Life Science Test Bank
Course Introduction
Life Science is an interdisciplinary field that explores the structure, function, growth, evolution, and distribution of living organisms. The course encompasses a broad range of topics including cell biology, genetics, physiology, ecology, and evolution, providing a comprehensive understanding of the fundamental processes that govern life. Students will investigate the molecular mechanisms driving biological systems, examine the interactions between organisms and their environments, and analyze the implications of life science research for society, medicine, and biotechnology. Through lectures, laboratory work, and critical discussions, the course aims to cultivate scientific literacy and foster a deeper appreciation for the diversity and complexity of life on Earth.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Concepts and Investigations 2nd Edition by Marille Hoefnagels
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39 Chapters
3055 Verified Questions
3055 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: What Is Life
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69 Verified Questions
69 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How would S.aureus bacteria reproduce?
A)Asexually
B)Sexually
C)Sexually and asexually
D)Developmentally
E)Developmentally and sexually
Answer: A
Q2) What is the advantage to the orchid having an 11-inch long nectary?
A)It can produce nectar over a larger area and attract more pollinators
B)It can collect more rain water
C)It can only be pollinated by one species of moth, reducing cross fertilization
D)It can collect more sunlight for photosynthesis
E)It can trap insects as a source of nutrients
Answer: C
Q3) In an experiment designed to determine if a fertilizer increased crop yield in tomato plants,the amount of sunlight and water the plants received would be standardized variables.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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76 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mass number of an atom is defined as:
A)The total number of protons, neutrons, and electrons of an atom
B)The total number of protons and electrons of an atom
C)The total number of protons and neutrons of an atom
D)The total number of neutrons and electrons of an atom
E)The total number of protons of an atom
Answer: C
Q2) ____ bonds are formed between monomers to form a polymer.
A)Ionic bonds
B)Covalent bonds
C)Hydrogen bonds
D)Hydrophobic bonds
E)Nuclear bonds
Answer: B
Q3) A fatty acid is unsaturated if there is at least one double bond between the carbon atoms in that fatty acid.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Dynamic Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) How did scientists detect the location of MreB and Mbl in bacterial cells?
A)With an electron microscope
B)With a light microscope
C)With fluorescently tagged actin
D)With fluorescently tagged antibodies
E)With fluorescently tagged tubulin
Answer: D
Q2) What fundamental question were the scientists in these projects asking?
A)Were tubulin and actin in ancestors common to prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
B)Were tubulin and actin in ancestors common to eukaryotes?
C)Are tubulin and actin in eukaryotes?
D)What is the structure of bacterial tubulin and actin?
E)Will bacterial tubulin and actin function in a eukaryotic cell?
Answer: A
Q3) Most living cells are small in size because they need a large ratio of surface area to volume.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: The Energy of Life
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80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Coupled reactions:
A)Are reactions in which a exergonic reaction drives an endergonic reaction
B)Are reactions in which a exergonic reaction drives a spontaneous reaction
C)Are reactions in which a endergonic reaction drives an exergonic reaction
D)Are reactions in which a endergonic reaction drives a spontaneous reaction
Q2) When an end product of a reaction pathway is in excess and inhibits the first enzyme of the pathway,this is an example of positive feedback.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Phagocytosis is:
A)An example of exocytosis
B)An example of active transport
C)An example of diffusion
D)An example of endocytosis
E)An example of facilitated diffusion
Q4) Oxidation means:
A)The gain of oxygen by a cell
B)The loss of electrons from a molecule
C)The loss of oxygen by a cell
D)The gain of electrons by a molecule
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the carbon reaction carbon dioxide molecules are reduced by the addition of electrons carried from the light reaction by __________.
A)ATP
B)NADP<sup>+</sup>
C)NADPH
D)oxygen
E)water
Q2) How did the scientists rule out that the chloroplasts could function outside of a host cell?
A)The chloroplast chromosomes were missing photosystem II gene psbO.
B)They shined light on the chloroplasts and looked for oxygen production.
C)They found the algal photosystem II psbO gene in the sea slug chromosomes.
D)They did not find the photosystem II psbO gene in the puffer fish chromosomes.
E)They injected the chloroplasts into a heterotrophic bacteria and it could now perform photosynthesis.
Q3) The primary photosynthetic pigment is the orange pigment chlorophyll a.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: How Cells Release Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the first law of thermodynamics some energy is lost as heat during energy transfers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cyanide and carbon monoxide block the final step in the electron transport chain.What effect would this have on ATP production in the mitochondria?
A)Reduction, because protons would not be able to move across the inner mitochondrial membrane
B)No effect, because protons cross the outer mitochondrial membrane to produce ATP
C)Reduction, because electrons would not be able to move through the electron transport chain
D)Increase, because this would spontaneously establish a proton gradient
E)Increase, because this would make more oxygen available in the mitochondrial matrix
Q3) Substrate phosphorylation occurs when a high energy "donor" molecule physically transfers a phosphate group to ADP.
A)True
B)False
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8
Chapter 7: Dna Structure and Gene Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a molecule of DNA:
A)Cytosine pairs with adenine
B)Thymine pairs with uracil
C)Adenine pairs with uracil
D)Adenine pairs with thymine
E)Cytosine pairs with thymine
Q2) Amanatin is a toxin found in the death cap mushroom,Amanita phalloides.It inhibits RNA polymerase,thus blocking:
A)Transcription
B)Translation
C)Replication
D)Cell division
E)RNA splicing
Q3) A change in a cell's DNA sequence is:
A)Replication
B)Transcription
C)A mutation
D)Translation
E)An operon
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Dna Replication, mitosis and the Cell Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Variants or alternate forms of a gene are called alleles:
A)True
B)False
Q2) The replication of DNA during the cell cycle occurs during:
A)Mitosis
B)Cytokinesis
C)Prophase
D)Telophase
E)Interphase
Q3) People with xeroderma pigmentosum (XP)are at greater risk of skin cancer because:
A)They lack proteins that would repair the damage from exposure to ultraviolet radiation
B)They have fewer layers of skin than normal
C)They do not produce pigments
D)Their skin cells do not reproduce
E)All are correct
Q4) A replicated chromosome consists of two "sister chromatids."
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Sexual Reproduction and Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is an advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction?
A)Genetic variability during an ecological disaster
B)Genetic variability when the environment is stable
C)Faster reproduction
D)Requirement of less energy
E)Simpler form of reproduction
Q2) If daughter cells produced by meiosis have a mixture of paternal and maternal chromosomes this is due to:
A)Crossing over
B)Semi-conservative replication
C)Random fertilization
D)Random alignment of chromosome pairs
E)Mutation
Q3) If a diploid cell goes through mitosis it will generate:
A)Four haploid cells
B)Two diploid cells
C)Two haploid cells
D)Four diploid cells
E)This isn't possible
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Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the study of genetics the offspring of the parental generation is referred to as the:
A)Wild type generation
B)The F1 generation
C)The P generation
D)The F2 generation
E)The phenotype
Q2) The pea plant (Pisum sativum)is a good choice for studying heredity because it:
A)Develops slowly
B)Produces only a few offspring
C)Is easy to control which plants mate with each other
D)Has only a few traits that appear in two easily distinguishable forms
E)All are correct
Q3) A healthy young couple are both carriers of cystic fibrosis,the chance that each of their future children will inherit this serious illness is:
A)0%, because cystic fibrosis is not an inherited illness
B)25%
C)10%
D)50%
E)100%
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Page 12
Chapter 11: The Forces of Evolutionary Change
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the Hardy-Weinberg equation,p<sup>2</sup> + 2pq + q<sup>2</sup> = 1: 2pq represents:
A)The frequency of homozygous recessive individuals
B)The frequency of homozygous dominant individuals
C)The frequency of heterozygous individuals
D)The frequency of homozygous recessive and heterozygous individuals
E)The frequency of homozygous dominant and heterozygous individuals
Q2) The few ancestors of the Galapagos finches who colonized the islands would be an example of:
A)A bottleneck
B)Natural selection
C)Increased mutation rate
D)Gene flow
E)Founder effect
Q3) Darwin made which observation while on his four-year voyage on the Beagle?
A)More individuals of a population are born than survive to reproduce
B)Populations grow constantly
C)Organisms are varied and some variations are inherited
D)An individual's chance of survival is random
E)Species do not appear to change over time
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Chapter 12: Evidence for Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a fruit fly embryo,the end that becomes the head will contain the protein bicoid.What would happen if you injected additional bicoid in the other end of the embryo?
A)It would fail to develop a head
B)It would develop two heads
C)Legs would grow out of its head
D)It would not grow legs
E)It would not have segments
Q2) If many genes from two species differ in about 5% of their bases and substitutions occur at an estimated rate of 5% per one million years then:
A)About 1 million years have passed since the two species diverged
B)About 5 million years have passed since the two species diverged
C)About 10 million years have passed since the two species diverged
D)About 20 million years have passed since the two species diverged
E)About 50 million years have passed since the two species diverged
Q3) Skeletal organization relating to limbs used for movement in vertebrates would be an example of homologous structures.
A)True
B)False
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Speciation and Extinction
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the wild-type purple monkeyflower (M.lewisii),the dominant YUP allele prevents carotenoids from forming,leaving the pinkish-purple anthocyanin pigments to provide the petal color.A wild-type scarlet monkeyflower (M.cardinalis)has which genotype?
A)yup/yup
B)YUP/YUP
C)YUP/yup
D)YUP
E)yup
Q2) Polyploidy is:
A)Common in plant species
B)Common in fungal species
C)Common in animal species
D)Common in bacterial species
E)All are correct
Q3) The speciation that occurred in the islands of the Greater Antilles (Cuba,Puerto Rico,Jamaica,and Hispaniola)with lizards called anoles is an example of adaptive radiation.
A)True
B)False
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Page 15
Chapter 14: The Origin and History of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Placental mammals appeared during the:
A)Triassic period
B)Jurassic period
C)Cretaceous period
D)Permian period
E)Tertiary period
Q2) The last shared ancestor for today's cell types is thought to have arisen about:
A)Six billion years ago
B)Four billion years ago
C)Four million years ago
D)Three billion years ago
E)Three million years ago
Q3) A mass extinction perhaps caused by a large asteroid hitting Earth near the Yucatan peninsula occurred during the:
A)Cretaceous period
B)Jurassic period
C)Triassic period
D)Permian period
E)Cambrian period
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Viruses
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Viruses that infect bacteria are:
A)Not known to exist
B)Prions
C)Bacteriophages
D)Composed of protein only
E)Also capable of causing disease in humans
Q2) Our most potent weapon in the fight against viruses is:
A)Antibiotics
B)Sulfa drugs
C)Gene therapy
D)Surgery
E)Vaccinations
Q3) A patient receiving a protease inhibitor and AZT is probably being treated for an infection by:
A)A bacterium
B)A protozoan
C)A DNA virus
D)A retrovirus
E)A fungus
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary component making up the cell walls of bacteria is:
A)Peptidoglycan
B)Glucose
C)A complex lipid
D)Cellulose
E)Chitin
Q2) Because Archaea were first found in environments that lacked oxygen or were very hot,acidic,or salty,they were nicknamed "Extremeophiles."
A)True
B)False
Q3) As a budding basic scientist you work in a research laboratory and discover a chemical that removes the cell wall from bacteria but leaves the organism undamaged otherwise.Things that the bacteria will lose because of this include:
A)The ability to move
B)The ability to attach to other cells
C)The ability to metabolize
D)The ability to use oxygen
E)The ability to have a gram stain result
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Chapter 17: Protists
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Sample Questions
Q1) African sleeping sickness is caused by Trypanosoma brucei,a unicellular flagellated protist infects red blood cells after being injected into the blood stream.African sleeping sickness is transmitted by:
A)Ingesting food
B)Contaminated water
C)Sexual intercourse
D)The bite of an insect
E)Exhaled aerosols
Q2) Some protozoa move by false feet called:
A)Flagella
B)Pseudopodia
C)Cilia
D)Antennae
E)Spikes
Q3) Mitochondria in algae are thought to have arisen from which source?
A)Cyanobacteria
B)Anaerobic bacteria
C)Photosynthetic viruses
D)Aerobic bacteria
E)Algae don't have mitochondria
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Chapter 18: Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) In alternation of generations,two haploid gametes fuse in fertilization to form a ____ zygote.
A)Haploid
B)Diploid
C)Tetraploid
Q2) Most plants appear green because:
A)Chlorophyll is a pigment that reflects green wavelengths of light
B)Carotenoids are pigments that reflect green wavelengths of light
C)Carotenoids are pigments that absorb green wavelengths of light
D)Chlorophyll is a pigment that absorbs green wavelengths of light
Q3) The substance that strengthens and supports cell walls allowing plants to grow tall and upright is:
A)Algin
B)Agar
C)Chlorophyll
D)The carotenoids
E)Lignin
Q4) Stomata allow plants to exchange carbon dioxide and oxygen with the atmosphere.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Fungi
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main storage carbohydrate in fungi is:
A)Glycogen
B)Glucose
C)Starch
D)Cellulose
E)Chitin
Q2) Mycologists classify fungi into five phyla based on their sexual structures.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Molecular evidence places fungi closer to animals than plants.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Fungi that can live only in mycorrhizal association with roots of plants may be placed into a phylum named:
A)Glomeromycota
B)Deuteromycota
C)Ascomycota
D)Rootomycota
E)Symbiomycota
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Chapter 20: Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chordates include only animals that are vertebrates.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A complete digestive tract has both a mouth and an anus and the food passes in one direction from the mouth to the anus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Caenorhabditis elegans is a nematode that scientists have shown grows from a single cell into 1000 cells,of which the same 80 cells die during development through apoptosis.Studying this process in Caenorhabditis elegans has helped scientists identify the genes that regulate similar processes in humans.Which of the following statements is supported by this observation?
A)Caenorhabditis elegans infections in humans trigger apoptosis
B)Caenorhabditis elegans has the same organs that are present in humans
C)Caenorhabditis elegans give live birth like humans
D)Caenorhabditis elegans and humans have a common ancestor
E)Caenorhabditis elegans have all of the same genes as humans
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Plant Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The point at which one or more leaves attach to the stem of a plant is a:
A)Petiole
B)Internode
C)Axillary bud
D)Sieve plate
E)Node
Q2) The part of a plant that is the stalk-like support for a leaf is the:
A)Node
B)Petiole
C)Internode
D)Blade
E)Companion cell
Q3) A potato stores a lot of starch.Which of the following tissues would you expect to be most abundant in a potato?
A)Dermal tissue
B)Vascular tissue
C)Ground tissue
D)Equal amounts of ground and dermal tissue
E)Equal amounts of dermal and vascular tissue
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Plant Nutrition and Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not an element taken in primarily by the roots of the plant?
A)Nitrogen
B)Magnesium
C)Carbon
D)Phosphorous
E)Zinc
Q2) During dry conditions,abscisic acid binds to guard cell membranes and indirectly triggers them to lose potassium ions.What will this do to the plant?
A)Decrease water loss by opening the stomata
B)Decrease water loss by closing the stomata
C)Increase water loss by closing the stomata
D)Increase water loss by opening the stomata
Q3) Water is pulled from a plant's roots to its leaves by transpiration.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Soil scientists use relative amounts of sand,silt,and clay to classify soils.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Reproduction and Development of Flowering Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) The root and shoot apical meristems form at the same point in the plant embryo.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The main pollinators of red flowers are:
A)Beetles
B)Bees
C)Birds
D)Moths
E)Bats
Q3) You plant a seed into a pot containing some soil,and then add water and place the pot under a light.After the seedling emerged,complete with two green leaves,the carbon dioxide levels decreased in the closed chamber.The developing seedling was using which of the following as a source of energy during this time?
A)Water from the soil
B)Starch from the seed
C)Sugars from the soil
D)Nutrients from the soil
E)Light
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Chapter 24: Animal Tissues, organ Systems and Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a person is required to take insulin they most likely do not produce all of the digestive enzymes that the liver normally produces.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A physician is concerned because a patient is showing signs of slowed nerve impulse transmission.This symptom could likely be caused by damage to:
A)The myelin sheath
B)Leukocytes
C)Epithelial cells
D)Adipocytes
E)Chondrocytes
Q3) Cancers that arise in muscle tissue are termed:
A)Melanomas
B)Carcinomas
C)Hybridomas
D)Lymphomas
E)Sarcomas
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Page 26
Chapter 25: The Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three major roles of the human nervous system are:
A)Sensory integration, glandular response, and motor response
B)Seeing, feeling, and hearing
C)Sensory input, sensory integration, and motor response
D)Smooth muscle response, cardiac muscle response, and skeletal muscle response
Q2) The part of the brain that controls the qualities of what we consider the "mind" is the:
A)Cerebellum
B)Hypothalamus
C)Cerebrum
D)Medulla oblongata
E)Pons
Q3) The part of the central nervous system that conducts information to and from the brain is the:
A)Motor neuron
B)Spinal cord
C)Sensory neuron
D)Brainstem
E)Medulla oblongata
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Chapter 26: The Senses Content
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Sample Questions
Q1) The layer of the wall of the eye that is modified into the cornea at the front of the eye is the:
A)Choroid
B)Retina
C)Vitreous humor
D)Sclera
E)Aqueous humor
Q2) The part of the eye that detects color is the:
A)Cone cells
B)Rod cells
C)Cornea
D)Iris
E)Optic nerve
Q3) You have 20 million olfactory cells and 10 thousand taste buds.Which of the following is true about your sense of smell and taste?
A)You can distinguish 20 million smells and 10 thousand tastes
B)You can distinguish hundreds of smells and only five tastes
C)You can distinguish more tastes than smells
D)You can distinguish the same number of tastes and smells
E)You can distinguish 20 million smells and only five tastes
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Chapter 27: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Type II diabetes is strongly associated with:
A)Obesity
B)Old age
C)Premature infants
D)A suppressed immune system
E)Calcium deficiency
Q2) Which organ was being affected by the BPA that lead to decreased LH in the blood?
A)Ovary
B)Kidney
C)Pituitary
D)Thyroid
E)Pancreas
Q3) The hormone oxytocin is produced by the _____________________ and targets the _________________.
A)Hypothalamus, mammary glands
B)Anterior pituitary, mammary glands
C)Anterior pituitary, pancreas
D)Hypothalamus, pancreas
E)Posterior pituitary, mammary glands
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Page 29
Chapter 28: The Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) When blood calcium is high which of the following would be stimulated by the thyroid?
A)Uptake of calcium from food by the intestine and secretion into the urine by the kidney
B)Uptake of calcium from food by the intestine and absorption from the urine by the kidney
C)Decreased uptake of calcium from food by the intestine and secretion into the urine by the kidney
D)Decreased uptake of calcium from food by the intestine and absorption from the urine by the kidney
Q2) An autoimmune disorder in which there is chronic inflammation of the synovial membrane of a joint is:
A)Osteoarthritis
B)Scoliosis
C)Rheumatoid arthritis
D)Osteoporosis
E)Acromegaly
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Chapter 29: The Circulatory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The largest artery in the body is the:
A)Coronary artery
B)Superior vena cava
C)Aorta
D)Pulmonary artery
E)Carotid artery
Q2) Vertebrates with a three-chambered heart include:
A)Fish
B)Amphibians
C)Birds
D)Mammals
E)Annelids
Q3) The widening of blood vessels is:
A)Vasoconstriction
B)Cardioconstriction
C)Vasodilation
D)Cardiodilation
Q4) An increase in the number of red blood cells is called anemia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Asthma attacks can be treated with bronchodilators.Which of the following would happen in a person using such an inhaler?
A)Smooth muscle cells would contract
B)Smooth muscle cells would relax
C)The diaphragm would relax
D)The diaphragm would contract
E)The alveoli would relax
Q2) What is the dependent variable in figure 30.15?
A)Partial pressure of oxygen in the tracheae
B)The number of times the spiracles are open
C)The number of moth pupae
D)The external concentration of oxygen
E)The size of each moth pupa
Q3) The medulla has receptors that monitor H<sup>+</sup> concentrations in the cerebrospinal fluid.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A human baby is considered premature if it is born at 37 weeks or earlier.
A)True
B)False
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Digestion and Animal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Beano is a product containing an enzyme that breaks down complex carbohydrates in beans and other vegetables,thereby reducing gas production when these foods are eaten.Why would humans need to take Beano to avoid gas?
A)If they don't break down the complex carbohydrates, bacteria in their colon will
B)If they don't break down the complex carbohydrates, bacteria in their small intestine will
C)Complex carbohydrates react with acid in the stomach to produce gas
D)Complex carbohydrates react with saliva in the mouth to produce gas
E)Complex carbohydrates cannot be broken down and cause constipation
Q2) Which of the following is caused by a vitamin B1 (Thiamine)deficiency?
A)Scurvy
B)Rickets
C)Pellagra
D)Beriberi
E)Pernicious anemia
Q3) The human small intestine is shorter than the large intestine.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Regulation of Temperature and Body Fluids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diuretics are commonly prescribed drugs for patients with hypertension because they:
A)Decrease blood volume and increase blood pressure
B)Increase blood volume and blood pressure
C)Decrease blood volume and blood pressure
D)Increase blood volume and decrease blood pressure
Q2) Kidney stones are calcium-rich crystals that form inside the kidney.What symptoms would you expect if the stones lodge in a ureter?
A)Increased urine production
B)Decreased urine pH
C)Increased urine pH
D)Decreased urine production
E)Decreased urine osmolarity
Q3) Colorless urine usually indicates excessive water intake or the ingestion of diuretics.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The primary functional unit of a kidney is the glomerulus.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are examples of humoral immunity?
A)A cytotoxic T cell destroying a virus-infected cell
B)A neutrophil killing a bacteria by direct cell to cell contact, and a cytotoxic T cell destroying a virus-infected cell.
C)A cytotoxic T cell destroying a virus-infected cell.,
D)Antibodies produced that destroy an invading pathogen, and cytotoxic T cell destroying a virus-infected cell,,
E)Antibodies produced that destroy an invading pathogen
Q2) Lymphocytes can produce millions of different types of antibodies because of a process termed:
A)Meiotic variation
B)Gene shuffling
C)Crossing over
D)Clonal expansion
E)Conjugation
Q3) Monocytes develop into B cells and T cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 34: Animal Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The muscular sac-like organ of the human female in which the fetus develops is the:
A)Ovary
B)Pubic symphysis
C)Vagina
D)Uterus
E)Vulva
Q2) The hormone that is the basis of most pregnancy tests is:
A)Follicle stimulating hormone
B)Luteinizing hormone
C)Human chorionic gonadotropin
D)Estrogen
E)Progesterone
Q3) A female salmon laying unfertilized eggs in a nest is preparing them for ____ by a male salmon.
A)External fertilization
B)Internal fertilization
C)Indirect development
D)Direct development
E)Differentiation
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Animal Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Behaviors that result from an animal's experiences are:
A)Learned behaviors
B)Imprinting and learned behaviors
C)Innate behaviors
D)Imprinting and innate behaviors
E)Imprinting
Q2) Imprinting is a kind of rapid learning that occurs only during a restricted time,early in the life of an animal.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A squirrel visits your bird feeder every day,and has learned that if it jumps onto the feeder,seeds will fall on the ground that it can then eat.The squirrel has gone through which of the following?
A)Operant conditioning
B)Classical conditioning
C)Imprinting
D)Observational learning
E)Habituation
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Chapter 36: Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The example of what happened to the reindeer population in 1964 that had been previously introduced to St.Matthew Island in the Bering Sea represents what is referred to as a population boom.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What hypothesis did the scientists propose for females not preferring longer duration flashes?
A)The males would produce too large a spermatophore
B)They were similar to those from predatory fireflies
C)The males would produce too small a spermatophore
D)They may be from a different species of firefly
Q3) In the equation G = rN that is used to study populations "N" represents:
A)The per capita rate of increase
B)The birth rate
C)The death rate
D)The number of individuals at the start of the time interval
E)The number of individuals added per unit time
Q4) When exponential growth is plotted over time a J-shaped curve emerges.
A)True
B)False
Page 38
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Chapter 37: Communities and Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Biomagnification usually happens for chemicals that:
A)Dissolve in fat
B)Dissolve in water
C)Are not readily degraded and dissolve in fat
D)Are not readily degraded and dissolve in water
E)Are not readily degraded
Q2) If there are 10,000 calories of net primary productivity in a field,how much on average will be available to a secondary consumer?
A)1000 calories
B)100 calories
C)10,000 calories
D)10 calories
E)1 calorie
Q3) All the organisms plus the nonliving components of a defined area is a(an):
A)Population
B)Community
C)Ecosystem
D)Habitat
E)Niche
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Page 39
Chapter 38: The Biosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) An El Nino brings warm water to the coasts of:
A)Brazil and Argentina
B)Peru and Ecuador
C)Brazil and Chile
D)Ecuador and Brazil
E)Chile and Argentina
Q2) Why are estuaries and coral reefs more productive than deeper regions of the ocean?
A)They have more access to light and nutrients
B)They have more access to light and lower salt concentrations in the water
C)They have more access to light
D)They have more access to nutrients and lower salt concentrations in the water
E)They have lower salt concentrations in the water
Q3) Which of the following is not considered a coniferous tree?
A)Spruce
B)Pine
C)Maple
D)Fir
E)Hemlock
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Chapter 39: Conserving Biodiversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Since the Endangered Species Act of 1973 was passed,about _______________ species of animals and ______________ species of plants and lichens have been placed on the list of threatened or endangered species.
A)500, 700
B)200, 100
C)1000, 2000
D)300, 300
E)20, 50
Q2) The pH of "acid rain" occurring in the eastern United States is about:
A)4.4
B)5.6
C)6.4
D)7.0
E)8.4
Q3) The main culprits in the thinning of the ozone layer are:
A)Carbon dioxide and nitrogen gas
B)Water vapor, particulates, and bromine gas
C)Bromine gas, fluorine gas, and chlorine gas
D)Carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, and chlorine gas
E)Water vapor, chlorine gas, and carbon dioxide
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