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Life Science is an interdisciplinary field that explores the structure, function, growth, origin, evolution, and distribution of living organisms. This course provides a comprehensive introduction to the key concepts of biology, including cell theory, genetics, ecology, and physiology. Students will examine the scientific methods used in life sciences to investigate processes at the molecular, cellular, organismal, and ecosystem levels. Through a combination of theoretical knowledge and practical laboratory experiences, learners gain an understanding of the relationships between organisms and their environments, the complexity of biological systems, and the relevance of life science in addressing real-world challenges such as health, sustainability, and biodiversity.
Recommended Textbook
Biology The Essentials 3rd Edition by Marille Hoefnagels Dr
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Q1) How do you know the computer you are working on is not alive?
A) It is not made of cells.
B) It does not maintain an internal consistency of water, solutes, and other components.
C) It cannot reproduce, asexually or sexually.
D) It cannot evolve.
E) All answers are correct.
Answer: E
Q2) Why isn't scientific inquiry foolproof?
A) Multiple interpretations of the data are possible.
B) Definitive answers may not exist.
C) Observations can be misinterpreted.
D) Unexpected conclusions are not always readily accepted.
E) All answers are correct.
Answer: E
Q3) The "kingdom" is the most all-inclusive taxonomic category.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Isotopes of the same element are different from one another in that
A) they have a different number of protons.
B) they have a different number of neutrons.
C) they have a different number of electrons.
D) they are a different element.
E) only one of the isotopes is matter.
Answer: B
Q2) Saturated fats have long,straight tails of fatty acids,whereas unsaturated fats from vegetables have kinks in their tails due to double bonds.These kinks prevent the fats from packing together as tightly.Hydrogenated vegetable oils,or trans fats,have hydrogens added back to the double bonds and thus behave like
A) unsaturated fats.
B) waxes.
C) carbohydrates.
D) proteins.
E) saturated fats.
Answer: E
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Q1) The phospholipid bilayer of membranes allows lipids and small nonpolar molecules to pass across membranes,but prohibits the passage of ions and polar molecules.This occurs because the phospholipid tails are
A) always saturated.
B) hydrophilic and hydrophobic.
C) always unsaturated.
D) hydrophilic and selectively permeable.
E) hydrophobic and selectively permeable.
Answer: E
Q2) What is the advantage of a mature red blood cell having a flattened shape rather than a spherical shape?
A) It is easier for them to fit through arteries and veins.
B) It provides more membrane for the electron transport chains where oxygen is consumed.
C) It provides more receptor sites for the membrane-bound hemoglobin molecules which transport oxygen.
D) It saves energy by making more membrane relative to the volume of the cell.
E) It maximizes the relative surface area for gas exchange.
Answer: E
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Q1) Dye placed at one end of a beaker of otherwise pure water will
A) diffuse towards the other side.
B) remain in place.
C) slowly bleach.
D) form crystals.
E) No answer is correct.
Q2) Cells use energy for which of the following?
A) to do work
B) to synthesize proteins
C) to expel waste
D) to move substances across membranes
E) All of the answer choices are correct.
Q3) If a cell contains 95% water in its cytoplasm and the environment surrounding the cell contains 90% water will flow
A) into the cell by osmosis.
B) out of the cell by active transport.
C) out of the cell by osmosis.
D) into the cell by active transport.
E) into the cell by facilitated diffusion.
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Q1) Photosynthesis provides ________ in the atmosphere that support(s)much of the life on earth.
A) organic compounds
B) carbon dioxide
C) chlorophyll
D) oxygen
E) sunlight
Q2) The primary pigment molecule needed for photosynthesis is
A) sunlight.
B) oxygen.
C) carbon dioxide.
D) glucose.
E) chlorophyll <i>a</i>.
Q3) The light reactions produce ATP,while the carbon reactions consume it.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The carbon reactions produce NADPH,while the light reactions consume it.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The three main biochemical pathways of cellular respiration are
A) glycolysis, photosystems, and carbon reactions.
B) carbon reactions, Krebs cycle, and light reactions.
C) Krebs cycle, carbon reactions, and electron transport chain.
D) glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and electron transport chain.
E) light reactions, carbon reactions, and electron transport chain.
Q2) In the electron transport chain,what occurs between the two membranes of mitochondria?
A) Glycolysis occurs in the membranes.
B) Protons are pumped into the space between the membranes.
C) Oxygen is transported across the membranes.
D) The membranes prevent the mitochondria from rupturing during osmosis without two membranes.
E) The Krebs cycle enzymes are found on the outer mitochondrial membrane.
Q3) Cellular respiration occurs in a sequential order.This allows the cell to
A) store oxygen in the process.
B) maintain control over the mitochondria.
C) efficiently breakdown glucose without damaging the cell.
D) harness all the energy released at one time.
E) produce the enzymes needed for cellular respiration very slowly.
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Q1) A DNA sequence that signals the start of a gene is
A) a codon.
B) an anticodon.
C) a terminator.
D) a promoter.
E) an amino acid attachment site.
Q2) The stage of viral replication in which the viral nucleic acid is released inside the cell is
A) penetration.
B) release.
C) attachment.
D) synthesis.
E) assembly.
Q3) What did scientists discover was the primary cause for a genetically controlled language disorder in humans?
A) The cause was one mutation in a single gene on one chromosome.
B) The disorder was not inherited but related to diet.
C) Affected family members were lacking vocal chords.
D) The cause was multiple mutations in multiple genes on one chromosome.
E) The cause was multiple mutations in multiple genes on many chromosomes.
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Q1) DNA and its associated proteins in the nucleus is referred to as the A) centromere.
B) nucleosome.
C) histone.
D) chromatin.
E) microtubule.
Q2) Apoptosis could be used to limit the spread of an intracellular disease-causing agent by isolating it with dead cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How does the space between our fingers arise?
A) The cells form by apoptosis.
B) Mitosis of the cells is blocked.
C) The cells die by apoptosis.
D) Meiosis of the cells is blocked.
E) The cells become part of the fingers.
Q4) Semiconservative DNA replication comes from the basepairing that is part of the basic structure of the DNA double helix.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Haploid germ cells undergo meiosis,including crossing over,to produce sex cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sexual reproduction includes
A) mitosis, fission, and fertilization.
B) mitosis, meiosis, and budding.
C) meiosis, fertilization, and mitosis.
D) meiosis, fertilization, and transduction.
E) fertilization, fission, and meiosis.
Q3) Meiosis is a process that produces
A) sperm cells.
B) egg cells.
C) gametes.
D) haploid cells.
E) All answers are correct.
Q4) Genetic variability will not occur among offspring if random alignment does not occur during anaphase I of meiosis.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Adult female bollworm moths lay eggs on cotton bolls.These eggs then hatch and grow into caterpillars that eat the seeds of the boll.The eggs and sperm are produced by A) meiosis.
B) mitosis.
C) fertilization.
D) crossing over.
E) mutation.
Q2) The most common allele for any trait is always the dominant allele.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If you cross two heterozygous (<i>Yy</i>)pea plants,what proportion of the offspring will be heterozygous?
A) 25%
B) 75%
C) 50%
D) 0%
E) 100%
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Q1) DNA probes are typically labeled with a radioactive isotope or fluorescent tag to locate within the genome after binding.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cloning and sexual reproduction result in two genetically identical cells/organisms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Transgenes for herbicide resistance have been accidentally transferred from crop plants to their weedy wild relatives.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Taq ________ enzyme is used in polymerase chain reaction (PCR)because it remains stable at high temperatures.
A) DNA polymerase
B) RNA polymerase
C) ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
D) primase
E) cytoskeleton
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Q1) Babies that are at a low birth weight are more likely to have health problems,while women will have difficulty delivering babies with high birth weight.Together this leads to ________ for babies of average birth weight.
A) stabilizing selection
B) disruptive selection
C) directional selection
D) artificial selection
E) sexual selection
Q2) Farmers and horticulturalists bred broccoli,cauliflower,kale,and cabbage from the wild mustard plant through A) artificial selection.
B) evolution.
C) genetic drift.
D) natural selection.
E) sexual selection.
Q3) Since the conditions needed for the Hardy-Weinberg principle do not occur in real populations,this principle has no importance in population studies.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The fossil record is often incomplete,in part because scientists will never be able to discover some of the fossils that are buried deep in the earth and in part because some living things fossilize more readily than others.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What can be used as a molecular clock to estimate the time since organisms diverged from a common ancestor?
A) DNA
B) all types of RNA
C) only ribosomal RNA
D) ATP
E) All answers are correct.
Q3) The abundant presence of ammonite fossils in a large area indicates that the area was once part of an ocean.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Data from embyros can be used to help establish evolutionary relationships.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The process by which species cease to exist is
A) isolation.
B) speciation.
C) extinction.
D) migration.
E) differentiation.
Q2) The idea that evolution proceeds in small,incremental changes over many generations is
A) temporal isolation.
B) gradualism.
C) punctuated equilibrium.
D) hybrid breakdown.
E) mechanical isolation.
Q3) The rate of background extinctions per year per million species is
A) 0.1 to 1.0 species.
B) 0.001 to 0.01 species.
C) 1.0 to 10 species.
D) 10 to 100 species.
E) No answer is correct.
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Q1) All protists
A) are prokaryotes.
B) lack a nucleus.
C) lack membrane-bounded organelles.
D) are eukaryotes.
E) are multicellular.
Q2) Fungi and plants are similar because they both
A) carry out photosynthesis.
B) have cellulose as the main component of their cell walls.
C) have glycogen as the main storage carbohydrate.
D) have cell walls.
E) All answers are correct.
Q3) The Irish potato famine in the mid-1840s was caused by which heterotrophic protist decomposer that secreted digestive enzymes onto potatoes?
A) a water mold
B) a red alga
C) a dinoflagellate
D) a protozoan
E) a fungus
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Q1) In plants that have two haploid gametes fuse during fertilization,the zygote is
A) haploid.
B) diploid.
C) tetraploid.
D) either haploid or tetraploid.
E) uniploid.
Q2) What is the advantage of a gymnosperm producing a seed over a fern producing a spore?
A) Seeds are diploid, and can grow directly into a sporophyte.
B) Seeds are haploid, and can grow directly into a sporophyte.
C) Seeds are diploid, and can grow directly into a gametophyte.
D) Seeds are haploid, and can grow directly into a gametophyte.
E) Producing seeds over spores is a disadvantage.
Q3) All angiosperms have their pollen and seeds moved by animals.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All land plants have a cuticle.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A lancelet is a(n)
A) invertebrate chordate.
B) vertebrate.
C) echinoderm.
D) amphibian.
E) fish.
Q2) Platyhelminthes include which of the following organisms?
A) flukes
B) jellyfish
C) sponges
D) insects
E) mollusks
Q3) Which were the first vertebrates to appear on land?
A) amphibians
B) nonavian reptiles
C) birds
D) mammals
E) fish
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Q1) The ________ measures the amount of land needed to support a country's overall lifestyle.
A) ecological footprint
B) carrying capacity
C) life table
D) survivorship curve
E) age structure
Q2) In regards to a species' life history,opportunistic species
A) are long-lived.
B) provide extensive care for their offspring.
C) are limited primarily by carrying capacity.
D) reproduce later in life.
E) produce many offspring.
Q3) The physical location where an organism lives is termed its A) home boundary.
B) range.
C) habitat.
D) community.
E) ecosystem.
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Q1) If asked to put an arrow in a diagram showing energy flow through an ecosystem,you would use a single-headed arrow.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Competitive exclusion says that two species trying to occupy the same niche in the same ecosystem will not be able to do so indefinitely,one species ultimately outcompeting the other.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Scientists observed that over the past 40 years,marmots,a type of ground squirrel,are located at increasing elevations on mountains.What is the best explanation for this observation?
A) The marmots are adapting to the cold temperatures.
B) Other species are competing with the marmots for their normal habitat.
C) More snow and rain is falling at the top of the mountains.
D) It is becoming colder at the top of the mountains.
E) It is becoming warmer at the top of the mountains.
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Q1) The zebra mussel and the gypsy moth are native species of North America.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An increase in the surface temperature of the Earth caused by heat-trapping gases in the atmosphere is known as
A) the greenhouse effect.
B) the biome effect.
C) bioremediation.
D) desertification.
E) the nursery effect.
Q3) Of every 100 species introduced,only one persists to take over a niche.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ozone layer absorbs much of the harmful UV wavelengths of light that would otherwise reach Earth.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A worldwide loss of biodiversity is underway because of human activities.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Many carnivorous plants use modified leaves to trap their prey.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The tendency of water molecules to "cling" together is
A) cohesion.
B) adhesion.
C) hydrolysis.
D) condensation.
E) evaporation.
Q3) Parasitic plants donate nutrients to other plants.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If you dug up a plant and found it to have fibrous roots,you would suspect it to be a monocot.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Eudicot stems have vascular bundles scattered throughout the ground tissue.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Male gametophytes are made in each
A) stamen.
B) calyx.
C) stigma.
D) carpel.
E) corolla.
Q2) Angiosperms owe their widespread distribution to their production of pollen,seeds and flowers.What is the greatest advantage to the production of flowers?
A) It allows fertilization in the absence of water.
B) It is necessary for sexual reproduction.
C) It promotes pollination.
D) It allows fertilization in moist areas.
E) It protects and nourishes the embryo.
Q3) Whorl four of a flower is made up of the A) male reproductive parts of a flower.
B) sepals.
C) petals.
D) female reproductive parts of a flower.
E) stem region.
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Q1) Most burn victims who have substantial damage to their skin are prescribed powerful antibiotics because the intact skin is the first defense against bacterial infections.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The cross-sectional area of the nasal cavity can be an important indicator of whether an animal is an endotherm or an ectotherm.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Groups of cells that interact and provide a specific function are defined as a(n) A) organ system.
B) organ.
C) tissue.
D) tumor.
E) No answer is correct.
Q4) In a hierarchical description of an animal,tissues would fall between cells and organs.
A)True B)False
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Q1) A neuron recharges when Na ions
A) are actively pumped against their concentration gradient.
B) spontaneously move down their concentration gradient.
C) spontaneously move against their concentration gradient.
D) are actively pumped down their concentration gradient.
Q2) The layered membranes that jacket the central nervous system are the A) gray matter.
B) meninges.
C) white matter.
D) epidermis.
E) myelin sheaths.
Q3) The division of the nervous system that integrates sensory information and coordinates the body's response is the
A) peripheral nervous system.
B) central nervous system.
C) somatic nervous system.
D) autonomic nervous system.
E) sympathetic nervous system.
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Q1) You would know that you had found endocrine cells if you observed them to secrete hormones into ducts that release the hormones into a body cavity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which organ was being affected by the BPA that led to decreased LH in the blood?
A) ovary
B) kidney
C) pituitary
D) thyroid
E) pancreas
Q3) Estrogen and progesterone normally do which things?
A) stimulate LH and FSH production by the uterus
B) stimulate LH and FSH production by the pituitary
C) inhibit LH and FSH production by the uterus
D) They have no effect on LH and FSH production.
E) inhibit LH and FSH production by the pituitary
Q4) All of our body's hormones are products of the endocrine system.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The precursor of bone is cartilage.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If you placed an electrode on a person's triceps and stimulated the muscle,they would not be able to
A) straighten their leg.
B) straighten their arm.
C) bend their leg.
D) bend their arm.
E) No answer is correct.
Q3) Athletes who compete in distance/endurance events develop more fast-twitch muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The type of skeleton composed of calcium rich-spines,cartilage or bone is a(n)
A) exoskeleton.
B) hydrostatic skeleton.
C) gastrovascular cavity.
D) endoskeleton.
E) vascular canal.

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Q1) Blood transports the most carbon dioxide in what form?
A) as bicarbonate ions
B) in red blood cells
C) dissolved in the plasma
D) bound to hemoglobin
E) bound to myoglobin
Q2) A frog can absorb oxygen through its skin and lungs.Which is an advantage of absorbing oxygen through the lungs?
A) The heart pumps oxygen from the lungs into the bloodstream.
B) Oxygen absorbed in the lungs enters the blood stream.
C) Air in the lungs has a higher concentration of oxygen than air in the atmosphere.
D) Oxygen diffuses across cells more slowly than across the lining of the lungs.
E) Lungs have more surface area than the skin.
Q3) The walls of the bronchioles are made up of
A) cartilage.
B) smooth muscle.
C) cartilage and smooth muscle.
D) cartilage and skeletal muscle.
E) skeletal muscle.
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Q1) In humans,the muscular tube into which urine from the kidney first drains is the A) urethra.
B) uvula.
C) ureter.
D) urinary bladder.
E) nephron.
Q2) Kidney stones are calcium-rich crystals that form inside the kidney and can be triggered by dehydration because salt concentrations
A) increase as blood volume increases.
B) drop as blood volume drops.
C) increase as blood volume drops.
D) drop as blood volume increases.
E) No answer is correct.
Q3) Animals that eat only plants are A) omnivores.
B) herbivores.
C) carnivores.
D) detritivores.
E) insectivores.
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Q1) A primary "antigen presenting cell," a cell that presents an antigen to a helper T cell,is a
A) B cell.
B) T cell.
C) macrophage.
D) plasma cell.
E) chondrocyte.
Q2) Why do lymph nodes often become swollen during an infection?
A) T cells reproduce in lymph nodes after being exposed to pathogens.
B) B cells reproduce in lymph nodes after being exposed to pathogens.
C) Macrophages move to lymph nodes after engulfing pathogens.
D) Cytotoxic T cells attack pathogens in the lymph nodes, triggering inflammation.
E) Vasodilation increases blood flow in the lymph nodes.
Q3) A person who has been bitten by a venomous snake needs help via passive immunity.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The hormone released by the anterior pituitary that triggers ovulation and transforms the ruptured follicle into the corpus luteum is
A) GnRH.
B) FSH.
C) LH.
D) ATP.
E) progesterone.
Q2) A cervical cap is a silicone cup that fits within the vagina and covers the cervix.This contraceptive
A) prevents sperm from reaching the egg.
B) prevents ovulation.
C) leads to a non-viable embryo.
D) prevents implantation in the uterine wall.
E) because it is made of silicone, kills sperm.
Q3) Although not viable in humans,what is the result if two sperm fertilized an egg?
A) a haploid zygote with one-third of the total chromosomes from each gamete
B) a diploid zygote with one-half of the total chromosomes from each gamete
C) a diploid zygote with all of the chromosomes from each gamete
D) a triploid zygote with all of the chromosomes from each gamete
E) identical twins
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