Life Science
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Course Introduction
Life Science is the study of living organisms and life processes, encompassing a wide range of topics including biology, ecology, genetics, physiology, and evolution. This course explores the structure and function of cells, tissues, and organs, as well as the interactions among organisms and their environments. Students will develop an understanding of fundamental biological concepts such as inheritance, adaptation, biodiversity, and the impact of humans on ecosystems. Through lectures, laboratory activities, and real-world case studies, the course aims to cultivate scientific literacy and critical thinking skills relevant to current challenges in health, medicine, and environmental sustainability.
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Discover Biology 6th Core Edition by Anu Singh
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Chapter 1: The Nature of Science and the Characteristics of Life
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Q1) Which of the following organisms has a reproductive strategy that does NOT depend on eggs and sperm?
A) a grasshopper
B) a black widow spider
C) a turtle
D) a bacterium
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following groups of organisms is NOT included in the domain Eukarya?
A) Protista
B) Prokaryotes
C) Fungi
D) Animalia
Answer: C
Q3) All living organisms share a unity in their characteristics because they
A) are all multicellular.
B) are all producers.
C) have been stable and unchanging throughout time.
D) descended from a common ancestor.
Answer: D
Page 3
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Q1) We use soap to clean ourselves better than we could with water alone.Soaps contain phospholipids that are responsible for the cleansing action.Which of the following statements is the most likely explanation for how soaps work?
A) Phospholipids are ions and therefore mix with both the water and oily dirt.
B) Phospholipids are completely hydrophilic and, therefore, oily dirt takes the place of the phospholipid molecules that would be dissolved in the rinse water.
C) The phospholipid tail attaches to the oily dirt, while the phospholipid head interacts with the rinse water and carries the dirt (and soap) away with it.
D) The nonpolar fatty acid chains that make up the heads of the phospholipid are hydrophilic, and thus are repelled by the water.
Answer: C
Q2) Of the following pH values,which indicates the most basic pH?
A) 3
B) 7
C) 8
D) 10
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Internal Compartments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Microtubules are composed of tubulin monomers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Imagine examining a cell using a light microscope; a prokaryote could be distinguished from a eukaryote by the absence of A) DNA.
B) a plasma membrane.
C) a nucleus.
D) a cell wall.
Answer: C
Q3) During cellular respiration,mitochondria consume molecules of A) O .
B) CO .
C) H2O.
D) NO .
Answer: A
Q4) In the chloroplast,pancake-like,membrane-bound structures known as ________ are arranged into stacks.
Answer: thylakoids
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Chapter 4: Cell Membranes, Transport, and Communication
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Q1) The human hormone insulin is produced only by a single organ,the pancreas,yet insulin is used to move glucose from the bloodstream into cells all over the body.What aspect of hormones makes it possible for insulin to work throughout the body?
A) Hormones are able to stop cell-to-cell communication.
B) Hormones all cross cell membranes, and thus can move freely throughout the body.
C) Hormones cause rapid cell-to-cell signaling.
D) Hormones are long-range signaling molecules.
Q2) A red blood cell is placed in a solution and it begins to shrink.Which of the following describes the solution?
A) hypertonic
B) isotonic
C) hypotonic
D) supertonic
Q3) Osmoregulation refers to balancing water concentrations in organisms and cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Receptors in target cells can be located in the plasma membrane,the cytosol,or the
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Energy, Metabolism, and Enzymes
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Q1) When chemical energy is converted into kinetic energy in a biological system,________ of the available energy is converted.
Q2) The organelles where the breakdown products of food are oxidized,generating most of a cell's ATP,are called ________.
Q3) In the chemical reaction C H O + 6 O 6 CO + 6 H O,the 6 CO molecules are some of A) substrates.
B) products.
C) enzymes.
D) reactants.
Q4) Which of the following statements best describes how extremes of pH often disrupt the function of enzymes?
A) They alter the monosaccharides associated with the enzyme.
B) They alter the chemistry of the enzyme's active site.
C) They destroy the substrate of the reaction.
D) They destroy the products of the reaction.
Q5) Catabolic reactions are tightly coupled to reactions that require energy; those reactions are called ________ reactions.
Q6) Almost all the chemical reactions that occur in cells are catalyzed by ________.
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Chapter 6: Photo Synthesis and Cellular Respiration
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Q1) During photosynthesis,energized electrons flow from ________ to ________.
A) photosystem I; photosystem II
B) the reaction center; the antenna complex
C) photosystem II; photosystem I
D) the stroma; the intermembrane space
Q2) Each time we take a breath,we are bringing in the oxygen we need to stay alive.The ultimate source of the oxygen used by all aerobic organisms comes from a reaction that A) degrades carbon dioxide.
B) hydrolyzes ATP.
C) splits water.
D) reduces NADPH.
Q3) Lactic acid is a by-product of fermentation in the human body.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Only animal cells carry out oxidative phosphorylation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In mitochondria,ATP is produced in conjunction with proteins in the membrane that surrounds a region in the mitochondrion known as the ________.
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Chapter 7: Cell Division
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Q1) The attachment of microtubules to the centromeres of chromosomes sets the stage for the positioning of the chromosomes at the metaphase plate; the attachment of the microtubules occurs during the mitotic phase called ________.
Q2) What feature distinguishes an embryo from a zygote?
A) An embyro's cells are diploid, whereas a zygote's cells are haploid.
B) A zygote consists of a single cell, whereas an embryo is multicellular.
C) An embryo has not differentiated to the extent that rudimentary organs are present, whereas a zygote's cells have differentiated significantly.
D) A zygote is generally much larger than an embryo.
Q3) The mitotic spindle guides the movement of chromosomes during certain stages of mitosis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The four cells that result from meiosis are not diploid like the cells produced by mitosis; instead,they are ________.
Q5) Microtubules attach to plaques of protein on chromosomes; these plaques are called ________.
Q6) Sister chromatids are held together at a constriction point called a ________.
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Chapter 8: Cancer and Human Health
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Q1) Tumor suppressor proteins ________ cell division.
A) activate
B) inhibit
C) catalyze
D) have no effect on
Q2) Mutations cause changes in ________ produced by a gene.
Q3) Growth factors,which often participate in signal cascades,are typically active
A) in Golgi bodies.
B) on the cell's surface.
C) in the cell's nucleus.
D) throughout the cell.
Q4) A harmless proliferation of cells in a human colon would be called a(n)________ polyp.
Q5) If a normally dividing cell gains anchorage dependence,it will cause a secondary tumor.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The p53 gene is nonfunctional in most colon cancers.
A)True
B)False
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) The genetic makeup of an organism,such as Gg,is its ________.
Q2) Which of the following represents all of the possible gametes that can be formed by an individual with the genetic makeup Ff GgHH ?
A) FGH, FgH, fGH, fgH
B) Ff, Gg, HH
C) FG, FH, Fg, fH, fG, fg, GH, gH
D) Ff GhHH, FFGGHH, f fgghh
Q3) Traits that are determined by the effect of more than one gene are known as polygenic.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following observations refutes the theory of blending inheritance?
A) When a red plant is crossed with a white plant, the resulting offspring are pink.
B) Most of the features of offspring are not intermediates of their parents' traits.
C) Gametes carrying different types of alleles cannot fuse successfully.
D) After meiosis, two copies of a given gene end up in the same gamete.
Q5) The expressed characteristics of an organism are known as its ________.
Q6) During meiosis,two copies of a gene separate and end up in different ________.
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Chapter 10: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Q1) The independent assortment of chromosomes increases the A) variation between individuals.
B) uniformity between individuals.
C) the DNA sequences shared by individuals
D) the chances of mating between individuals
Q2) Crossing-over is expected to occur infrequently for genes located very close together on the same chromosome.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The ________ gene is responsible for activating many genes involved in "maleness" during embryonic development.
Q4) This chromosomal disorder known as Cri du chat syndrome is the result of missing a part of chromosome 5,an example of chromosome A) inversion.
B) deletion.
C) translocation.
D) duplication.
Q5) All sex-linked genes are either X-linked or ________-linked.
Q6) A female who is a carrier of the sex-linked gene A has the genotype ________.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: DNA and Genes
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Q1) A gene sequence is disrupted by a mobile segment of DNA such that the gene is no longer functional.The mobile segment of DNA is a ________.
Q2) How can a cell contain DNA molecules that are much longer than the cell?
A) The cell expands to fit the DNA inside.
B) DNA not used by that cell is deleted.
C) DNA is very narrow and tightly packed.
D) RNA copies allow DNA to dissolve.
Q3) The process of DNA replication is error free.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A permanent change in the DNA base sequence due to an uncorrected mismatch error is called a ________.
Q5) DNA is tightly packed around protein spools known as ________.
Q6) Why do chromosomes only reach their highest level of compaction during mitosis and meiosis?
A) to allow transcription of the most genes
B) to keep the chromosomes organized while they are being divided up
C) to allow the chromosomes to fit in the nucleus
D) to cover the histones that might interfere with division
Page 13
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Chapter 12: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) Which of the following results would most likely occur if introns were not removed from newly made mRNA?
A) The introns along with the exons could be used to produce the proteins the cell needs.
B) The resulting protein would be longer than if the introns were removed.
C) The resulting DNA would not code for the correct gene.
D) The resulting rRNA would not code for the correct protein.
Q2) A codon can specify up to three different amino acids.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In humans,the herbicide atrazine helps RNA polymerase bind to the promoter of the gene for the enzyme aromatase.As a result
A) more RNA for aromatase is produced.
B) less RNA for aromatase is produced.
C) the production of aromatase is inhibited.
D) aromatase is degraded by other enzymes in the cell.
Q4) The series of bases in mRNA that can specify a single amino acid is called a(n)________.
Q5) The base sequence of mRNA specifies the sequence of amino acids in a ________.
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Chapter 13: DNA Technology
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Q1) Stem cells that can generate all body cell types,including those in the birth sac,are described as ________.
Q2) Genetically modified organisms are also called________ organisms.
Q3) The use of DNA analysis to identify individuals is known as
A) PCR testing.
B) DNA fingerprinting.
C) genetic modification.
D) cloning.
Q4) Cloned animals are genetically identical to the A) somatic cell donor
B) enucleated egg donor
C) surrogate mother
D) surrogate mother's mate
Q5) Why are housekeeping genes not used to create DNA fingerprints?
A) They mutate often because they are unnecessary genes and so are highly variable.
B) They are important genes for every cell in every person and so are highly conserved.
C) They are found only in a few cell types, not all cell types.
D) They are expressed at a low rate in cells.
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Chapter 14: How Evolution Works
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Q1) When scientists use the phrase theory of evolution,they are respecting the large segment of the scientific community that remains skeptical of the reality of evolution.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Biological evolution can be defined as
A) the process of direct observation.
B) adaptations to common descent.
C) the unchanging nature of life on Earth.
D) the change in allele frequencies in a population's gene pool over time.
Q3) The fossils of organisms that existed when the continents were connected are distributed across ________ continents than the fossils of organisms that evolved after the continents separated.
Q4) One result of ________ over evolutionary time spans is that the alleles that enable individuals to survive and reproduce at a higher rate than other individuals become more common in the population.
Q5) In ________ selection,success is related more to attracting a mate than to possessing adaptations that are beneficial for survival.
Q6) Plate tectonics causes the ________ of Earth's landmasses over geologic time.
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Chapter 15: The Origin of Species
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Q1) Speciation
A) can result from geographic isolation.
B) is directed.
C) occurs only in ring species.
D) reduces variation.
Q2) Vertebrates,animals with backbones,and arthropods,including insects,are only distantly related.The arthropod eye evolved independently of the vertebrate eye.Therefore,the arthropod eye and the vertebrate eye are ________ structures in relation to each other.
A) homologous
B) vestigial
C) analogous D) hybrid
Q3) For two populations to accumulate enough genetic differences to cause speciation,the factors that promote these differences
A) must operate in populations that are not physically separated.
B) must have a greater effect than does the amount of ongoing gene flow.
C) must prevent mutations.
D) should include polyploidy.
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Chapter 16: The Evolution of Biodiversity
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Q1) Mammals branched out to evolve many new species after the extinction of the
Q2) Ninety-five percent of marine invertebrate species went extinct during the mass extinction at the end of the ____________________.
Q3) Measuring the amount of the radioisotope ¹ C in a fossil that is assumed to be over 70,000 years is a good way to determine the age of the fossil.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Closely related phyla are grouped together into a class. A)True
B)False
Q5) Which fish,thought for a long time to be extinct until it appeared in a South African fish market in 1938,is also suspected to be related to the ancestral fish that gave rise to the first tetrapod?
A) the lungfish
B) the coelacanth
C) the coelatroph
D) the golden koi
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Chapter 17: Biological Diversity, Bacteria, and Archaea
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the human intestinal microbiome is correct?
A) The diversity of bacteria present can affect human health.
B) Diet does not seem to affect the diversity of gut bacteria.
C) Intestinal microbiomes are made up of only a few species of bacteria.
D) The makeup of a person's intestinal microbiome is always the same from birth to death.
Q2) Protists are part of the domain Bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Wetland soils are saturated with water and devoid of oxygen,creating a habitat ideally suited for ________ organisms.
Q4) A young girl swimming in a lake on a warm summer day is infected with the amoeba Naegleria fowleri.She is infected with a(n)
A) bacteria.
B) archaea.
C) fungi.
D) protist.
Q5) Bacteria trade small sections of plasmid DNA with one another during ________.
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Chapter 18: Protista, Plantae, and Fungi
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Q1) Which statement best summarizes the adaptive value of xylem?
A) Xylem is specialized for transporting food molecules such as sugar.
B) Xylem is the reinforcing protein that, in combination with cellulose, allows plants to grow vertically.
C) Xylem cells open and close to admit carbon dioxide into the leaf during photosynthesis.
D) Xylem is specialized for transporting water and dissolved nutrients.
Q2) The cuticle predisposed plants for a terrestrial existence by improving water retention.
A)True
B)False
Q3) No single characteristic is sufficient to describe a kingdom; for example,plants and some bacteria share in common
A) the ability to photosynthesize.
B) the presence of a cell wall and the absence of a plasma membrane.
C) a heterotrophic lifestyle.
D) the ability to reproduce sexually.
Q4) Without angiosperms,bryophyte reproduction would almost entirely cease.
A)True
B)False
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Animalia
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Q1) An animal having radial symmetry,a complete gut,and mesoglea would be a(n)________.
Q2) Although some exceptions exist,the majority of mollusks are protected within a shell that is secreted by the animal's ________.
Q3) Adult sea stars are considered to be radially symmetrical because A) their closest relatives are the radially symmetrical chordates.
B) at least five dissection planes (one through each arm) exist.
C) they have distinct dorsal and ventral surfaces.
D) they lack a notocord.
Q4) Because of their abundance and the relative scarcity of other types of vertebrates,the ________ era is often called the Age of Reptiles.
Q5) Fruit flies,blow flies,and black flies share a similar life history strategy; they first appear as larvae (commonly known as maggots),pupate,and eventually emerge as adult flies.This type of development is called A) incomplete metamorphosis.
B) complete metamorphosis.
C) somatic differentiation.
D) hermaphroditic development.
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Chapter 20: The Biosphere
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Q1) Many of the consumers in the benthic zone feed on dead organisms that drift down from the photic zone.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One of the primary forces that cause atmospheric circulation is convection,which occurs when
A) the rotation of Earth exerts friction on the atmosphere.
B) warm air at the surface rises and displaces the cooler air above it.
C) winds blowing north or south are deflected to the left or right by the Earth's rotation.
D) the tilt of the Earth's axis of rotation causes the atmosphere to slide toward the equator.
Q3) The biome characterized by warmth,rain,and a rich diversity of trees,shrubs,and vines is the
A) tundra.
B) chaparral.
C) tropical forest.
D) temperate forest.
Q4) A ________ is a wetland dominated by trees and shrubs.
Q5) A measure of the energy that producers are able to store as biomass is ________.
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Chapter 21: Growth of Populations
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Q1) Food production and consumption are not well matched throughout the world; preventing mass starvation would be possible if nontraditional food sources could be developed.One of the most promising,because they grow quickly and have a high protein content,is ________.
Q2) The top of the "S" in an S-shaped curve indicates that the population A) is on the verge of collapse.
B) is experiencing abnormally heavy mortality pressure from predators or disease. C) has reached its carrying capacity.
D) is poised for further exponential growth.
Q3) Billions of people throughout the world currently consume insects and this number will likely increase if population growth trends continue upward.Consuming insects makes good sense for all of the following reasons EXCEPT
A) insects are highly nutritious with a protein content equal to conventional foods. B) insects are abundant and typically have very high population growth rates. C) insects can be grown, harvested, and processed with relatively little environmental impact.
D) consuming insects helps reduces their overall impact as pest organisms.
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Chapter 22: Animal Behavior
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Q1) If both identical twins who were raised apart exhibit the same behavior,
A) it is most likely due to environmental influences.
B) the behavior is most likely a learned behavior.
C) the behavior is altruistic.
D) it is most likely due to genetic influences.
Q2) Offspring resulting from a promiscuous mating system typically receive less care from their parents.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Lending a friend money when you do not have much money to spare is being
Q4) Which of the following does NOT describe a learned behavior?
A) a laboratory monkey lifting blocks to find the piece of food hidden under one
B) sea turtles moving toward the ocean immediately after hatching
C) a cat coming to be fed after hearing the sound of a can opener
D) a child having a tantrum in order to get a demand granted by a parent
Q5) Group living can promote valuable teaching opportunities to other members of the group.
A)True
B)False
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Ecological Communities
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Q1) Which of the following experiments would help to identify a keystone species?
A) introduce more of the suspected species into the area and observe the effects on other community members
B) remove the suspected species from the area and observe the effects on other community members
C) introduce an invasive species related to the suspected species into the area and observe the effects on the suspected species
D) introduce additional individuals of the suspected species' food source into the area and observe the effects on community members
Q2) Parasites,and the disease they cause,represent a distinctive type of exploitation because
A) of the high mortality rates associated with infection.
B) parasites affect only specific portions of the host.
C) of the chronic and progressive debilitation of the host.
D) parasites represent the only species interaction where the symbiont lives on or in the host organism.
Q3) An organism that transfers one plant's male reproductive cells to the female reproductive organs of another plant is a(n)________.
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Chapter 24: Ecosystems
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Q1) Rainfall with a low pH is called ________.
Q2) Net primary productivity on land
A) tends to increase from the equator toward the poles.
B) tends to decrease from the equator toward the poles.
C) is greatest in deserts due to intense sunlight.
D) is very low in tropical areas due to excessive rainfall.
Q3) Phosphorus is the only major nutrient whose cycle is ________.
Q4) Eutrophication can eventually lead to A) an ecosystem that attracts many species.
B) a rapid decrease in algal populations.
C) an increase in dissolved oxygen in a water ecosystem.
D) a decrease in dissolved oxygen in a water ecosystem.
Q5) In a typical nutrient cycle,nutrients are generally captured into the biotic portion of the cycle by the A) herbivores.
B) primary producers.
C) carnivores.
D) decomposers.
Q6) Biologists use the term ________ to refer to the weight of organisms per unit area.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Global Change
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Q1) Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between deforestation and changes in atmospheric carbon dioxide levels?
A) In the absence of forests, herbivore populations decline; without their respiration, less carbon dioxide is recycled into the atmosphere.
B) The carbon dioxide used by forest plants for cellular respiration would all be released into the atmosphere at once.
C) Trees naturally die and decompose, but when they are turned into lumber their carbon is prevented from recycling back to the atmosphere.
D) In the absence of forest plants, less carbon dioxide is removed from the atmosphere for use during photosynthesis.
Q2) Rainfall patterns around the world have changed because of A) biomagnification.
B) ocean acidification.
C) global warming.
D) land transformation.
Q3) Long-lived synthetic organic molecules that bioaccumulate in organisms are referred to as ________.
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