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Legal Studies is an interdisciplinary course that explores the foundations, principles, and functioning of legal systems within society. Students examine key concepts such as justice, rights, and responsibilities, as well as the structures of courts, legislatures, and law enforcement agencies. The course analyzes the role of law in shaping social order, addressing conflicts, and implementing public policy, while also considering historical, philosophical, and comparative perspectives. Through case studies and critical reading, students gain insight into various branches of law including constitutional, criminal, civil, and administrative law and develop skills in legal reasoning, research, and analysis essential for advanced legal study or related professions.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Law 4th Edition by Joanne B. Hames
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18 Chapters
356 Verified Questions
356 Flashcards
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Q1) Jurisprudence is
A) another term for precedent
B) another term for common law
C) the study of law
D) the study of the philosophy of law
Answer: D
Q2) Procedural laws are those laws that relate to the enforcement of substantive rights and duties.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Rules of court are generally substantive laws.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The term law refers exclusively to rules created and enforced by federal, state and local governments.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Courts of appeals in the various states decide many cases that never become stare decisis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The Statutes at Large
A) are a topical organization of statutory law
B) are a chronological organization of statutory law
C) is another name for code
D) are easily used by legal researchers
E) both b and c
Answer: D
Q3) The court resolves disputes by:
A) making new laws to meet the situation
B) asking the legislature to make a new law to meet the situation
C) applying existing constitutional, statutory, and case law to the situation
D) applying only existing case law or precedent to the situation
E) none of the above
Answer: C
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Q1) All state judges are appointed by the president, subject to approval by the Senate.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q2) District courts are courts of original jurisdiction.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The trier of fact is usually found in which court?
A) district court
B) court of appeals
C) Supreme Court
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Answer: A
Q4) The U.S. Court of Appeals is primarily a court of original jurisdiction.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
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Q1) Encyclopedias are a secondary source.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Information in a legal encyclopedia is arranged:
A) alphabetically
B) chronologically
C) numerically
D) randomly
E) none of the above
Q3) Stare decisis means:
A) case law
B) reporter
C) similarities
D) precedent
E) review
Q4) Primary sources include case law, statutes, constitutions, and dictionaries.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A case brief compares a client's facts with facts of a reported case.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The process of comparing or aligning the facts of a client's case with the elements of a statute is one element of legal analysis
A)True
B)False
Q3) A case brief is an example of persuasive writing. Multiple Choice
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which element of a case brief is the most important?
A) rules B) analysis C) facts D) issues E) conclusions
Q5) A legal memorandum compares a client's facts with facts of a reported case. A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which right is not protected by the First Amendment?
A) freedom of religion
B) freedom of press
C) freedom of assembly
D) freedom from unreasonable searches
Q2) The Incorporation Doctrine
A) is another phrase for checks and balances
B) refers to the application of the Bill of Rights to the states
C) is derived from an interpretation of the 14th Amendment
D) both b and c
Q3) As originally drafted, the U.S. Constitution consisted of
A) seven articles
B) seven articles and the bill of rights
C) only a preamble
D) seven articles and twenty-seven amendments
Q4) The most important amendment in the development of civil rights legislation limiting discrimination by the states is the 14th Amendment.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Filing an unjustified criminal complaint against an individual leads to the tort of:
A) negligence
B) civil-rights violation
C) malicious prosecution
D) slander per se
E) fraud
Q2) Res ipsa loquitur means
A) breach of duty
B) causation
C) the things speaks for itself
D) it is proven
E) reasonably prudent person
Q3) Which of the following is not a type of negligence action?
A) liability of landowners
B) automobile accidents
C) professional negligence
D) intentional infliction of emotional distress
E) defective products
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Q1) An annulment proceeding is used to obtain a court declaration that:
A) the marriage is over
B) a legal separation has begun
C) no legal marriage ever existed
D) the marriage is voidable
E) the marriage was illegal
Q2) A legal separation asks the court to grant the parties
A) something short of a final termination of the marital contract
B) a nullity
C) an annulment
D) a dissolution
E) spousal support
Q3) Family law deals with legal issues that affect personal relationships.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Not all family law matters concern married persons.
Multiple Choice
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Probate is the court-supervised process that takes places after a person dies.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Wills need not be drafted by attorneys.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A specific bequest is:
A) money
B) real property
C) a specific devise
D) a gift of specific property
E) demonstrative legacy
Q4) A gift by will of specific real property is known as a
A) bequest
B) devise
C) general legacy
D) demonstrative legacy
E) testimonium clause
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Q1) In contract law, the person who makes an offer is the offeree.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A bilateral contract is one in which both parties have made promises to perform.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The parole evidence rule limits the types of evidence that be used to prove terms of an agreement
A)True
B)False
Q4) The key feature of joint tenancy is a right of survivorship.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A contract entered into by a minor
A) is usually void
B) is usually voidable
C) is usually enforceable against the minor
D) becomes enforceable if not rescinded within 60 days
E) none of the above
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Q1) In a partnership, each of the partners is liable to third parties for debts of the partnership in proportion to his or her ownership interest in the partnership.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A limited liability company the individuals who own the company are generally not personally liable for the company debts.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A limited partnership must have at least one general partner.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The owners of a corporation are known as:
A) officers
B) shareholders
C) directors
D) members
E) none of the above
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Q1) Motions generally require court hearings.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If a defendant makes a claim against a co-defendant in federal court, it is known as a:
A) counterclaim
B) cross-claim
C) third party action
D) cross complaint
E) demurrer
Q3) Discovery involves the use of:
A) interrogatories
B) depositions
C) requests for medical examinations
D) requests to produce or inspect
E) all of the above
Q4) Lack of proper venue renders any judgment void.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) To stay a proceeding means to delay or stop the proceeding.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ADR proceeding involving an out-of-court hearing before a neutral party who listens to two or more disputing parties and renders a decision resolving the dispute is known as
A) arbitration
B) mediation
C) negotiation
D) mini-trial
E) early neutral evaluation
Q3) If parties use any form of ADR they give up their right to trial.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is generally not a type of court-related ADR?
A) early neutral evaluation
B) binding arbitration
C) nonbinding arbitration
D) summary trial
E) none of the above; they are all common types of court-related ADR
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Q1) The Model Penal Code is:
A) a set of uniform laws for all federal criminal cases
B) a collection of criminal statutes
C) a uniform collection of criminal laws followed by all states
D) a uniform collection of criminal laws followed by the federal courts
E) a and b
Q2) The presumption</KT><SIDEIND NUM="3" ID="MN1.14.003"/> that the defendant is innocent until proven guilty is :
A) not really based on the Constitution
B) a rebuttal presumption
C) a conclusive presumption
D) not applicable in felony cases
E) none of the above
Q3) A rebuttable presumption means that the presumption may be disproved by the facts.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A battery is the reckless or intentional injuring of a person.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The Fourth Amendment prohibits unreasonable searches and seizures.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An interrogation is:
A) a questioning process done while the defendant's attorney is present
B) a questioning process conducted by the court at the arraignment
C) when an officer questions a person he or she believes to have committed a crime
D) when a judge questions a person believed to have committed a crime
E) none of the above
Q3) Before a warrant may be issued under the Fourth Amendment, probable cause must be established.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What must be established before a warrant may be issued?
A) guilt
B) witnesses exist
C) evidence exists
D) an informant exists
E) probable cause
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Q1) There are two basic types of evidence.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Circumstantial evidence is a form of evidence that is:
A) non-hearsay
B) indirect
C) a logical conclusion
D) a and b
E) all of the above
Q3) To impeach a witness means
A) to strike all his testimony
B) to remove him from the witness box
C) to hold him in contempt
D) to call into question his credibility
E) nonel of the above
Q4) Actual evidence might include the weapon used in a crime.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A motion for summary judgment requests that the judge decide the case on the legal issues without consideration of the factual issues.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Jury questionnaires may contain questions on
A) age
B) race
C) employment
D) education
E) all of the above
Q3) If it appears that there is a bias or other legitimate reason that a person cannot sit as a juror
A) that person will be excused for cause
B) that person will be excused with a peremptory challenge
C) the judge will ask the potential juror to leave the courtroom
D) the attorneys will discuss the person and make a recommendation to the court
E) a and b
Q4) A trial will always involve a jury.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) What was the legal issue in the case?
Q2) What was the jury verdict in the retrial of Gideon?
Q3) What is the name of the attorney who represented Briggs?
Q4) Give a brief factual description of what led to this lawsuit.
Q5) Which Constitutional Amendment formed the basis for this Court's decision?
Q6) What did the judge rule regarding Gideon's motion for change of venue?
Q7) Was Briggs the plaintiff or the defendant?
Q8) Why did the Court rule the way that it did?
Q9) Which Constitutional Amendment or Amendments were involved in this case?
Q10) Why did Gideon think that a retrial after the Supreme Court decision was illegal?
Q11) Who wrote the Court's opinion in this matter?
Q12) What was the name of the chief witness against Gideon at the trial?
Q13) Who represented Gideon at the first trial?
Q14) Did Abe Fortas think traffic offenders should be entitled to court-appointed counsel?
Q15) What was the name of the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court when this case was decided? Page 20
Q16) How did Abe Fortas come to represent Gideon?
Q17) What was the offense with which Gideon was originally charged with?
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