conformational change in ATP synthase?
A)binding of substrates
B)catalytic cooperativity between subunits
C)conformational change in the -subunits releasing ATP
D)rotation of ( )<sub>3</sub> complex relative to a fixed -subunit
Page 21
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 20: Photosynthesis
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26923
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following sets of pathways is similar between plants and animals?
A)electron transport and the dark reactions of photosynthesis
B)electron transport and pyruvate carboxylase
C)the Hatch-Slack pathway (C-4)and pyruvate carboxylase
D)the Hatch-Slack pathway (C-4)and the dark reactions of photosynthesis
Q2) Photosynthetic phosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation are similar processes.Which of the following is common to both processes?
A)Both produce NADPH to be used in the reductive pentose phosphate pathway (Calvin cycle).
B)Both contain cytochromes in their electron carrier chains.
C)Both represent a major route of ATP hydrolysis.
D)Both have iron clusters as electron carriers.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT involved with the function of the photosynthetic unit ?
A)antenna chlorophyll
B)the reactive centre
C)oxidation of chlorophyll to a cationic free radical,Chl.+
D)the cationic free radical is the Mg² ion
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 22
Chapter 21: Gluconeogenesis, glycogen Metabolism, and the Pentose Phosphate Pathway
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26924
Sample Questions
Q1) Which conditions trigger the conversion of pyruvate into OAA for gluconeogenesis?
A)high levels of NADH and ATP
B)high levels of NAD and acetyl CoA
C)high levels of ATP and acetyl CoA
D)high levels of ATP and NAD
Q2) What is the primary regulatory point of gluconeogenesis?
A)glucose-6-phosphatase
B)fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase
C)fructose-2,6-bisphosphatase
D)pyruvate carboxylase
E)PEP carboxykinase
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of AGEs?
A)AGEs means advanced glycation end products.
B)AGEs generated by elevated blood glucose contribute to circulation,joint,and vision problems of diabetics.
C)AGEs alter the function of the protein to which they are attached.
D)AGEs form by enzyme-catalyzed Schiff base formation between sugars and proteins.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 23
Chapter 22: Fatty Acid Catabolism
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26925
Sample Questions
Q1) How many times must the ?-oxidation cycle be repeated for the complete oxidation of a saturated fatty acid with 16 carbons?
A)4
B)6
C)7
D)8
Q2) Which of the following are the 3 most common ketone bodies?
A)acetoacetate,hydroxyacetone phosphate,and butyrate
B)acetone, -hydroxybutyrate,and acetoacetate
C)acetoacetate,acetyl-CoA,and acetone
D)butyrate,acetoacetate,and acetone
Q3) Which of the following classes of enzymes does enoyl-CoA hydratase belong to?
A)transferase
B)hydrolase
C)lyase
D)ligase
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
24
Chapter 23: Nitrogen Acquisition and Amino Acid
Metabolism
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26926
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following compounds provides the 6 electrons required by nitrite reductase to reduce NO to NH in higher plants?
A)plastoquinone
B)heme
C)CO
D)ferredoxin
Q2) Which of the following regarding the urea cycle is correct?
A)Stimulation of carbamoyl-phosphate synthetase I (CPS-I)decreases the activity of the urea cycle.
B)It results in the accumulation of excess nitrogen.
C)It is linked to the citric acid cycle through citrate.
D)It is completed by the regeneration of ornithine from arginine.
Q3) Which of the following amino acid carbon skeletons converges to pyruvate?
A)methionine
B)isoleucine
C)glutamate
D)cysteine
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 25
Chapter 24: Nucleotides and Nucleic Acids
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26927
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements correctly identifies type II restriction endonucleases?
A)They work on both DNA and RNA.
B)They recognize a palindromic sequence and cut just before the palindromic sequence.
C)They degrade DNA by subsequently removing bases from each end.
D)They cut DNA only at sites in specific nucleotide sequences with a 2-fold axis of symmetry.
Q2) Which of the following purine derivatives is NOT found in nucleic acids?
A)guanine
B)adenine
C)xanthine
D)uric acid
Q3) Which of these compounds is a 6-membered heterocyclic aromatic ring?
A)pyrimidine
B)purine
C)anose
D)ribonucleotide
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 25: Structure of Nucleic Acids
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26928
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the function of DNA topoisomerases?
A)packaging DNA into nucleosomes
B)forming cruciform DNA
C)unwinding G:C-rich areas in DNA
D)breaking 1 or more strands of DNA,winding them tighter or looser,and rejoining the ends
Q2) Which of the following terms defines the process that occurs when ssDNA reassociates with other ssDNA?
A)diffusion
B)reannealing
C)melting
D)solidifying
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of rRNA strands?
A)interstrand sequence complementarity
B)the absence of modified ribonucleotides
C)an anticodon loop
D)highly folded patterns,including many stem-loop structures
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 26: Synthesis and Degradation of Nucleotides
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26929
Sample Questions
Q1) Thymine nucleotides are not synthesized directly by cells but indirectly from other pyrimidine deoxyribonucleotides.Which of these statements is NOT correct regarding thymine nucleotide synthesis?
A)dUMP is the immediate precursor for dTMP.
B)The action of dUTPase allows dUTP to serve as a substrate in DNA synthesis.
C)The methyl donor in the reaction of dTMP is N5,N10-methylene-THF.
D)THF is used as a cofactor.
Q2) Which of the following characterizes the compound allopurinol?
A)It is an analog of hypoxanthine that binds tightly to xanthine oxidase and prevents uric acid formation.
B)It is an analog of guanine that binds tightly to guanine deaminase and prevents xanthine formation.
C)It is an analog of inosine that binds tightly to xanthine oxidase and prevents xanthine formation.
D)It is an analog of hypoxanthine that binds tightly to guanine deaminase and prevents uric acid formation.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 27: Recombinant Dna: Cloning and Creation of Chimeric Genes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26930
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a useful feature of a plasmid for cloning?
A)expressed sequence tag
B)a cloning site
C)a replicator (origin of replication)
D)a selectable marker
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a step in the sequence for construction of a chimeric plasmid?
A)annealing the ends of the vector and foreign DNA
B)cutting the source of the foreign DNA with a restriction endonuclease
C)reannealing the ends of the vector back together
D)cutting the vector plasmid with the same restriction endonuclease
Q3) What is the term for the study of all the proteins expressed by a certain cell or tissue under specific conditions?
A)genetics
B)proteomics
C)embryogenesis
D)mutagenesis
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 29
Chapter 28: DNA Metabolism: Replication, recombination, and Repair
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26931
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of E.coli DNA polymerase I?
A)a 5'?3' exonuclease activity
B)a 3'?5' DNA polymerase activity
C)modest processivity (approximately 20 nucleotides)
D)does not require a primer for initiation
Q2) Which of the following is a shared characteristic of DNA polymerases?
A)They are strongly processive.
B)Incoming bases are paired with corresponding bases on the complementary strand within the polymerase active site.
C)Polymerization proceeds in a 3'5' direction.
D)Polymerization is antiparallel to template strand.
Q3) Which of the following actions does the methyl-directed repair system take when it detects a mismatch in dsDNA?
A)It resynthesizes the newly replicated strand.
B)It corrects the DNA strand that is methylated.
C)It corrects the mismatch by changing the base on the not-yet-methylated strand.
D)It changes the base that is methylated.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 30
Chapter 29: Transcription and the Regulation of Gene Expression
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26932
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms defines nucleotide sequences that identify the location of transcription start sites and regulate the level of transcription?
A)sigma factors
B)Pribnow boxes
C)TATA boxes
D)promoters
Q2) The base-pair edges in the major groove act as a recognition matrix.How are they identifiable?
A)through van der Waals interactions with specific proteins
B)through hydrophobic interactions with specific proteins
C)through H-bonding with specific proteins
D)through ionic binding interactions with specific proteins
Q3) Which of the following base locations in DNA specifies the first base in the RNA transcript designated,and what numerical value is it assigned?
A)promoter;-5
B)enhancer;-35
C)transcription start site;0
D)transcription start site;+1
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 31
Chapter 30: Protein Synthesis
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26933
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a basic step in protein synthesis?
A)The elongation reaction transfers the peptide chain from the peptidyl-tRNA in the A site to the aminoacyl-tRNA in the P site.
B)The P site is occupied by peptidyl-tRNA carrying the growing polypeptide chain.
C)Binding of mRNA by the small subunit is followed by association of a particular initiator aminoacyl-tRNA that recognizes the first codon.
D)The new,longer peptidyl-tRNA moves from the A site into the P site as the ribosome moves one codon further along the mRNA.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a component required for peptide chain initiation?
A)DNA
B)30S and 50S ribosomal subunits
C)initiation factors
D)GTP and f-Met-tRNAi<sup>fMet</sup>
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the genetic code?
A)It is degenerate.
B)It is read 3' to 5'.
C)It is read from a fixed starting point without punctuation.
D)It is not overlapping.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 32
Chapter 31: Post-Transcriptional Regulation of Gene Expression
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26934
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following do miRNAs binds?
A)GREs
B)seed elements
C)AREs
D)core promoters
Q2) Which of the following cleaves the pre-miRNA at the level of the loop,yielding a 22-nt,double-stranded RNA molecule?
A)Drosha
B)DGCR8
C)Dicer
D)RISC
Q3) Which of the following ARE-binding proteins (AUBPs)stabilizes ARE-mRNA?
A)KSRP
B)TTP
C)HuR
D)BRF1
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 33
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26935
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common form of posttranslational processing?
A)carbohydrate addition
B)proteolytic cleavage
C)lipid addition
D)phosphorylation
Q2) Which of the following is a part of the folding cycle in the GroES-GroEL complex of E.coli?
A)GroES promotes GTP hydrolysis,and a-subunits undergo a conformational change that buries the hydrophobic patches.
B)GroES associates to the complex.
C)Partially folded,protein hydrophilic residues bind GroEL.
D)GroES is recruited to GroEL.
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of chaperonin?
A)formed of 3 stacked rings of subunits
B)allows folding to proceed in a unprotected environment
C)small,cylindrical protein complexes
D)sequesters partially folded proteins
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 34
Chapter 33: Metabolic Integration and Organ Specialization
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26936
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these enzymes is activated upon phosphorylation by AMP-activated protein kinase?
A)acetyl-CoA carboxylase
B)phosphofructokinase-2
C)glycogen synthase
D)3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-CoA reductase
Q2) What is the general order of available energy sources in muscles during strenuous exertion?
A)glycogen > ATP > glucose > fatty acids > phosphocreatine
B)ATP > phosphocreatine > glycogen >glucose > fatty acids
C)phosphocreatine > glucose > ATP > fatty acids > glycogen
D)fatty acids > phosphocreatine > ATP > glucose > glycogen
Q3) What is the term for the constant availability of fuels in the blood,and what is the order of preference for fuel usage?
A)phosphorylation potential;glycogen > triacylglycerols > protein
B)fuel dynamics;triacylglycerols > glycogen > protein
C)metabolic regulation;triacylglycerols > glycogen > protein
D)caloric homeostasis;glycogen > triacylglycerols > protein
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
35