Life Science
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Life Science explores the study of living organisms and life processes, encompassing areas such as biology, ecology, genetics, physiology, and evolutionary theory. This course introduces fundamental concepts that help students understand the structures, functions, and interactions of microorganisms, plants, animals, and humans. Emphasis is placed on scientific inquiry, experimental methods, and the application of life science knowledge to real-world challenges, including human health, environmental conservation, and biotechnology advancements. Through laboratory investigations and collaborative projects, students gain hands-on experience and develop critical thinking skills essential for further studies in the life sciences and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Campbell Biology Concepts and Connections 8th Edition by Jane B. Reece
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Chapter 1: Biology: Exploring Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) You notice that over the past month, many students on campus have started wearing a new style of school sweatshirt. You think to yourself that perhaps the bookstore has recently started selling this new sweatshirt style. This is an example of A)an experimental question.
B)a type of observation.
C)a hypothesis.
D)an experiment.
Answer: C
Q2) Members of the kingdom Animalia
A)can obtain their food either by absorption or by photosynthesis. B)are composed of cells that lack a cell membrane.
C)can obtain their food by eating other organisms.
D)make their own food through photosynthesis.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about water is false?
A)Ice is more dense than liquid water.
B)Water naturally exists in all three physical states on Earth.
C)Floating ice on a pond insulates the liquid water below, slowing its rate of freezing.
D)If ice sank, the oceans would eventually freeze solid.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is dependent on the ability of water molecules to form hydrogen bonds with other molecules besides water?
A)the evaporative cooling of skin surfaces
B)the milder temperatures of coastal regions compared to inland areas
C)the ability of certain insects to walk on the surface of water
D)the universality of water as a solvent
Answer: D
Q3) The tendency of water molecules to stick together is referred to as A)adhesion.
B)polarity.
C)cohesion.
D)transpiration.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: The Molecules of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Based on your understanding of enzyme structure, which of the following would you recommend that they also investigate?
A)the temperature of the liquid in the washing vat
B)the manufacturer of the fabric
C)how long the fabric has been in storage
D)the primary structure of the enzyme
Answer: A
Q2) Proteins cannot be denatured by A)heat.
B)changes in pH.
C)changes in salt concentration.
D)freezing.
Answer: D
Q3) The results of dehydration synthesis can be reversed by A)condensation.
B)hydrolysis.
C)polymerization.
D)the addition of an amino group.
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: A Tour of the Cell
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Q1) Which of the following structures is exclusively associated with prokaryotic cells?
A)membrane-bound nucleus
B)nucleoid
C)chromosome
D)ribosomes
Q2) Which of the following statements about the cytoskeleton is false?
A)The cytoskeleton helps to support cells.
B)Once laid down, the elements of the cytoskeleton are fixed and remain permanently in place.
C)The cytoskeleton is composed of three types of fibers: microfilaments, microtubules, and intermediate filaments.
D)The cytoskeleton plays an important role in amoeboid motion.
Q3) Which location in the cell is unlikely to contain ribosomes or ribosomal subunits?
A)nuclear envelope
B)plasma membrane
C)endoplasmic reticulum
D)cytoplasm
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6
Chapter 5: The Working Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the basic difference between exergonic and endergonic reactions?
A)Exergonic reactions involve ionic bonds; endergonic reactions involve covalent bonds.
B)Exergonic reactions involve the breaking of bonds; endergonic reactions involve the formation of bonds.
C)Exergonic reactions release energy; endergonic reactions absorb it.
D)In exergonic reactions, the reactants have less chemical energy than the products; in endergonic reactions, the opposite is true.
Q2) Plasma membranes are selectively permeable. This means that
A)anything can pass into or out of a cell as long as the membrane is intact and the cell is healthy.
B)the plasma membrane allows some substances to enter or leave a cell more easily than others.
C)glucose cannot enter the cell.
D)plasma membranes must be very thick.
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Chapter 6: How Cells Harvest Chemical Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) During which of the following phases of cellular respiration does substrate-level phosphorylation take place?
A)glycolysis
B)the citric acid cycle
C)oxidative phosphorylation
D)glycolysis and the citric acid cycle
Q2) Which of the following statements about the energy yield of aerobic respiration is false?
A)Glycolysis resulting from 1 glucose molecule yields 2 ATP molecules.
B)The oxidation of pyruvate results in the production of 0 ATP molecules
C)Oxidative phosphorylation resulting from 1 glucose molecule yields 12 ATP molecules.
D)The citric acid cycle resulting from 1 glucose molecules yields 2 ATP molecules.
Q3) The end products of the citric acid cycle include all of the following except A)CO .
B)pyruvate.
C)ATP.
D)FADH .
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Chapter 7: Photosynthesis: Using Light to Make Food
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Sample Questions
Q1) Purple sulfur bacteria are organisms capable of photosynthesis. They get their name, in part, because they use H S (hydrogen sulfide)instead of water during the light reactions. In what form would you expect to find sulfur (S)as a result of photosynthesis in these bacteria?
A)S
B)SO
C)CS
D)C H S
Q2) Photosynthetic organisms derive their carbon from A)carbon monoxide.
B)carbon dioxide.
C)hydrocarbons.
D)methane.
Q3) Carbon dioxide absorption is an appropriate indicator of photosynthesis because A)CO is needed to produce sugars in the Calvin cycle.
B)CO is needed to complete the light reactions.
C)plants produce oxygen gas by splitting CO .
D)the energy in CO is used to produce ATP and NADPH.
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9
Chapter 8: The Cellular Basis of Reproduction and Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prior to mitosis, each chromosome of a eukaryotic cell consists of a pair of identical structures called
A)chromatin.
B)sister chromosomes.
C)nucleoli.
D)sister chromatids.
Q2) Mature human nerve cells and muscle cells
A)become cancerous more easily than other cell types.
B)continue to divide throughout their lifetime.
C)are permanently in a state of nondivision.
D)cease dividing after a predetermined number of cell generations.
Q3) Which of the following statements regarding cell division is false?
A)Cell division can reproduce an entire organism.
B)Cell division is necessary for development to occur.
C)Cell division is the basis of both sexual and asexual reproduction.
D)Cell division is common in eukaryotes but rare in prokaryotes.
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Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements regarding genotypes and phenotypes is false?
A)The genetic makeup of an organism constitutes its genotype.
B)An organism with two different alleles for a single trait is said to be homozygous for that trait.
C)Alleles are alternate forms of a gene.
D)The expressed physical traits of an organism are called its phenotype.
Q2) Most people afflicted with recessive disorders are born to parents who were
A)both affected by the disease.
B)not affected at all by the disease.
C)slightly affected by the disease, showing some but not all of the symptoms.
D)subjected to some environmental toxin that caused the disease in their children.
Q3) A testcross is
A)a mating between an individual of unknown genotype and an individual homozygous recessive for the trait of interest.
B)a mating between an individual of unknown genotype and an individual heterozygous for the trait of interest.
C)a mating between two individuals heterozygous for the trait of interest.
D)a mating between two individuals of unknown genotype.
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Chapter 10: Molecular Biology of the Gene
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Sample Questions
Q1) How would the shape of a DNA molecule change if adenine paired with guanine and cytosine paired with thymine?
A)The DNA molecule would be longer.
B)The DNA molecule would be shorter.
C)The DNA molecule would be circular.
D)The DNA molecule would have irregular widths along its length.
Q2) Suppose that the human insulin protein that was produced by the bacteria was much shorter than it should be. Upon further investigation, it was found that the DNA of the human insulin gene had a mutation while in the bacterial cells. What type of mutation could not result in these observations?
A)nucleotide insertion
B)silent mutation
C)nucleotide deletion
D)nonsense mutation
Q3) The most likely method by which the mutated CCR5 gene prevents AIDS is by
A)covering the cell membrane.
B)rupturing the nuclear membrane.
C)attacking and destroying the HIV virus particles.
D)coding for a protective protein in the cell membrane.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: How Genes Are Controlled
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the correct order of structures in a chromosome from smallest to largest?
A)nucleotide, nucleosome, histone, supercoil, tight helical fiber, chromosome
B)nucleosome, nucleotide, histone, tight helical fiber, supercoil, chromosome
C)nucleotide, histone, tight helical fiber, nucleosome, chromosome, supercoil
D)nucleotide, histone, nucleosome, tight helical fiber, supercoil, chromosome
Q2) Enhancers are
A)adjacent to the gene that they regulate.
B)required to turn on gene expression when transcription factors are in short supply.
C)DNA sequences to which activator proteins bind.
D)required to facilitate the binding of DNA polymerases.
Q3) The term "gene expression" refers to the
A)fact that each individual of a species has a unique set of genes.
B)fact that individuals of the same species have different phenotypes.
C)process by which genetic information flows from genes to proteins.
D)flow of information from parent to offspring.
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Chapter 12: DNA Technology and Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) When DNA molecule "A" is cut with the restriction enzyme EcoRI, it is cut into four pieces. When DNA molecule "B," which is exactly identical to DNA molecule "A" except for the presence of one SNP, is cut with EcoRI, it is cut into three pieces. What is the best explanation for this observation?
A)The SNP occurs in all EcoRI restriction sites in DNA molecule "B."
B)The SNP occurs in a single EcoRI restriction site in DNA molecule "B."
C)Not enough EcoRI was used to cut DNA molecule "B."
D)An excess of EcoRI was used to cut DNA molecule "A."
Q2) ________ are a major source of restriction enzymes.
A)Plant cells
B)Human cells
C)Archaea cells
D)Bacterial cells
Q3) Biotechnology
A)is a modern scientific discipline that has existed for only a few decades.
B)is strictly concerned with the manipulation of DNA.
C)has been around since the dawn of civilization.
D)is generally considered more harmful than valuable to society.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: How Populations Evolve
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some butterflies can ingest toxic chemicals from the milkweed plants they feed on and then can store those chemicals in their body. Because toxins stored in the butterflies are toxic to birds, the birds avoid eating the butterflies. Which of the following is the best explanation for this situation?
A)Butterflies that stored the chemicals were never eaten by predators, so those butterflies survived.
B)Butterflies developed a mutation that led them to be able to store the chemical because they needed to avoid being eaten.
C)Milkweed plants wanted the butterflies to ingest the chemical so they would no longer feed on the plant, but the butterflies fooled the milkweed by storing the toxic chemicals.
D)Any butterfly allele that allowed milkweed toxin storage would be likely to persist because butterflies that had it were more likely to survive.
Q2) Aristotle believed that
A)species evolve through natural selection and other mechanisms.
B)an individual's use of a body part causes it to further evolve.
C)species are fixed (permanent)and perfect.
D)the best evidence for change within species is seen in fossils.
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Chapter 14: The Origin of Species
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diane Dodd's experiments using fruit flies demonstrated that A)the evolution of reproductive barriers occurs much too slowly to produce measurable effects in the laboratory.
B)new species can form in a single generation by the production of new reproductive structures.
C)formation of a reproductive barrier between two populations is more likely if they experience and adapt to different environmental conditions.
D)reproductive barriers usually are absolute: Either two populations are fully willing and able to interbreed, or they are strictly separated by a fully effective reproductive barrier.
Q2) When plants undergo allopatric speciation, an initial reproductive barrier is often A)polyploidy.
B)gametic isolation.
C)temporal isolation.
D)pollinator choice.
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16
Chapter 15: Tracing Evolutionary History
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Sample Questions
Q1) The feathers of Archaeopteryx may have been used for flight. However, it is likely that they were originally used for A)insulation.
B)protection from predators.
C)nest building.
D)protection from parasites.
Q2) Feathers are an example of a/an ________; they originally evolved ________. A)homology; for flight B)adaptation; for some other function and only later became adapted for flight C)exaptation; in anticipation of future use in the development of flight D)exaptation; for some other function and only later became adapted for flight
Q3) The earliest known land plants date to the A)Precambrian.
B)Ordovician (early Paleozoic era).
C)Carboniferous (late Paleozoic era).
D)Jurassic (Mesozoic era).
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17
Chapter 16: Microbial Life: Prokaryotes and Protists
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following cellular structures is characteristic of amoebas?
A)pseudopodia
B)microvilli
C)cilia
D)flagella
Q2) Some current research efforts are investigating whether or not ________, a group of prokaryotes with the ability to produce oxygen as a by-product of photosynthesis, can be used as a source of renewable energy by converting sunlight into electricity.
A)chlamydias
B)spirochetes
C)proteobacteria
D)cyanobacteria
Q3) Unlike archaean and eukaryote cell walls, bacterial cell walls contain a unique substance called A)cellulose.
B)peptidoglycan.
C)phospholipid.
D)glycogen.
Q4) Chloroplasts evolved through secondary endosymbiosis.
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Chapter 17: The Evolution of Plant and Fungal Diversity
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Q1) Which of the following options correctly represents the most likely sequence of the evolution of plants, from earliest to most recent?
A)bryophytes, seedless vascular plants, gymnosperms, angiosperms
B)seedless vascular plants, bryophytes, angiosperms, gymnosperms
C)bryophytes, seedless vascular plants, angiosperms, gymnosperms
D)bryophytes, gymnosperms, seedless vascular plants, angiosperms
Q2) Which part of the life cycle does a pollen grain represent?
A)a spore
B)a sperm cell
C)a male gametophyte
D)a male sporophyte
Q3) Fungal diseases common in ________ include ________ and ________.
A)plants; smuts; rusts
B)animals; smuts; chytrids
C)plants; ringworm; coccidioidomycosis
D)humans; rusts; vaginal yeast
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Chapter 18: The Evolution of Invertebrate Diversity
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Q1) Traditional animal phylogenetic trees and the most recent molecular phylogenetic trees have many similarities. Which is a feature of the recent trees that was not present in the traditional phylogeny?
A)the placement of Echinodermata and Chordata together in a clade of deuterostomes
B)the status of sponges as the first group to diverge from the other animals
C)the grouping of nematodes and arthropods into a clade called the Ecdysozoa
D)the grouping of all bilaterally symmetric animals within a single clade
Q2) You inflate a balloon and let it go. It shoots away as air exits forcefully through the balloon's narrow opening. This most closely resembles the mode of movement seen in A)sea anemones.
B)snails.
C)squid.
D)nematodes.
Q3) In protostomes,
A)the opening formed during gastrulation becomes the mouth.
B)the opening formed during gastrulation becomes the anus.
C)there is no body cavity.
D)there is no endoderm.
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Chapter 19: The Evolution of Vertebrate Diversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following animal groups is characterized by the absence of tails?
A)apes
B)Old World monkeys
C)New World monkeys
D)lemurs
Q2) Which of the following statements best describes how flight and feathers are related in the evolution of birds?
A)The first flying birds did not have feathers, which evolved later.
B)Feathers and flight evolved at the same time.
C)The first feathered ancestors to birds did not fly but may have used their feathers for insulation and display.
D)Feathers are soft and do not leave fossils or fossil traces, so it is unknown which organisms first had feathers.
Q3) Compared to other primates, anthropoids have
A)a decreased reliance upon vision.
B)a stronger reliance upon smell.
C)a fully opposable thumb.
D)smaller total body size in most cases.
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Chapter 20: Unifying Concepts of Animal Structure and Function
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Q1) The laryngeal nerve is 15 feet long in giraffes because
A)the giraffe's throat is located far away from its brain.
B)this nerve connects to the spinal cord.
C)the nerve is modified from an ancestor that did not have a neck.
D)the laryngeal nerve is a vestigial organ.
Q2) Which part of the figure above shows a complete organ system?
A)part A
B)part B
C)part C
D)part D
Q3) Unlike both smooth and skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle
A)has cells that contact one another.
B)has cells that are striated.
C)generally cannot be contracted at will.
D)has branched cells.
Q4) Which of the following is a type of connective tissue?
A)plasma
B)adipose tissue
C)epithelial tissue
D)muscle tissue
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Chapter 21: Nutrition and Digestion
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a person on a fad diet experiences muscle cramps, a physician would suspect that this individual is likely suffering from a deficiency of A)table salt.
B)iodine.
C)iron.
D)calcium.
Q2) What percentage of the daily value of fat-soluble vitamins is provided by this package of cookies?
A)0%
B)2%
C)3%
D)4%
Q3) Essential fatty acids, which are required in the human diet, are A)those fatty acids that humans are unable to synthesize. B)the fatty acids that humans can synthesize from simpler molecules. C)the fatty acids used in the construction of the phospholipids of cell membranes. D)stored in the gallbladder.
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Chapter 22: Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which respiratory structure likely has the largest surface area for gas exchange to occur?
A)the body surface of a worm
B)the alveoli of a pig
C)the tracheal system of a house fly
D)the gills of a trout
Q2) Oxygen is mostly transported through the body in which of the following forms?
A)dissolved in the blood
B)dissolved in red blood cells
C)bound to hemoglobin
D)bound to dissolved iron
Q3) For this data set, what is the residual volume?
A)500 mL
B)1,200 mL
C)2,300 mL
D)2,800 mL
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Chapter 23: Circulation
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Q1) Which of the following statements about erythrocytes is true?
A)The main function of erythrocytes is to carry nutrients.
B)Erythrocytes are shaped like biconcave disks.
C)Each erythrocyte contains about 1 million molecules of hemoglobin.
D)Erythrocytes in adult humans have nuclei.
Q2) Which of the following molecules is least likely to be able to pass through a capillary wall?
A)an enzyme
B)a sodium ion
C)glucose
D)oxygen
Q3) Although birds and mammals descended from different ancestors, they both have a four-chambered heart. This is the result of
A)the simplification of the cardiovascular system.
B)the necessity for rapid movement of blood.
C)convergent evolution.
D)genetic aberrations that resulted from mistakes in somatic cell division.
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Chapter 24: the Immune System
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Q1) Bronchitis can be easily acquired by individuals with immunodeficiency disorders. In these situations, bronchitis is an example of A)a virus.
B)an opportunistic infection.
C)adaptive immunity.
D)an autoimmune disorder.
Q2) Antibodies are A)amino acids.
B)lipids.
C)carbohydrates.
D)proteins.
Q3) Mononucleosis ("mono")is usually caused by EBV, or the Epstein-Barr virus. Mono is more common in children than in adults because adults usually have developed ________ toward the virus.
A)innate immunity
B)adaptive immunity
C)lymphocytes
D)passive immunity
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26
Chapter 25: Control of Body Temperature and Water Balance
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Q1) What is the advantage of excreting nitrogenous waste in the form of ammonia?
A)Ammonia is less toxic than uric acid.
B)Ammonia is less soluble than uric acid.
C)Ammonia excretion conserves energy.
D)Ammonia does not diffuse across cell membranes.
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding saltwater fish is true?
A)The concentration of solutes in the internal fluids of saltwater fish is much lower than that in the surrounding water.
B)The concentration of solutes in the internal fluids of saltwater fish is higher than that in the surrounding environment.
C)Saltwater fish produce large amounts of diluted urine.
D)Saltwater fish must visit freshwater streams and rivers entering the ocean to maintain the correct concentration of solutes in their internal fluids.
Q3) What do you predict that group 3 demonstrated?
A)higher mass lost from its initial conditions than group 2
B)the same mass lost from its initial conditions as group 1
C)no mass lost from its initial conditions
D)the highest mass loss of all groups
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Chapter 26: Hormones and the Endocrine System
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Q1) Prolactin is a hormone whose molecular structure has remained stable over evolutionary time but whose hormonal role has changed dramatically in different animal species. This is an excellent example of how evolution A)is responsible for mutation in vertebrates.
B)occurs rapidly at the molecular level to keep up with changing environmental influences.
C)has stayed within narrow boundaries in regard to regulation of homeostasis.
D)can both preserve unity and promote diversity.
Q2) A mutation in the gene for hormone A causes it to be unable to bind to its receptor protein. What do you predict will happen?
A)The receptor protein will not be activated and therefore will not initiate a signal transduction pathway.
B)The receptor protein will change shape in order to bind with hormone A.
C)The water-soluble hormone molecule will not be able to pass through the phospholipid bilayer.
D)The water-soluble hormone molecule will not be able to pass through the interstitial fluid.
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Chapter 27: Reproduction and Embryonic Development
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Q1) The acrosome of sperm cells contains an enzyme called hyaluronidase. Which of the following procedures would benefit from the addition of hyaluronidase?
A)ligating two strands of DNA together
B)helping a drug to pass through a cell membrane
C)assisting with mitotic division of skin cells
D)increasing levels of FSH released from the hypothalamus
Q2) Which of the following results from cleavage?
A)formation of the nervous system
B)formation of the notochord
C)formation of more cells
D)segmentation
Q3) Which of the following processes dominates the third trimester of human development?
A)formation of external features such as arms and legs
B)formation of hair and fingernails
C)rapid growth
D)organ formation
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Chapter 28: Nervous Systems
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Q1) Inhibitory neurotransmitters are most like what part of an automobile?
A)brakes
B)radio
C)muffler
D)engine
Q2) What part of a neuron carries signals toward the part of the cell that houses the nucleus?
A)node of Ranvier
B)axon
C)cell body
D)dendrite
Q3) Suppose that you have a younger sibling who excels in mathematics and logic but has extreme difficulty remembering the faces of people she meets, even if she sees them again only a few hours after first meeting them. What other evidence would indicate that your sibling is left-brained?
A)an fMRI indicating high levels of activity in the left parietal lobe
B)an fMRI indicating high levels of activity in the left occipital lobe
C)an fMRI indicating high levels of activity in the left temporal lobe
D)an fMRI indicating high levels of activity in the left cerebral hemisphere
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Chapter 29: the Senses
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Q1) Receptors that transduce when the plasma membrane becomes more permeable to positive ions as it changes shape are called
A)pain receptors.
B)thermoreceptors.
C)mechanoreceptors.
D)chemoreceptors.
Q2) Which of the following statements about the focusing of light by the eyes is true?
A)Squids and many fishes change the shape of the lens to focus light.
B)Mammals focus light when a rigid lens is moved back and forth.
C)Mammals use muscles and ligaments to change the shape of the lens to focus light.
D)Mammalian lenses thicken when focused on distant objects.
Q3) The hair cells in the utricle detect
A)subsonic sound vibrations.
B)rotation of the head in an anteroposterior plane (a plane that cuts through you from front to back).
C)rotation of the head in a coronal plane (a plane that cuts through you from side to side).
D)the position of the head with respect to gravity.
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Chapter 30: How Animals Move
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Q1) In rickets, lack of calcium decreases the strength of the mineral matrix of compact bone so that it is unable to
A)resist compression.
B)complete extension.
C)complement muscle contraction.
D)bend at the joints.
Q2) Which part of a bone contains the cells that produce blood cells?
A)compact bone
B)cartilage
C)spongy bone
D)yellow bone marrow
Q3) Which of the following attaches the forelimbs to the axial skeleton in a human?
A)pectoral girdle
B)pelvic girdle
C)vertebra
D)appendicular skeleton
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Chapter 31: Plant Structure, Growth, and Reproduction
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Q1) Removing the terminal bud of a plant that shows apical dominance will cause
A)an increase in the growth of the root system.
B)increased growth of the terminal bud.
C)increased growth of the axillary buds.
D)an immediate flowering of the plant.
Q2) What is the evolutionary advantage of the very long life span of some plants?
A)the ability to adapt to changing environments
B)the ability to develop resistance to many diseases
C)the ability to produce many offspring over many years
D)the ability to grow back after being damaged
Q3) Which of the following is a function of tracheids?
A)food storage
B)photosynthesis
C)production of sex cells
D)water conduction
Q4) Monocot floral parts usually occur in multiples of A)five.
B)four.
C)two.
D)three.
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Chapter 32: Plant Nutrition and Transport
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Q1) If you examine the soil profile revealed by a fresh road cut through a grassy rise, which of the following features will you probably find in the B horizon?
A)an abundance of worms and burrowing insects
B)an abundance of decomposing organic material
C)an abundance of fine clay but not much organic material
D)a predominance of slightly weathered rock and gravel
Q2) Compared to conventional agriculture, organic farming
A)uses fewer synthetic pesticides.
B)increases crop yields.
C)guarantees the safety and extra health benefits of food.
D)requires much less hands-on work.
Q3) Carnivorousness in plants is primarily an adaptation for
A)growing in soil poor in organic material.
B)growing in soil poor in usable nitrogen.
C)obtaining supplemental carbon for photosynthesis.
D)discouraging herbivorous insects.
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Chapter 33: Control Systems in Plants
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Q1) Grass shoots bend toward the light because, on the shadowed side, a(n)
A)reduction in auxin levels promotes cell elongation.
B)reduction in auxin levels prevents cell elongation.
C)increase in auxin levels promotes cell elongation.
D)increase in auxin levels promotes cell division.
Q2) The most reliable way to stimulate branching in a plant is to
A)apply auxin to the axillary buds.
B)remove the terminal bud.
C)give short-day light treatments.
D)add extra fertilizer.
Q3) Which of the following is one adaptive advantage for deciduous plants that lose their leaves during the winter?
A)It prevents water loss from leaves when soil water is unavailable due to freezing.
B)Production of new leaves each spring is more efficient than supporting old leaves all winter.
C)If leaves are damaged by frost, the tree will die.
D)A layer of leaves on the ground helps keep plant roots warm.
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Chapter 34: the Biosphere: an Introduction to Earths
Diverse Environments
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Q1) Which ocean zone describes the interface between ocean and land?
A)intertidal
B)pelagic
C)abyssal
D)upwelling
Q2) The area around the bay where grasses and snails are found in abundance is a
A)wetland.
B)temperate forest.
C)tropical forest.
D)temperate grassland.
Q3) Usually, a river ________ at its source compared to farther downstream.
A)has less phytoplankton
B)is warmer
C)is wider
D)flows more slowly
Q4) Most of the world's deserts are located at latitudes where
A)hot, dry air moving toward the equator rises.
B)hot, dry air moving toward the poles rises.
C)cold, dry air moving toward the poles descends.
D)cold, dry air moving toward the equator descends.
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Chapter 35: Behavioral Adaptations to the Environment
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Q1) The certainty of paternity is greatest in organisms that A)are promiscuous.
B)have extensive parental care.
C)use internal fertilization.
D)mate and lay eggs at the same time.
Q2) After many hours of observation, Jennifer noticed that a squirrel in her backyard retreated up a certain tree every time it was frightened. At the base of that tree was a wheelbarrow. Jennifer wondered how the squirrel found the same tree each time. That night, she moved the wheelbarrow to the base of another tree. The next day, the squirrel retreated up the new tree. This experiment suggests that the squirrel was using A)spatial learning.
B)imprinting.
C)habituation.
D)social learning.
Q3) Endocrine disruptors on reproductive behavior affect behavior by
A)impairing the immune system.
B)mimicking a hormone or enhancing hormone activity.
C)increasing social behavior.
D)reinforcing mating rituals.
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Chapter 36: Population Ecology
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of a population?
A)all of the microorganisms on your skin
B)all of the students in your classroom
C)all students attending colleges and universities in your state
D)the various plants found in prairies in the western United States
Q2) Consider a stable frog population living at carrying capacity in a pond. If an average female produces 6,000 eggs during her lifetime and an average of 300 tadpoles hatch from these eggs, how many of these tadpoles will, on average, survive to reproduce?
A)0
B)2
C)10 to 20
D)more than 100
Q3) The human population on Earth is expected to reach 9.5 billion people by A)2015.
B)2050.
C)2093. D)3150.
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Chapter 37: Communities and Ecosystems
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Q1) Some herbivore-plant interactions evolved through a series of reciprocal evolutionary adaptations in both species. This process is called A)herbivory.
B)coevolution.
C)selection.
D)trophism.
Q2) Within an ecosystem, a tree is a A)secondary consumer. B)detritivore.
C)primary consumer. D)producer.
Q3) When two different populations in a community benefit from their relationship with each other, the result is called A)herbivory.
B)mutualism.
C)parasitism. D)competition.
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Chapter 38: Conservation Biology
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Q1) The ability to change phenotype in response to local environmental conditions is called
A)genetic drift.
B)mutation.
C)alteration of generations.
D)phenotypic plasticity.
Q2) In Clackamas, Oregon, a stand of hybrid poplar trees was planted on an area of land that is contaminated with volatile organic compounds (VOCs). Why would someone purposely plant trees in an area with contaminated soil?
A)to use the trees as a means of phytoremediation
B)to use the trees as a means of eliminating insect species that consume nearby endemic plants
C)to use the trees for lumber for houses
D)to see if animals will make nests in trees that grow in contaminated soil.
Q3) The greatest challenge facing the zoned reserve systems of Costa Rica is
A)high predation by jaguars.
B)forest fires.
C)soil erosion.
D)the growing human population.
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