Life Science
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Life Science is the study of living organisms and life processes, encompassing a wide range of topics such as biology, ecology, genetics, physiology, evolution, and cell biology. This course provides a foundational understanding of the diversity of life, the structure and function of organisms, and the interactions between living things and their environments. Students will explore major life systems, scientific inquiry, the role of genetics in heredity, and current advances in biotechnology. Emphasis is placed on developing scientific thinking, experimental skills, and an appreciation for the dynamic nature of living systems.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of Biology 4th Edition by Sylvia S. Mader Dr
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Chapter 1: Biology: The Science of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT true with regards to extinction?
A) Extinction of different species can impact humans.
B) All extinctions are caused by human activities such as habitat destruction.
C) As many as 400 species per day may be lost due to human activities.
D) Introduction of nonnative species to an area can increase the rate of extinction.
E) Extinction is the death of a species or a larger taxonomic group.
Answer: B
Q2) Richard is an avid gardener who spends a lot of time caring for the plants in his garden.To minimize damage from pests from his garden,Richard uses a pesticide spray.At first the spray is very effective and kills off most of the insects that he sees on his vegetable plants.However,after a few years of using the same pesticide he notices that some insects are surviving and continuing to eat his plants.This selection for herbicide resistance in the insects is an example of
A) natural selection.
B) evolution.
C) an adaptation.
D) a gene.
E) a learned response.
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemical Basis of Life
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Q1) Which of the following is not one of the most common elements in living things?
A) carbon
B) oxygen
C) hydrogen
D) iron
E) nitrogen Six elements of matter make up the majority of body weight of most organisms. Their presence and properties are essential to the uniqueness of living things.
Answer: D
Q2) The number of neutrons in the nucleus of an average atom of an element is best estimated by
A) adding the number of electrons and protons together.
B) subtracting the number of electrons from the number of protons.
C) adding the mass number to the number of electrons.
D) subtracting the number of protons from the mass number.
E) adding the atomic number and atomic mass together.
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: The Organic Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) What functional group makes a carbohydrate polar?
A) -OH
B) -NH<sub>2</sub>
C) -SH
D) -R
E) -C-H
Answer: A
Q2) What makes saturated triglycerides considerably less healthy than unsaturated ones?
A) They are solids at room temperature.
B) They possess no double bonds between carbon atoms making them more tightly packed together.
C) Individuals tend to consume more saturated fats than unsaturated fats.
D) Unsaturated fats are found in processed foods more frequently.
E) They are digested more quickly by the body.
Answer: B
Q3) A polypeptide forms a pleated sheet or a helix as its tertiary structure.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Inside the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nuclear membrane differs from the plasma membrane in that the nuclear membrane is a single layer of phospholipids.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Resolving power is
A) the ability to tell two points apart as separate points.
B) the ability to make an object larger.
C) the focusing mechanism used to bring objects clearly into view.
D) the optimum power to most clearly view the entire specimen.
E) the depth of the specimen clearly in focus.
Q3) Which of the following organelles would form a membrane bound package also known as a vesicle?
A) Golgi apparatus
B) lysosomes
C) mitochondria
D) ribosomes
E) chloroplasts
Q4) Plant cells have walls but do not have plasma membranes.
A)True
B)False
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Dynamic Cell
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Q1) ATP is a good source of energy for a cell because
A) it is able to be used in only one type of reaction.
B) its breakdown is coupled with energy-requiring reactions.
C) it provides excess energy for cellular reactions.
D) it is not reusable.
E) it takes no energy to make it.
Q2) Osmosis includes
A) a semi-permeable membrane.
B) transport proteins.
C) the diffusion of water.
D) both the diffusion of water and a semi-permeable membrane.
E) both a semi-permeable membrane and transport proteins.
Q3) Which of these words does not belong with the rest as it relates to concentration gradient?
A) osmosis
B) diffusion
C) passive transport
D) active transport
E) facilitated diffusion
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Energy for Life
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Q1) In C4 plants,the light reactions will stop during the daytime when the supply of what compound is limited?
A) chlorophyll a
B) NADP<sup>+</sup>
C) H<sub>2</sub>O
D) CO<sub>2</sub>
E) O<sub>2</sub>
Q2) Which compounds link the light reactions with the Calvin cycle reactions?
A) ATP and NADPH
B) H<sup>+</sup> and ATP
C) G3P and ATP
D) H<sup>+</sup> and G3P
E) G3P and NADPH
Q3) The removal of electrons and/or hydrogen atoms from a substrate is called what?
A) oxidation
B) reduction
C) phosphorylation
D) metabolism
E) an enzyme-substrate complex
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Energy for Cells
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Q1) As electrons are passed down the electron transport chain,the energy released is used immediately to
A) form ATP.
B) concentrate H<sup>+</sup> in the intermembrane space.
C) move phosphate groups to ATP synthase.
D) release CO<sub>2</sub> to the matrix.
E) concentrate H<sup>+</sup> in the cytoplasm of the cell.
Q2) What would happen if NAD+ were not available for cellular respiration?
A) There would be a slight reduction in the number of ATP formed.
B) There would be a great reduction in the number of ATP formed.
C) There would be no effect on the number of ATP formed.
D) Cellular respiration would not proceed.
E) There would be an increase in ATP produced.
Q3) When glucose is broken down to CO<sub>2</sub> and H<sub>2</sub>O,__________ energy is released and converted into
A) chemical potential; ATP.
B) photosynthetic; ATP.
C) solar; NADH.
D) NADH; ATP.
E) chemical potential; NADH.
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Chapter 8: Cellular Reproduction
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Q1) A mutation that causes a gain of function in a tumor suppressor gene would not likely cause cancer because a tumor suppressor protein
A) normally promotes the cell cycle.
B) normally responds to growth factors.
C) activates a signal transduction pathway.
D) inactivates growth factors.
E) does not promote cell division.
Q2) If cancer is discovered at an early stage,which treatment method is most often used?
A) surgery
B) radiation
C) chemotherapy
D) hormonal therapy
E) drug therapy
Q3) Place the stages of mitosis in the correct order.
A) prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase
B) telophase, anaphase, metaphase, interphase
C) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
D) interphase, prophase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis
E) interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis
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Chapter 9: Meiosis and the Genetic Basis of Sexual
Reproduction
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Q1) Swyer syndrome (46,XY,female appearance),would most likely result from
A) nondisjunction during meiosis I in the female parent.
B) nondisjunction during meiosis I in the male parent.
C) nondisjunction during meiosis II in the female parent.
D) nondisjunction during meiosis II in the male parent.
E) normal disjunction during meiosis, but deletion of portion of the Y chromosome in the male parent.
Q2) It would be possible for a male and a female to have exactly the same __________________ but they would have to differ in
A) diploid chromosomes; haploid chromosomes
B) autosomes; sex chromosomes
C) homologues; autosomes
D) karyotype; sex chromosomes
E) karyotype; autosomes
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Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) A woman with Type AB blood marries a man with Type B blood.If they have children,what are all the possible blood types for these individuals?
A) AB only
B) AB, AA, AO, and BO
C) AB, BB, AO, and BO
D) BB only
E) AA, BB, and AB
Q2) Sickle cell disease is caused by a single mutation in the DNA of a particular gene.A person with this disease has red blood cells that lose their original donut shape and form a sickle shape.People with this disorder suffer from low energy levels,blood clots,and strokes.This is an example of
A) a multifactorial trait.
B) polygenic inheritance.
C) pleiotropy.
D) codominance.
E) incomplete dominance.
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Chapter 11: DNA Biology
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Q1) DNA replication is called semiconservative because
A) one of the two resulting DNA molecules is new.
B) the two resulting DNA molecules each have one new DNA strand and one old strand from the original DNA molecule.
C) both of the resulting DNA molecules are composed of new strands of nucleotides.
D) no extra nucleotides are incorporated into the replicated DNA molecules.
E) the sequence of nucleotides in one strand is conserved, whereas the new DNA molecule consists of a unique sequence of nucleotides
Q2) Using three bases to represent each amino acid in a polypeptide
A) ensures that all amino acids are represented at least once by the code.
B) ensures that other organisms can read the code too.
C) ensures that DNA can replicate properly.
D) prevents the wrong amino acid from being incorporated into a protein.
E) prevents early termination of transcription.
Q3) The genetic code in bacteria is different than the genetic code in animals and plants.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Biotechnology and Genomics
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Q1) _____ is the study of the structure and function of cellular proteins and their interactions; _______ may be employed to use computer algorithms to aid this process.
Rev: 02_07_2014_QC_44566
A) Proteomics; bioinformatics
B) Comparative genomics; bioinformatics
C) Genomics; proteomics
D) Proteomics; comparative genomics
E) Comparative genomics; proteomics
Q2) When DNA fingerprinting is performed,why might an individual possess two different numbers of repeats for the same chromosomal region?
A) Intergenic DNA may vary from one cell to another in the same individual.
B) The individual has different numbers of the same repeated sequence on each homologous chromosome.
C) The sample is contaminated with the DNA of another individual.
D) Each sister chromatid of a chromosome may contain different numbers of repeats.
E) It is not possible for this to occur.
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14
Chapter 13: Genetic Counseling
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Q1) An embryo produced by in vitro fertilization (IVF)may be tested for genetic disorders prior to implantation.How is this accomplished?
A) Fetal cells are recovered from the mother's blood, and the DNA analyzed with a DNA microarray.
B) Amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling is performed, and a karyotype assembled.
C) A polar body is isolated and its DNA amplified by PCR for analysis by DNA microarray.
D) A single cell is removed from a 6 to 8-celled embryo, and its DNA analyzed with a DNA microarray.
E) Blood is drawn from the embryo for genetic marker analysis.
Q2) Mutant gene alleles associated with known genetic disorders can be detected using DNA microarray analysis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Testing for a protein may help reveal whether or not an individual has a genetic disorder.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Darwin and Evolution
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Q1) If a population lacks variation (fixed),no individual has any advantageous trait,and the environment changes for the worse.What will most likely happen to the population in terms of natural selection?
A) The entire population will still survive and adapt to the new environment.
B) A portion of the population will still survive and adapt to the new environment.
C) The entire population will go extinct.
D) Artificial selection will occur since natural selection can not.
E) Some individuals in the population will automatically mutate in response to the environmental change so that variation will exist.
Q2) Analogous structures are evidence of common ancestry.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Darwin's primary mission on the HMS Beagle was to
A) develop the theory of evolution.
B) observe natural selection in action.
C) gather data on geologic processes from around the world.
D) describe as many different new species as possible.
E) expand the Navy's knowledge of natural resources around the world.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Evolution on a Small Scale
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Q1) If half of a population is homozygous recessive,what is p?
A) 0.5
B) 0.707
C) 0.25
D) 0.293
E) 0.1
Q2) All of the genes and all of their associated alleles within a population represent the population's
A) genotype.
B) gene flow.
C) gene pool.
D) genome.
E) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
Q3) Which individual would be considered the fittest?
A) Individual that has the longest canine teeth within the group
B) Individual that has the greatest number of breeding opportunities
C) Individual that has the best camoflauge to avoid predators
D) Individual that controls the largest territory
E) Individual that has the greatest number of offspring
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Evolution on a Large Scale
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Q1) The pollen from a red maple is unable to fertilize the eggs from a sugar maple.This is an example of what type of isolating mechanism?
A) mechanical isolation
B) habitat isolation
C) temporal isolation
D) hybrid sterility
E) gamete isolation
Q2) All of the following are criteria by which a species may be defined EXCEPT
A) the ability to reproduce.
B) possession of a shared gene pool.
C) ability to hybridize through interbreeding.
D) reproductive isolation.
E) the ability to produce fertile offspring.
Q3) The finches of the Galápagos islands evolved as a result of what type(s)of speciation?
A) allopatric speciation
B) adaptive radiation
C) sympatric speciation
D) both allopatric speciation and adaptive radiation
E) both sympatric speciation and adaptive radiation
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Chapter 17: The Microorganisms: Viruses, bacteria, and Protists
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Q1) You take a large sample of soil and put it all into individual pots.You then divide the pots into two groups: In the first group,every pot of soil has been sterilized,and thus contains no bacteria.In the other group,none of the pots of soil has been sterilized.You plant soybean seeds in all the pots.What would you expect to see as the seeds sprout and grow?
A) The plants growing in the sterile soil are bigger because they have not been exposed to any bacteria.
B) The plants growing in the non-sterile soil are bigger because have mutualistic associations with nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
C) The plants growing in the sterile soil are bigger because they do not have to compete with nitrogen-fixing bacteria in order to obtain usable nitrogen.
D) The plants growing in the non-sterile soil are bigger because saprotrophic bacteria produce nutrients for them.
E) There is no difference in size between the plants growing in the sterile soil and those in the non-sterile soil.
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Chapter 18: Land Environment: Plants and Fungi
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Q1) In black bread mold,spores are produced in
A) clublike structures of the gills.
B) sporangia.
C) carpels.
D) sori.
E) mycorrhizae.
Q2) The body of a typical fungus is termed a(n)
A) antheridium.
B) mycorrhiza.
C) sporangium.
D) hypha.
E) mycelium.
Q3) Which structures were required for the evolution of the ferns and gymnosperms?
A) seeds and flowers
B) megaphylls and seeds
C) microphylls and megaphylls
D) flowers and vascular tissue
E) megaphylls and vascular tissue
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Chapter 19: Both Water and Land: Animals
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Q1) Which of these is not a bivalve?
A) barnacle
B) oyster
C) clam
D) mussel
E) scallop
Q2) Which organism does not posses features that identify them as an arachnid?
A) spider
B) scorpion
C) tick
D) horseshoe crab
E) lobster
Q3) Which statement is NOT true about echinoderms?
A) The exoskeleton is made up of bony tissue.
B) Gas exchange occurs through gills on the skin.
C) Larvae are free-swimming and bilaterally symmetrical.
D) A water vascular system allows the tube feet to produce suction.
E) Symmetry is radial in the adult, usually with parts in fives or multiples of five.
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Chapter 20: Plant Anatomy and Growth
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Q1) A monocot root differs from a eudicot root because a monocot root
A) lacks an organized pith.
B) contains xylem and phloem organized in ring around the pith.
C) does not contain pericycle.
D) lacks a functional endodermis.
E) contains a cortex that is inside of the endoderm.
Q2) Which root adaptation enables plants to access atmospheric nitrogen?
A) Root nodules that are colonized by bacteria.
B) A mutualistic relationship with fungi.
C) Stomata that allow the diffusion of nitrogen through the epidermis of the leaf.
D) Thin cell membranes that are porous enough to allow for the diffusion of nitrogen into the root system.
E) Bacteria that live within the leaves of the plants that absorb nitrogen and make it available for the plant.
Q3) Plants are capable of directly absorbing nitrogen from the atmosphere.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Plant Responses and Reproduction
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Q1) Auxin causes bending in stems and roots by A) causing cell elongation.
B) preventing cell elongation.
C) breaking down cell walls.
D) causing cell shrinkage.
E) inhibiting lateral bud growth.
Q2) Some citizens are concerned about the use of genetically modified plants because they
A) are better for the environment.
B) may harm the environment.
C) are less nutritious than the original plant.
D) are genetically identical.
E) do not grow as well as the original plant.
Q3) The aging process in plants is known as A) senescence.
B) dormancy.
C) abscission.
D) apical dominance.
E) gravitropism.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Being Organized and Steady
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Q1) Mucus producing glands of simple columnar and pseudostratified columnar epithelium are called
A) mucus cells.
B) areolar cells.
C) apocrine cells.
D) goblet cells.
E) fibroblasts.
Q2) The source in the body of sample two is
A) the heart.
B) a skeletal muscle.
C) a tendon or ligament.
D) the stomach.
E) the lungs.
Q3) If damaged,which tissue type will not be able to conduct an impulse?
A) nervous
B) epithelial
C) connective
D) muscular
E) columnar
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Page 24
Chapter 23: The Transport Systems
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Q1) The presence of salts and plasma proteins in capillaries causes
A) a greater osmotic pressure than blood pressure at the arterial end.
B) diffusion of water into the body tissues.
C) greater osmotic pressure in the blood than in body tissues.
D) slower flow of blood through capillaries.
E) water to move out of the blood capillary at the venous end.
Q2) For which of the following is iron required?
A) It stimulates formation of lymph.
B) It forms part of hemoglobin which transports oxygen.
C) It prevents destruction of red blood cells.
D) It prevents plaque formation in arteries.
E) It forms part of white blood cells.
Q3) Blood in veins
A) is moved by the contraction of the muscles in the walls of the veins.
B) is moved away from the heart by skeletal muscle contraction.
C) is usually high in oxygen.
D) is moved away from the heart with the help of the valves within the veins.
E) is moved toward the heart by skeletal muscle contraction.
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Chapter 24: The Maintenance Systems
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Q1) Vanessa and her friends are having lunch together.Just as Vanessa takes a drink of her chocolate milk,one of her friends tells a joke.Laughing,Vanessa has some of her milk come out of her nose.What is the explanation for this unusual event?
A) The laughter interfered with the movement of the soft palate so it did not shut off the nasal cavity.
B) The laughter interfered with the movement of the epiglottis so it did not shut off the nasal cavity.
C) The laughter interfered with the movement of the epiglottis so it did not shut off the trachea.
D) Vanessa has something wrong with the structure of her pharynx which allowed the milk to come out her nose.
E) The laughter interfered with the movement of the soft palate so it did not shut off the trachea.
Q2) The longer digestive tract of herbivores is necessary to complete digestion of plant material.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Human Nutrition
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Q1) Obesity increases the risk of diabetes type 2 and cardiovascular disease.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following minerals is INCORRECTLY matched with its source?
A) calcium - leafy green vegetables
B) phosphorus - meat
C) iodine - sea food
D) zinc - fruit
E) magnesium - whole grains
Q3) The percent of daily value on a nutrition facts label is based on
A) a diet of 2000 calories day.
B) a diet of 2500 calories a day.
C) a BMI of 22.
D) an individual weighing 175 pounds.
E) an individual weighting 120 pounds.
Q4) Dietary supplements are safe to use due to the governmental regulations they go through before they are approved for sale.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Defenses Against Disease
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Q1) If a person has a genetic defect in the metabolic pathway that produces cytokines,then
A) macrophages will not be produced by the immune system.
B) B cells would not be activated to respond when cells presenting antigens are present.
C) helper T cells would take over the role of activating B cells.
D) the spleen would destroy all red blood cells.
E) histamine will not be produced by mast cells.
Q2) Which cell type plays a role in adaptive immunity in the body?
A) lymphocytes
B) red blood cells
C) platelets
D) epithelial cells
E) None of these cell types play a role in adaptive immunity.
Q3) When the body responds to its own cells as foreign antigens,this results in A) allergies.
B) autoimmune disease.
C) passive immunity.
D) anaphylactic shock.
E) active immunity.
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Chapter 27: The Control Systems
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Q1) Weight gain,diabetes mellitus,and a moon-shaped face indicate
A) Addison disease.
B) Graves disease.
C) simple goiter.
D) pituitary dwarfism.
E) Cushing syndrome.
Q2) Which action is not part of how drugs can affect the nervous system?
A) All of these actions are part of how drugs can affect the nervous system.
B) Drugs can enhance the release of a neurotransmitter.
C) Drugs can block the release of a neurotransmitter.
D) Drugs can block the receptor for a neurotransmitter.
E) Drugs can mimic the actions of a neurotransmitter.
Q3) Which of these is a second messenger?
A) cAMP
B) ATP
C) a peptide hormone
D) a steroid hormone
E) DNA
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29
Chapter 28: Sensory Input and Motor Output
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Q1) Which of these is mismatched?
A) utricle - ear
B) taste bud - tongue
C) tympanic membrane - ear
D) fovea - eye
E) ossicles - joints
Q2) Which of the following function is performed by both the skeletal and muscular system?
A) protection of internal organs
B) movement of blood through the veins
C) storage of calcium
D) help maintain body temperature
E) storage of fat
Q3) Which of these animals has a body supported by a hydrostatic skeleton?
A) lobster
B) deer
C) fruit fly
D) leech
E) millipede
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Reproduction and Embryonic Development
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Q1) Which of these is viviparous?
A) salmon
B) parrot
C) bullfrog
D) crayfish
E) moose
Q2) Which organism is most likely to reproduce by fragmentation?
A) hydra
B) sponge
C) bird
D) honeybee
E) frog
Q3) Sperm are produced
A) by Sertoli cells.
B) in the epididymis.
C) by interstitial cells.
D) in the seminiferous tubules.
E) in the seminal vesicles.
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Chapter 30: Ecology and Populations
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Q1) During a summer with lots of rain,the vegetation grew lush and the white-footed mouse populations increased due to increases in food availability.However,the next two summers were record drought years and food became increasingly scarce.Over these two years,the population size of the mice decreased due to increased competition for access to food.This increased competition is an example of
A) a density independent factor.
B) a negative growth rate.
C) a density dependent factor.
D) an opportunistic population.
E) logistic growth.
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a density-dependent factor?
A) parasitism
B) a wildfire
C) a tornado
D) flooding
E) reduction in birth rate
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Chapter 31: Communities and Ecosystems
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Q1) On average,90% of biomass is transferred from one trophic level to the next.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following are true about both primary and secondary succession EXCEPT
A) both lead to a stable climax community.
B) both include a progression of changes in the community over time.
C) both occur in regions where soil is already present.
D) for both communities, fungi and vascular seedless plants are typically the first species to colonize the area.
E) both are colonized first by opportunistic species.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of predation?
A) daddy-long-legs, a type of arachnid that eat dead and decaying matter
B) marine filter-feeders that have long tentacles to filter food particles from the water
C) a starfish which is able to evert its stomach to break open and eat clams
D) a giraffe pulling leaves off tall trees with its long tongue
E) a tick that attaches to a deer and sucks its blood
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Chapter 32: Human Impact on the Biosphere
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Q1) Which of the following features would have the greatest influence in creating a more sustainable urban society?
A) Improving the efficiency of water filtration systems in order to decrease our consumption of freshwater.
B) Increasing fuel efficiency in our vehicles so we can decrease the consumption of fossil fuels.
C) Decreasing the amount of environmental pollution produced by industry.
D) Decreasing the amount of land that is altered in order to accommodate human desires (new homes, factories, agriculture, etc.).
E) Exploring alternative energy sources that are more environmentally favorable (i.e., solar, hydropower, etc.).
Q2) Which of the following is a major drawback of dams?
A) saltwater intrusion
B) providing irrigation water
C) sediment buildup
D) depletion of aquifers
E) deforestation of nearby lands
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