

Life Science Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Life Science is the study of living organisms and life processes, encompassing a broad range of topics including biology, ecology, genetics, physiology, and evolution. This course introduces students to fundamental concepts such as cell structure and function, the diversity of life forms, principles of heredity, and the interrelationships between organisms and their environments. Through a combination of lectures, laboratory activities, and experiential learning, students will gain an understanding of the scientific methods used to investigate living systems and their applications in health, medicine, agriculture, biotechnology, and environmental science.
Recommended Textbook
Discover Biology 6th Core Edition by Anu Singh
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25 Chapters
2110 Verified Questions
2110 Flashcards
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Page 2

Chapter 1: The Nature of Science and the Characteristics of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) All animals have the capacity to sense their environment and respond to it.Which of the following statements is an example of this process?
A) Humans can see better than any other animal.
B) Humans can hear better than any other animal.
C) Humans have a better sense of smell than any other animal.
D) Although humans are not the fastest or strongest animal, they have a set of sensory adaptations that are entirely compatible with human biology and environment.
Answer: D
Q2) A group of interbreeding organisms whose offspring are themselves fertile is defined as a
A) web.
B) biome.
C) unit.
D) species.
Answer: D
Q3) In the scientific method,observations are most often followed by ________ and then ________.
Answer: hypotheses; experiments
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The uncharged component in the core of an atom is a(n)________.
Answer: neutron
Q2) The smallest unit of a chemical element that displays the properties of that element is a(n)
A) amino acid.
B) molecule.
C) atom.
D) bond.
Answer: C
Q3) How many hydrogen atoms are in a molecule of C H N O ?
A) 8
B) 10
C) 20
D) 24
Answer: B
Q4) A monosaccharide is made up of several sugar molecules strung together.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Internal Compartments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Advancement in biology was hindered by the concept of spontaneous generation,the belief that nonliving objects could spontaneously come to life.What aspect of the cell theory specifically refutes this idea?
A) Every living organism is composed of one or more cells.
B) All living cells come from preexisting cells.
C) Cells are the smallest unit of life possible on Earth.
D) The components of a cell do not individually retain the distinctive characteristics of life.
Answer: B
Q2) A cell structure that pinches off from a membrane,encloses material,and then fuses with another membrane to release its contents at its destination is called a(n)________.
Answer: vesicle
Q3) Eukaryotic cells contain membrane-bound organelles.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The ________ found in eukaryotic cells have cristae. Answer: mitochondria
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Chapter 4: Cell Membranes, Transport, and Communication
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Q1) One of the major functions of the plasma membrane is to A) prevent the loss of proteins from mitochondria.
B) contract and give animals their ability to move.
C) control what enters and leaves a cell.
D) provide physical support to the nucleus.
Q2) Cells that experience high mechanical stress,like heart cells,typically connect to one another using a(n)________ junction,allowing the stress to be distributed to a larger area.
Q3) You observe a cell in a solution that swells until it bursts.What you have seen is an instance of osmosis in a(n)________ solution.
A) hypertonic
B) isotonic
C) hypotonic
D) exotonic
Q4) Animal cells are attached to neighboring cells by all of the following,EXCEPT A) anchoring junctions.
B) gap junctions.
C) tight junctions.
D) plasmodesmata.

Page 6
Q5) Water moves across a membrane from a hypotonic solution to a ________ solution.
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Page 7

Chapter 5: Energy, Metabolism, and Enzymes
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Q1) In many organelles,groups of different enzymes are located on membranes in close proximity to each other.Why?
A) Attaching enzymes to the membrane prevents the cell from losing them to the surrounding environment.
B) When enzymes are in close proximity, each one can catalyze more than one type of reaction.
C) These enzymes are involved in the same metabolic pathway; keeping them closer together increases the pathway's efficiency.
D) All enzymes must act in groups to sufficiently reduce the amount of activation energy needed for a reaction to occur.
Q2) Catabolic reactions are tightly coupled to reactions that require energy; those reactions are called ________ reactions.
Q3) In photosynthesis,the carbon used to make sugars is
A) provided by enzymes.
B) provided by carbon dioxide.
C) extracted from DNA.
D) oxidized.
Q4) The energy input needed to start a chemical reaction is called the ________.
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Chapter 6: Photo Synthesis and Cellular Respiration
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Sample Questions
Q1) The electron transport chains (ETCs)in the chloroplasts and the mitochondria gradually lower the energy content of an electron as it passes from carrier to carrier.This process is similar to the reduction in the energy content of a A) cannonball that reaches the high point of its flight and then returns to the ground. B) bowling ball bouncing down a flight of stairs and landing temporarily on each step. C) pair of sunglasses that intercepts ultraviolet radiation before it reaches our eyes. D) newly baked pie cooling on the counter before it can be cut and eaten.
Q2) All of the following elements can be found in the photosynthetic intermediary molecules that lead to the production of sugar; which element does NOT remain in the final product?
A) carbon
B) phosphorous
C) hydrogen
D) oxygen
Q3) The respiratory poison that shuts down ATP production by mitochondria and smells like bitter almonds is ________.
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Chapter 7: Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) During mitosis,the number and shape of an organism's chromosomes become obvious.This set of identifiable chromosomes can be arranged into a diagram of the organism; this diagram is known as a ________.
Q2) An unduplicated chromosome contains
A) two sister chromatids.
B) a single molecule of double-stranded DNA combined with a large number of proteins.
C) the cell's karyotype.
D) its own spindle poles.
Q3) One way to create genetic diversity is through the random distribution of chromosomes into daughter cells during the meiotic stage of ________.
Q4) Which of the following foods is most likely to contain a haploid cell or cells?
A) a sirloin steak
B) an apple
C) one or more chicken eggs
D) a stalk of celery
Q5) The events in meiosis I are almost identical to the events in mitosis.
A)True
B)False
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Page 10

Chapter 8: Cancer and Human Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tumor suppressor proteins ________ cell division.
A) activate
B) inhibit
C) catalyze
D) have no effect on
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of cell division?
A) A cell has no control over how often it divides.
B) Negative growth regulators are used to halt cell division.
C) Positive growth regulators stimulate cell division.
D) Uncontrolled cell division can cause cancer.
Q3) A disease that starts with a single cell that loses its ability to control cell division is ________.
Q4) A mutation that changes a gene,but not the protein product of that gene,will NOT cause cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A benign growth is noncancerous.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Genes that increase the rate of cell division are ________ growth regulators.
Page 11
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Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mutation that occurs in a diploid cell can be inherited only if the
A) mutated allele is recessive.
B) mutated allele is dominant.
C) mutation occurs in a cell that produces gametes.
D) same mutation also occurs on the homologous chromosome.
Q2) If the influence of two alleles is fully displayed in the heterozygote without being diminished by the presence of the other allele or being suppressed by a dominant allele,the two alleles are said to be ________.
Q3) Most human genetic traits are
A) controlled by one gene.
B) not inherited according to Mendel's laws.
C) controlled by more than one gene.
D) not heritable.
Q4) Which of the following statements is true?
A) Specific mutations occur because they are needed.
B) Mutations only occur during development.
C) All mutations are harmful.
D) Gametes fuse without regard to which mutations they carry.
Q5) Alternate versions of the same gene,such as blue or brown for eye color,are known as ________.
Page 12
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Chapter 10: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a recessive allele causes a fatal disease that kills the affected individual before he or she can reproduce,why doesn't that allele quickly become extinct in the population?
A) Alleles are never lost from a population.
B) The homozygous-dominant individuals protect the recessive allele in their genomes.
C) The recessive allele is carried in the genome of heterozygotes, who do not have the disease.
D) The homozygous-recessive individuals give their alleles to other individuals before they die from the disease.
Q2) The X and Y chromosomes are called sex chromosomes while the other chromosomes are called ________.
Q3) Because two genes are only very rarely separated from each other by crossing-over,it can be concluded that the two genes are
A) close to each other on the same chromosome.
B) far apart from each other on the same chromosome
C) on two different chromosomes.
D) on homologous chromosomes.
Q4) A female who is a carrier of the sex-linked gene A has the genotype ________.
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Chapter 11: DNA and Genes
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Sample Questions
Q1) A change in an organism's environment generally results in a change in ________,leading to the production of different types of proteins.
Q2) To start DNA replication,the bonds holding the strands together are broken,and the molecule begins to unwind.Which of the following statements best summarizes what happens next?
A) New strands are synthesized and paired with each other.
B) Each old strand acts as a template for a new strand.
C) Each old strand is broken down into nucleotides.
D) Transformation results in a new DNA molecule.
Q3) A segment of DNA is present in a gene,is transcribed,but is not used in translation.This segment of DNA is a(an)
A) intron.
B) transposon.
C) spacer DNA.
D) exon.
Q4) ________ DNA consists of stretches of nucleotides that separate genes.
Q5) A gene sequence is disrupted by a mobile segment of DNA such that the gene is no longer functional.The mobile segment of DNA is a ________.
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Chapter 12: From Gene to Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each tRNA molecule has a site at one end that ________ and a site at the other end that ________.
A) acts as a promoter; acts as a terminator
B) binds to a codon; binds to an anticodon
C) binds to an amino acid; binds to a promoter
D) binds to an amino acid; binds to a codon
Q2) The three-dimensional structure of the protein encoded by a single mRNA molecule varies,but whatever the shape,the overall function of that protein does not change.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The first amino acid in most proteins is methionine.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The bases present in an RNA molecule are
A) C, T, A, and G.
B) U, A, C, and G.
C) G, C ,U, and T.
D) U, C, T, and A.
Q5) Translation,a process carried out by the ribosomes,occurs in the cell ________.
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Chapter 13: DNA Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genetic engineering is a process in which specific sequences of ________ are deliberately isolated,modified,and inserted into a host organism.
Q2) To clone a recombinant plasmid,you would
A) insert the plasmid into a virus and inject the virus into a human cell.
B) allow bacteria to take up the plasmid and copy it many times.
C) mix the plasmid with restriction enzymes and nucleotides.
D) use ligase to fuse the ends of the plasmids together.
Q3) Human males continuously produce sperm and remain fertile throughout their lives; this ability is most likely the result of
A) conversion of testicular tissue into induced pluripotent stem cells.
B) differentiation of surplus cell types, such as red blood cells, into sperm.
C) the ability of adult stem cells in the testes to regenerate themselves throughout the life of a male.
D) totipotent cells in the testes constantly undergoing meiosis.
Q4) Stem cells that can generate all body cell types,including those in the birth sac,are described as ________.
Q5) Unipotent stem cells can generate all the cells of the organ of their origin.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: How Evolution Works
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about evolution is true?
A) It results only in the addition of traits to organisms.
B) It results only in the loss of traits from organisms.
C) It can result in the addition or loss of traits in organisms.
D) It has nothing to do with the addition or loss of traits.
Q2) The evolution of the horse from an animal with five toes to an animal with one toe demonstrates one of the common evolutionary themes-that organisms become less complex over time.
A)True
B)False
Q3) One frequently observed example of evolution is
A) a chameleon changing colors as it moves from a leaf of one color to a leaf of another color.
B) bacteria developing increased resistance to an antibiotic that is used to kill them.
C) chimpanzees learning sign language.
D) humans teaching dogs to obey certain commands.
Q4) Cliff swallows in southwestern Nebraska are experiencing a new natural selection pressure; the swallows that are less agile are more likely to be killed by ________.
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Page 17

Chapter 15: The Origin of Species
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Q1) Vertebrates are a group of related animals with a backbone.All vertebrates have basically the same eye structure.Therefore,the vertebrate eyes are
A) homologous structures.
B) vestigial structures.
C) analogous structures.
D) convergent structures.
Q2) Convergent evolution frequently occurs when two unrelated species
A) hybridize.
B) occupy different ecological niches.
C) have a predator-prey relationship.
D) live in similar habitats.
Q3) Organisms with homologous traits
A) have undergone convergent evolution.
B) evolved the traits independently of each other.
C) are not related.
D) have speciated from a common ancestor.
Q4) The death of zygotes produced by the mating of individuals of two different populations is an example of how ________ barriers can lead to reproductive isolation.
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Chapter 16: The Evolution of Biodiversity
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Q1) The similarities retained by two lineages because of their common ancestry are known as ________.
A) heterologous traits
B) homologous traits
C) homozygous traits
D) detritivorous characteristics
Q2) Which of the following are unique to mammals and the most recent common ancestor of mammals but lacking in nonmammals?
A) fur and teeth
B) fur and mammary glands
C) mammary glands and teeth
D) teeth and an opposable thumb
Q3) Evidence that the Cretaceous mass extinction was created by the impact of an asteroid is the existence,buried under sediments off the coast of Mexico,of a huge ____________________.
Q4) There is a class of genes that causes the development of structures in embryological development; such genes accomplish this task by controlling the expression of all other genes necessary for the growth of an embryological structure like the limb.Such genes are called ____________________ genes.
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Chapter 17: Biological Diversity, Bacteria, and Archaea
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Q1) A patient is suffering from paralysis caused by a Clostridium botulinum infection.The paralysis is caused by a(n)
A) endotoxin.
B) exotoxin.
C) virotoxin.
D) enterotoxin.
Q2) Dental hygienists carefully remove plaque,an aggregate of prokaryotic cells organized as a ________,from the surface of the teeth of their patients.
Q3) Which of the following pairs of kingdoms would be included exclusively in the domain Eukarya?
A) Plantae and Bacteria
B) Animalia and Archaea
C) Animalia and Fungi
D) Protista and Bacteria
Q4) Recent studies indicate that the microbial diversity within the human intestine changes frequently in most people.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The domain most similar to Eukarya is ________.
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Chapter 18: Protista, Plantae, and Fungi
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Q1) Although consuming high concentrations of caffeine may be toxic to many insects,consuming low concentrations may actually increase the rate that some pollinators return to those plant species.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Most of the cells of a multicellular eukaryote are genetically identical yet may eventually become specialized for specific tasks; how can these differences in cell function be explained?
A) Environmental gradients across the body of the organism model the cell in unique ways.
B) Each specialized cell uses sets of genes that are not expressed in other cells, thus constructing unique proteins that affect the function of the cell.
C) Cells of different organisms, each genetically distinct, must combine to produce multicellular assemblies.
D) Cells absorb differentiating substances from the environment that cause them to adapt new functions and appearances.
Q3) In nature,fungi function primarily as ________,getting their nutrition from dead and dying organisms.
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Chapter 19: Animalia
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Q1) The myriapods are a relatively small group of arthropods; its most common members are the ________ and ________.
Q2) Features such as a toothed jaw and a bony tail suggest that Archaeopteryx probably did not fly,possibly using its feathers for insulation or gliding instead of flight. A)True
B)False
Q3) Most gardeners are pleased to discover earthworms in their gardens because earthworms improve the soil when they
A) consume herbivorous grazers that would otherwise damage the garden plants.
B) improve soil aeration by burrowing from the surface into deeper soil layers.
C) die after mating and enrich the soil as their bodies decay.
D) burrow the pathways that the roots of garden plants follow to reach deeper nutrient-rich soil layers.
Q4) During cephalization,the structures that develop at the anterior margin of a bilateral animal are primarily associated with ________ and ________.
Q5) The mesoglea in a cnidarian is not considered a true tissue because it originates as a ________ rather than from cell division.
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Page 22

Chapter 20: The Biosphere
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Q1) Despite the absence of photosynthesis,the continuous settling of detritus makes the ________ zone of the coastal ocean a stable habitat.
Q2) With respect to productivity,why are aquatic biomes more influenced by terrestrial biomes than vice versa?
A) Terrestrial biomes cover more of Earth's surface than aquatic biomes do.
B) Terrestrial biomes are unaffected by climate and thus are more stable than aquatic biomes.
C) Aquatic biomes are low in nutrients and rely on nutritional input from nearby terrestrial biomes.
D) The ocean covers nearly 70 percent of the Earth's surface, but the latitudes where temperature and rainfall are best for photosynthesis are terrestrial.
Q3) Which of the following terms describes all organisms on Earth plus their environments?
A) biosphere
B) ecosystem
C) habitat
D) species
Q4) An ecosystem consists of both biotic (living)and ________ (nonliving)factors.
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Page 23
Chapter 21: Growth of Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Billions of people throughout the world currently consume insects and this number will likely increase if population growth trends continue upward.Consuming insects makes good sense for all of the following reasons EXCEPT
A) insects are highly nutritious with a protein content equal to conventional foods.
B) insects are abundant and typically have very high population growth rates.
C) insects can be grown, harvested, and processed with relatively little environmental impact.
D) consuming insects helps reduces their overall impact as pest organisms.
Q2) Exponential growth curves are always linear since the population grows at a constant proportion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The approximate number of humans on Earth in 2012 is 7 billion.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A relationship between birth rate and population density exists,for example,in the plantain weed Plantago major; as densities increase,birth rates ________.
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24

Chapter 22: Animal Behavior
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Q1) Lending a friend money when you do not have much money to spare is being
Q2) Some organisms do not actively raise their young.Other animals have a period during which the young are part of a family unit.Which of the following is the best description of the results of these two styles of behavior?
A) The absence or presence of parents has no effect on the type of behavior exhibited by their young.
B) The organisms that are part of a family unit will exhibit fewer behaviors than those that are not raised by parents.
C) The organisms that are not raised by their parents will rely more heavily on fixed behaviors when young.
D) The organisms that are not raised by their parents will rely more heavily on learned behaviors when young.
Q3) Genetic influences play a larger role in
A) fixed behaviors such as imprinting.
B) learned behaviors such as a dog fetching a stick.
C) fixed behaviors such as nest cleaning in honeybees.
D) learned behaviors such as cats covering their excretions.
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25

Chapter 23: Ecological Communities
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Q1) An animal eats fruit from a plant and later deposits seed in its feces far from the plant.This is an example of a
A) pollinator mutualism.
B) gut inhabitant mutualism.
C) behavioral mutualism.
D) seed dispersal mutualism.
Q2) The living corals in tropical reefs have a profound affect on the hundreds of species that live in association with the reef and one another,yet corals are not considered keystone species because
A) they are too abundant; keystone species always have a numerically low abundance.
B) they consume more energy as plankton than their photosynthetic components produce.
C) their affects are not dependent on the presence of living individuals; the reefs they build persist long after their death.
D) their total benefit is solely related to providing protection from predators for the small species that live there.
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Chapter 24: Ecosystems
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Q1) Most human-caused environmental damage can be successfully reversed and natural habitats can be reconstructed.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Biologists use the term ________ to refer to the weight of organisms per unit area.
Q3) To best use the Earth's NPP to feed the most people,diets should be modified to include ________,and gathering the maximum amount of energy available from a given biomass of producers.
A) only meat, moving higher up the food chain
B) only meat, moving lower down the food chain
C) plant material only, moving lower down the food chain
D) plant material only, moving higher up the food chain
Q4) Rainfall with a low pH is called ________.
Q5) A nutrient whose biogeochemical cycle does not include an atmospheric phase is said to have a(n)________ cycle.
Q6) Phosphorus is the only major nutrient with a sedimentary cycle.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Global Change
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Q1) Some northern species have shifted their habitats farther north in response to global warming.However,it is difficult for Arctic species to shift their habitats in response to rising temperatures because A) they are not as mobile as other species.
B) they have broader habitat tolerances.
C) they are more susceptible to UV radiation.
D) their habitat is shrinking.
Q2) The physical and biotic changes humans make to the land surface of Earth are collectively known as land ________.
Q3) The best hope for slowing Earth's rapid ecological changes is to decrease the ________ impact on the biosphere to a sustainable level.
Q4) Even without the melting of polar ice,global warming is causing sea levels to rise because warm water expands.
A)True
B)False
Q5) About 50 percent of the human population lives near ________ ecosystems.
Q6) Long-lived synthetic organic molecules that bioaccumulate in organisms are referred to as ________.
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