Life Science
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Life Science is an interdisciplinary field that explores the structure, function, growth, origin, evolution, and distribution of living organisms. The course provides foundational knowledge in biology, including the study of cells, genetics, physiology, ecology, and biodiversity. Students will examine life processes from the molecular level to complex organismal systems, gaining insight into the interconnectedness of all forms of life. Through laboratory experiments and critical analysis, the course emphasizes scientific inquiry and the application of biological principles to real-world issues such as health, environment, and biotechnology.
Recommended Textbook
Discover Biology 6th Core Edition by Anu Singh
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Nature of Science and the Characteristics of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The genetic material used for reproduction by organisms that are conventionally considered to be living is ________.
Answer: DNA
Q2) Which of the following sequences correctly represents the biological hierarchy of a multicellular organism?
A) cells tissues organs organ systems individual
B) tissues organs organ systems cells individual
C) individual organs cells organ systems tissues
D) organ systems organs tissues cells individual
Answer: A
Q3) Some questions fall outside the realm of science.Which of the following questions could NOT be answered using the scientific method?
A) What is the function of the appendix in the human body?
B) Why is it unethical to test newly developed drugs in animals?
C) Why do smokers develop lung cancer more frequently than nonsmokers?
D) Why is it so difficult to quit smoking?
Answer: B
Q4) Scientists can propose testable predictions after first developing a(n)________.
Answer: hypothesis
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fevers in young children are a particular concern because oxygen is less effectively transported by hemoglobin at high temperature.How might this be explained?
A) The hemoglobin becomes denatured and cannot transport the oxygen.
B) The oxygen becomes denatured and cannot bind to the hemoglobin.
C) Oxygen has too much thermal energy to be bound by hemoglobin.
D) Oxygen evaporates at high temperature and is not available for binding with hemoglobin.
Answer: A
Q2) How many hydrogen atoms are in a molecule of C H N O ?
A) 8
B) 10
C) 20
D) 24
Answer: B
Q3) Most lipids contain one or more of the long,hydrophobic hydrocarbon chains known as ________.
Answer: fatty acids
Q4) The most versatile atom in living systems is ________.
Answer: carbon
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Internal Compartments
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Q1) Mitochondria produce most of the energy used in a bacterial cell.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Prokaryotes and eukaryotes are primarily distinguished by the absence or presence of internal,membrane-bound organelles.Are prokaryotic cells at an evolutionary disadvantage because they lack organelles?
A) Yes; without organelles, prokaryotic cells cannot photosynthesize or respire.
B) Yes; without organelles, prokaryotes are unable to bring together the reactants needed for biological reactions.
C) No; although prokaryotic cells are comparatively less efficient than eukaryotic cells, they are still able to carry out the processes necessary for survival and reproduction.
D) No; eukaryotic organelles are expelled each time the cell divides.
Answer: C
Q3) A cell structure that pinches off from a membrane,encloses material,and then fuses with another membrane to release its contents at its destination is called a(n)________.
Answer: vesicle
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Chapter 4: Cell Membranes, Transport, and Communication
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Q1) Cells that experience high mechanical stress,like heart cells,typically connect to one another using a(n)________ junction,allowing the stress to be distributed to a larger area.
Q2) Active carrier proteins can transfer molecules into areas of higher concentration.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Receptors in target cells can be located in the plasma membrane,the cytosol,or the
Q4) Cells suspended in a hypertonic solution will lose water.
A)True
B)False
Q5) If a red blood cell is placed in a hypertonic solution,what happens to it?
A) It will burst.
B) It will shrink.
C) There will be no change in the red blood cell.
D) Water will move into the red blood cell faster than it will move out.
Q6) The signaling molecules that interact with cell surface receptors cannot cross the plasma membrane and would generally be classified as large and/or________.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Energy, Metabolism, and Enzymes
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Q1) As a molecule becomes oxidized,it loses electrons.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Complex molecules are built from smaller organic compounds by using energy to drive ________ reactions.
A) catabolic
B) anabolic
C) hydrolysis
D) redox
Q3) Chemical reactions in which reactants have a lower energy content than the products can occur without the input of any energy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The enzyme maltase splits the disaccharide maltose into two sugar monomers.Maltose is maltase's ________.
Q5) Organisms that drop their basal metabolic rate (BMR)as cold weather arrives,enabling their body temperature to plummet,are called ________.
Q6) A rotted log exemplifies the operation of the ________ law of thermodynamics.
Q7) The energy input needed to start a chemical reaction is called the ________.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Photo Synthesis and Cellular Respiration
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Q1) The inner membrane of a mitochondrion has many folds.Why?
A) The folds protect the proteins in the inner membrane from the toxic by-products of cellular respiration.
B) The folds increase the space available for electron transport chains and ATP synthase molecules, increasing the efficiency of ATP production.
C) The extra folds make the mitochondrion more efficient at capturing carbon dioxide.
D) The antenna complexes in the inner membrane form clusters that force the membrane into folds.
Q2) Electrons gain energy as they move through the electron transport chain.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Fermentation produces more ATP molecules than aerobic respiration does.
A)True B)False
Q4) In warm and dry conditions,when CO levels fall and O levels rise,photorespiration occurs as a result of plants closing their ________.
Q5) The most common cause of death by poisoning around the world is ________.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Cell Division
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the chromosomes in a homologous pair is true?
A) They both came from the organism's mother.
B) They both came from the organism's father.
C) One chromosome came from the organism's mother and the other came from the organism's father.
D) Neither chromosome came from the organism's parents.
Q2) Gametes are produced by meiosis rather than mitosis because A) mitosis would produce too many sister cells.
B) meiosis reduces the number of chromosomes so that the zygotes resulting from fertilization will have one full genome consisting of a diploid number of chromosomes.
C) meiosis doubles the number of chromosomes so that each gamete has twice the usual number of genes.
D) meiosis ensures that the gametes are identical to the cell that produced them.
Q3) One way to create genetic diversity is through the random distribution of chromosomes into daughter cells during the meiotic stage of ________.
Q4) Chromosomes become visible during the mitotic stage called ________.
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Chapter 8: Cancer and Human Health
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT likely to cause a cell to become cancerous?
A) mutation
B) meiosis
C) chemical pollutants
D) cigarette smoke
Q2) AIDS patients are more susceptible to infections than healthy people.Therefore,AIDS patients are more likely than healthy people to develop some cancers caused by A) inherited defects.
B) viruses.
C) a family history of cancer.
D) obesity.
Q3) Normal cell division requires ________ proto-oncogenes and ________ tumor suppressor genes.
A) inactivated; activated
B) inactivated; inactivated
C) activated; activated
D) activated; inactivated
Q4) Mutations cause changes in ________ produced by a gene.
Q5) A tumor cell has lost ________ when it breaks off from the primary tumor.
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Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) Inheritance of ABO blood type in humans is an example of A) pleiotropy.
B) epistasis.
C) incomplete dominance.
D) a gene that is coded by more than two alleles.
Q2) You are considering the inheritance of some human traits.One trait controls the quality of earwax,and it is controlled by the E gene.Wet earwax is dominant to dry earwax.Another trait is free or attached earlobes,represented by the A gene.Attached earlobes are recessive to free earlobes.Assume that a man who was pure-breeding for dry earwax and free earlobes had children with a woman who was pure-breeding for attached earlobes and wet earwax.What would be the genotype of their offspring?
A) EEAA
B) Eeaa
C) eeAa
D) EeAa
Q3) During meiosis,two copies of a gene separate and end up in different ________.
Q4) When gametes are formed,the separation of alleles for one gene is unrelated to the separation of alleles for other genes.This idea is known as Mendel's law of ________.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Q1) A man is a carrier for a recessive disease allele.A woman is not a carrier and does not have the disease.The couple has four children and A) none of the children have the disease.
B) one of the children has the disease.
C) two of the children have the disease.
D) all of the male children have the disease.
Q2) One chromosomal abnormality that is usually fatal is
A) a mutation in a gene on the chromosome.
B) the exchange of material between homologous chromosomes.
C) a change in the number of sex chromosomes.
D) the addition of an extra autosomal chromosome.
Q3) Which of the following statements about crossing-over is true?
A) It lowers the likelihood of genetic recombination.
B) It disrupts the linkage between genes.
C) It results in the production of extra chromosomes.
D) It is usually fatal.
Q4) Human males have one chromosome that females do not,known as the ________ chromosome.
Q5) A female who is a carrier of the sex-linked gene A has the genotype ________.
Page 12
Q6) All sex-linked genes are either X-linked or ________-linked.
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Chapter 11: DNA and Genes
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Q1) Before a cell divides,it
A) breaks down its DNA.
B) deletes old genetic information.
C) copies information from neighboring cells.
D) copies its own genetic information.
Q2) The "rungs" in the DNA "ladder" consist of ________ pairs.
Q3) During replication,each "old" DNA strand serves as a template for a new strand.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Once replication in a DNA molecule is complete,each new DNA molecule contains one old strand and one new strand.This type of replication is called A) transcriptive.
B) semiconservative.
C) covalent.
D) corruptive.
Q5) Along one side of a DNA molecule,the nucleotides are connected to each other by A) covalent bonds between phosphate groups and sugar molecules.
B) hydrogen bonds between adenine and guanine.
C) covalent bonds between bases and sugar molecules.
D) hydrogen bonds between adjacent sugar molecules.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) The bases present in an RNA molecule are
A) C, T, A, and G.
B) U, A, C, and G.
C) G, C ,U, and T.
D) U, C, T, and A.
Q2) During RNA splicing
A) introns are removed from RNA, and the remaining exons are connected to form a mature mRNA.
B) an RNA molecule is cut up into many small pieces and each piece forms a single mRNA.
C) exons are removed from RNA and the remaining introns are fused to form a single mRNA.
D) RNA is used to remove mutations from essential genes.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a feature of the genetic code?
A) Every individual has a different genetic code.
B) Each codon in the genetic code specifies only one amino acid.
C) The genetic code is redundant.
D) The same genetic code can be applied to virtually every organism on Earth.
Q4) Most molecules of RNA are ________-stranded.
Q5) For translation to begin,mRNA must first bind to a ________.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: DNA Technology
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Q1) In the first step of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR),the two strands of the DNA being amplified must be separated by exposing the DNA to high ________.
Q2) In the X-SCID gene therapy trial in which some of the patients developed leukemia,the "good copy" of the gene probably inserted near a(n)________ gene.
A) short tandem repeat
B) immune system
C) housekeeping
D) tumor promoter
Q3) Bt-corn has been genetically engineered to express an insect-killing gene from the bacteria Bacillus thuringiensis.How does this genetically engineered corn benefit the environment?
A) It provides a food source for important pollinator insects.
B) It decreases the amount of land necessary to grow the world's corn requirements.
C) It increases the amount of insecticide that needs to be used on the crops.
D) It decreases the amount of insecticide that needs to be used on the crops.
Q4) Genetically modified organisms may contain proteins,DNA,and ________ from another organism.
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Chapter 14: How Evolution Works
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Q1) Any characteristic that improves an organism's reproductive success in its environment is called a(n)________.
Q2) Upon his return to England,Darwin realized that the species he had seen in the Galápagos Islands were distinctive to that locale.Which of the following statements best explains the uniqueness of the assemblage of species that Darwin observed?
A) Very little genetic drift was occurring, because the island populations were relatively large.
B) The islands were too remote for human occupancy; therefore, the habitat modification that humans introduce had not yet occurred.
C) No DNA mutation was occurring among the various island species.
D) Very little gene flow was occurring, because the islands were so distant from the mainland.
Q3) One of the consequences of ________ is a change in the proportions of one or more of the inherited characteristics found in the next generation,compared with the original population.
Q4) In ________ selection,success is related more to attracting a mate than to possessing adaptations that are beneficial for survival.
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Chapter 15: The Origin of Species
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Q1) A desert plant in North America and one in Africa both have similar spines that they did not inherit from a common ancestor.The spines are ________ to each other.
Q2) The fact that Neanderthal genes were found in the modern human genome suggests that these two species interbred at some point,creating human-Neanderthal
Q3) Speciation
A) can result from geographic isolation.
B) is directed.
C) occurs only in ring species.
D) reduces variation.
Q4) The distance needed for geographic isolation is
A) larger for a crow than it is for a snail.
B) smaller for a crow than it is for a snail.
C) the same for both a crow and a snail.
D) impossible to determine because bird species cannot be geographically isolated.
Q5) The offspring of two individuals of different species that interbreed are known as ________.
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17
Chapter 16: The Evolution of Biodiversity
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Q1) An asteroid can cause a mass extinction by creating a cloud that blocks out the sun for months or years after impact.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The first vertebrates to colonize land were ____________.
A) birds
B) mammals
C) amphibians
D) reptiles
Q3) The human and chimpanzee genomes are approximately 98% similar; thus,the 2% of genes that are different accounts for all of the differences between the two organisms.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is an example of a human atavistic trait?
A) humans born with tails
B) humans born with hairy pinnae
C) having a widow's peak
D) colorblindness
Q5) The earliest forms of life evolved and lived in ____________________.
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Chapter 17: Biological Diversity, Bacteria, and Archaea
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Q1) Some prokaryotes break down dead organisms and waste products to return the chemical elements back into the environment in a process called ________.
Q2) The status of viruses has been controversial,but most biologists now agree that the most appropriate description for a virus is a microscopic,________ infective particle.
Q3) The concept that includes all living things as well as the nonliving things they interact with is ________.
Q4) Frequently,antiviral drugs stop being effective against the influenza virus because A) the virus evolves quickly and can adapt to the presence of the drug.
B) the drugs have a very short shelf life and lose effectiveness quickly.
C) the virus learns to recognize the drug and warns other viruses about the drug's presence.
D) the virus starts to produce an endotoxin that destroys the drug.
Q5) Prokaryotes able to live in unusually cold conditions are ________.
Q6) Bacteria,protists,and fungi belong to the domain Archaea.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Bacteria trade small sections of plasmid DNA with one another during ________.
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Chapter 18: Protista, Plantae, and Fungi
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Q1) The most ancient eukaryotic fossils are similar to red algae,a type of ________abundant today.
A) fungi
B) bacteria
C) protist
D) plant
Q2) In nature,fungi function primarily as ________,getting their nutrition from dead and dying organisms.
Q3) The tendency toward sexual reproduction in the more complex eukaryotes suggests a greater number of benefits than asexual reproduction; one potential benefit could be A) greater genetic variability between parents and offspring.
B) an increase in the number of potential mates.
C) the speed of reproduction and the opportunistic colonization of newly located habitat.
D) the specialization of gender roles within the population.
Q4) The first plant group to evolve a vascular system was the ________.
Q5) Some protists can reproduce asexually after having located to favorable living conditions; the most commonly used methods are fragmentation,zoospores,budding,or
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Chapter 19: Animalia
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Q1) The evolution of the lung was a critical development in the adaptation of animals to a terrestrial lifestyle; the first vertebrates to breathe using a lung were the reptiles.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Following gastrulation,most animal embryos develop three embryonic tissue layers; the endoderm forms the ________ layer.
Q3) During the algal blooms called red tides,consumption of bivalves is discouraged and harvesting may be prohibited; what aspect of bivalve life history is responsible for this association?
A) Bivalves live along coastlines and are exposed to the same pollutants that cause red tides.
B) Red tides reduce the populations of bivalves below critical quantities needed by their natural predators.
C) Bivalves filter algae and detritus from the water, causing them to concentrate the algal toxins.
D) Bivalves are the natural bioremediators for red tides; harvesting them prolongs the bloom.
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Chapter 20: The Biosphere
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Q1) Many of the consumers in the benthic zone feed on dead organisms that drift down from the photic zone.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A ________ biome forms in a region with low precipitation,generally less than 25 cm/year.
Q3) The goal of the Ocean Sole project is to
A) bring awareness to endangered species.
B) prohibit ships from releasing waste into the ocean.
C) recycle marine pollution and generate public awareness of marine pollution.
D) generate funds for environmental education.
Q4) The plastics involved in marine pollution undergo ________in which ultraviolet light from the sun breaks the plastic into tiny pieces.
Q5) Relatively little precipitation falls on the side of a mountain that faces away from prevailing winds because of the ________ effect.
Q6) Chaparral and grasslands are examples of ________ that receive a moderate amount of rainfall.
Q7) The Earth's tropical areas are found at ________ latitudes than temperate areas.
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Q8) Introduced species that become serious pests are often called ________ species.
Chapter 21: Growth of Populations
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Q1) Which of the following populations would be most vulnerable to an outbreak of a communicable disease?
A) 10 grasshoppers living in an area of 100 square meters
B) 100 rabbits living in an area of 10,000 square meters
C) 200 sparrows living in an area of 20,000 square meters
D) 250,000 people living in an area of 100,000 square meters
Q2) Exponential growth curves are always linear since the population grows at a constant proportion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The carrying capacity of a habitat always remains the same.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When population size is high,the rate of deaths related to disease,starvation,predator,and accidents increases; because their rates vary with population size,these mortality factors are considered ________.
Q5) If there are 100 people living in a 2-square-kilometer area,the population density in people per square kilometer would be ________.
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Chapter 22: Animal Behavior
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Q1) An organism that exhibits ________ behavior helps other members of the group survive or reproduce while decreasing its own chances of doing so.
Q2) A worker ant that defends the colony and gives up the ability to reproduce is exhibiting an orientation behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In a polygamous relationship,the greatest parental investments are made by the male.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Lending a friend money when you do not have much money to spare is being
Q5) Which of the following choices is NOT a method of communication?
A) human language
B) learning
C) visual signals
D) scent marking
Q6) In a polygamous mating system,a male mates with a group of females called a ________.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Ecological Communities
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Q1) A praying mantis captures and devours many insects during its lifetime; the relationship between a mantis and the exploited species (for example,a grasshopper)is one of A) parasite/host.
B) pathogen/prey. C) parasite/prey. D) predator/prey.
Q2) Succession has a major impact on the species makeup of a community at any given point in time.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Due to competition,forms of competing species may evolve to become more different from each other over time.This change is known as character ________.
Q4) The bacteria in yogurt can colonize the human intestine and participate in a symbiotic relationship called ________.
Q5) Desertification,the transformation of dry grassland to a desert shrubland,can be natural or human caused; when humans are involved,the process is almost always associated with ________.
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Chapter 24: Ecosystems
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Q1) Ecosystems are closed systems.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In an ecosystem,the assemblage of living organisms constitutes the ________ component.
Q3) Other than the polar tundra,the LEAST productive biomes tend to be
A) deserts.
B) temperate forests.
C) tropical forests.
D) estuaries.
Q4) Coral reefs and swamps are among Earth's most productive ecosystems.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Rainfall with a low pH is called ________.
Q6) Which of the following groups of organisms would NOT be considered consumers?
A) herbivores
B) predators
C) photosynthesizers
D) decomposers
Q7) Urine can be a valuable resource for soil nutrients,especially ________.
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Chapter 25: Global Change
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Q1) Which of the following phenomena is NOT evidence of global warming?
A) During the last decade from 2001-2010, the highest temperatures in history have been recorded.
B) In Europe, bird and butterfly species have shifted their ranges northward.
C) The frequency of severe weather and the length of storm seasons have decreased.
D) Plants in northern latitudes have increased the length of their growing seasons.
Q2) Atmospheric carbon dioxide levels are increasing because
A) human agriculture has greatly increased the amount of carbon dioxide given off by plants during respiration.
B) human activities have begun to release carbon that was formerly sequestered in fossil fuels into the atmosphere.
C) holes in the ozone layer have reduced the total amount of photosynthesis occurring in the biosphere.
D) the huge growth of the human population and the domestic livestock population has increased the amount of carbon dioxide being released through respiration.
Q3) Humans are changing the way many chemicals ________ through ecosystems.
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