Legal and Ethical Issues in Psychology Exam
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Course Introduction
This course examines the fundamental legal and ethical considerations that guide psychological practice and research. Topics include confidentiality, informed consent, professional boundaries, dual relationships, and the handling of ethical dilemmas in diverse settings. The course also covers laws and regulations governing psychological assessment, therapy, and mandatory reporting, with a focus on professional codes of ethics such as those provided by the American Psychological Association. Students will analyze real-world case studies and learn strategies for ethical decision-making, preparing them to navigate complex scenarios with responsibility and integrity in various psychological contexts.
Recommended Textbook
Forensic and Legal Psychology Psychological Science Applied to Law 2nd Edition by Mark Costanzo
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Chapter 1: Section 1: Psychology and Law: a Cautious Alliance
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Q1) Compare and contrast the approaches of psychology and law. Which system is more open to change?
Answer: Main points:
Psychology and law represent two different cultures. They differ in goals (truth vs. justice), methods (data vs. rulings), and styles of inquiry (objectivity vs. advocacy).
Psychology as a science is based on relativism (of knowledge and theories).
Law as a system is rooted in the past (rulings, precedents).
Psychology is more egalitarian, law is a more hierarchical system.
Psychology is more open to change since science implies skepticism and new discoveries while law abides by past decisions (precedents).
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Chapter 1: Section 2: Psychology and Law: a Cautious Alliance
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Q1) For a reasonable evaluation of scientific validity of potential expert testimony, one needs to have sufficient understanding of:
A) court proceedings.
B) jury instructions.
C) research methods.
D) legal terminology.
Answer: C
Q2) Trial consultants may be hired to perform the following duties:
A) preparing witnesses and shaping trial strategy.
B) citing law and writing abbreviated briefs.
C) performing psychological evaluations and risk assessment
D) conducting research and advocating for reform
Answer: A
Q3) The basis of the adversarial system in law is that:
A) the prosecution depends on the adverse nature of the case.
B) truth will emerge as a result of contest between opposing sides.
C) the defense depends on eyewitness testimony only.
D) the truth always prevails.
Answer: B
Page 4
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Chapter 1: Section 3: Psychology and Law: a Cautious Alliance
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Q1) Muller v. Oregon (1908) and Brown v. Board of Education (1954) are considered landmark cases in the history of forensic psychology because they:
A) clarified the role of psychologists testifying as experts.
B) allowed psychologists to testify on insanity defense.
C) allowed women to get mandatory high school education.
D) signified the use of social science research in court rulings.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following scientists did NOT play a prominent role in the history of forensic psychology?
A) Sigmund Freud
B) Alfred Adler
C) Hugo Münsterberg
D) Karl Llewellyn
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Section 1: Interrogations and Confessions
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Q1) Describe some common types of false confessions, reasons behind them, and police tactics that lead to a higher incidence of false confessions.
Q2) What has been the U.S. Supreme Court's position on the use of deception by police during interrogations? How does the use of this technique compare with the use of deception during interrogations in other countries, such as England and Wales? What are some worrisome moral implications of the use of deception by police during interrogations?
Q3) What are some possible reforms that can be implemented in police interrogation procedures to reduce the risk of false confessions?
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Chapter 2: Section 2: Interrogations and Confessions
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Q1) Daniela was _____and she waived her Miranda rights during arrest, and decided to tell the police her side of the story without waiting for an attorney. The most likely reason she did that is because she has _____.
A) innocent; nothing to hide
B) guilty; something to hide
C) guilty; no reason to worry
D) afraid; no reason to worry
Q2) Jeremy purposely confessed to a crime he did not commit to cover for his wife. This type of confession is referred to as an:
A) instrumental-coerced confession.
B) instrumental-voluntary confession.
C) authentic-coerced confession.
D) authentic-voluntary confession.
Q3) All of the following traits can be defined as vulnerability to making a false confession, EXCEPT:
A) youth.
B) mental illness.
C) low intelligence.
D) high aggression.
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Chapter 2: Section 3: Interrogations and Confessions
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Q1) All of the following are valid reasons for police to prefer confessions to other types of evidence. The only EXCEPTION is that:
A) confessions make gathering other evidence less critical.
B) juries almost always convict defendants who have confessed to committing a crime.
C) confessions mean the person is guilty of the crime they confessed to committing.
D) lengthy trials can be avoided because a confession is likely to lead to a plea deal.
Q2) According to researchers, the most significant individual vulnerability in cases involving false confessions is:
A) mental illness.
B) youth.
C) old age.
D) physical disability.
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Chapter 3: Section 1: Lie Detection
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Q1) Compare and contrast the relevant-irrelevant test (RIT), the comparison question test (CQT), and the guilty knowledge test (GKT).
Q2) Discuss the limitations of fMRI studies in the detection of deception.
Q3) Discuss the scientific validity of the polygraph.
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Chapter 3: Section 2: Lie Detection
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Q1) According to a study conducted by Honts, Raskin, and Kircher (1994), the use of countermeasures _____ the detection of guilty suspects by 50%, and the examiners _____ able to tell that the suspects were manipulating their own arousal patterns. A) reduced; were not.
B) increased; were C) reduced; were D) increased; were not
Q2) Marissa is being polygraphed using the guilty knowledge test (GKT). This test focuses on whether Marissa:
A) knows facts that one would expect that only the criminal would know.
B) understands facts that were published about the crime in the media.
C) is willing to share information that is uncomfortable for most people to share. D) remains unwilling to be tested, which amounts to her admission of guilt.
Q3) According to the text, the level of accuracy of polygraph techniques is:
A) well above 90%.
B) between 60% and 90%.
C) between 30% and 60%.
D) below 30%.
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Chapter 3: Section 3: Lie Detection
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Q1) Bond and DePaulo (2006) analyzed the results from 384 studies that tested the lie-detecting ability of more than 24,000 people and found that:
A) most people can rather accurately guess whether they are told the truth or a lie.
B) the accuracy rate of most people is barely above the 50% guessing level.
C) about 50% of people are especially clairvoyant and able to discern truths from lies.
D) training people can substantially increase their lie-detecting ability.
Q2) The theory behind the polygraph test is based on the assumption that:
A) the act of lying will cause increased brain activity.
B) telling the truth will cause increased gastrointestinal activity.
C) the act of lying will cause physiological arousal.
D) telling the truth will cause a decrease in neural impulse activity.
Q3) The 1993 U.S. Supreme Court decision in Daubert v. Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals:
A) ruled the polygraph inadmissible in all federal cases.
B) ruled the polygraph admissible in all federal cases.
C) ruled that polygraph admissibility could be determined on a case-by-case basis.
D) refused to hear arguments on the admissibility of the polygraph all together.
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Q1) What type of influence do the CSI TV dramas have on jurors?
Q2) How does reliability differ from validity? Use examples to illustrate both.
Q3) How can error rate be reduced in forensic investigations?
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Chapter 4: Section 2: The Psychology of Forensic
Identification: Dna, Fingerprints, and Physical Trace
Evidence
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Q1) Research noted in the text reveals that jurors:
A) have difficulty interpreting statistical statements.
B) understand statistical information reasonably well.
C) rely on qualitative results only.
D) rely on quantitative results only.
Q2) The tendency to seek out information that supports our beliefs is known as:
A) expected outcome.
B) integration of thought.
C) confirmation bias.
D) attribution error.
Q3) If the imprint came from an Adidas sneaker, it reflects _____; when the imprint has a unique pattern of wear and tear, it reflects _____.
A) individual characteristics; group characteristics
B) group characteristics; individual characteristics
C) a particular source; an origin source
D) an origin source; a particular source
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Chapter 4: Section 3: The Psychology of Forensic
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Q1) In which of the following conditions would an analyst not know he or she is being tested?
A) Single blind.
B) Double blind.
C) Triple blind.
D) Experimental.
Q2) Features of fingerprints are referred to as _____, and the prints found at the scene of a crime are called _____.
A) whorls; finite loops
B) loops; friction ridges
C) minutiae; latent prints
D) ridges; hidden metrics
Q3) The degree to which two or more observers or analysts independently arrive at the same measurement result is called:
A) inter-rater validity.
B) match reliability.
C) test-retest reliability.
D) inter-rater reliability.
Page 14
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Chapter 5: Section 1: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies
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Q1) What is the purpose of a psychological autopsy and when would it be used?
Q2) How is profiling used in criminal investigations? Is it effective?
Q3) Compare and contrast criminal profiling, geographic profiling, and behavioral investigative advice (BIA).
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Chapter 5: Section 2: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies
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Q1) According to the text, some persistent problems with profiling include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) no educational requirements for profilers.
B) no peer review of profiling techniques.
C) high frequency of the use of profiling.
D) lack of substantial research evidence of the validity of profiling.
Q2) According to the text, the courts have been reluctant to allow expert testimony based on psychological autopsies. However, that is NOT the case in:
A) Jackson v. State of Florida (1989).
B) Sysyn v. State (2000).
C) Brown v. Board of Education (1954).
D) Daubert v. Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals (1993).
Q3) According to the text, profiling is regarded as a(n) _____ technique.
A) unvalidated
B) validated
C) research
D) biometrical
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Chapter 5: Section 3: Criminal Profiling and Psychological Autopsies
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Q1) Which of the following types of serial killers is most likely to be psychotic, as hypothesized by Holmes and Holmes (2010)?
A) Hedonistic
B) Power-oriented
C) Mission-oriented
D) Visionary
Q2) Studies found that profilers were _____ than other people at guessing some characteristics of murder perpetrators. The overall accuracy rates of their profiles were _____.
A) slightly better; pretty low
B) slightly better; pretty high
C) less accurate; still high
D) significantly better; amazingly high
Q3) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of an organized murderer as hypothesized by the organized/disorganized distinction?
A) Average or above average intelligence.
B) Sexually incompetent.
C) Controlled mood during crime.
D) Geographic mobility.
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Chapter 6: Section 1: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing
Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults
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Q1) Explain how the role of money in trial consulting may affect trial outcomes. Are there any possible solutions to the problems you have identified?
Q2) Explain the voir dire process.
Q3) How effective is scientific jury selection?
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Chapter 6: Section 2: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing
Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults
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Q1) The lists used by jury commissioners to summon people for jury duty often underrepresent all of the following categories of people, EXCEPT:
A) minorities.
B) poor people.
C) elderly people.
D) people who recently turned 18.
Q2) If a potential juror is asked to be removed without explanations as to why he or she is unlikely to be able to deliver an impartial verdict, this type of removal is referred to as:
A) a peremptory challenge.
B) a challenge for bias.
C) a challenge for cause.
D) a predisposition challenge.
Q3) Law does not set a limit to the number of _____ though they have to be approved by the judge, and judges _____.
A) peremptory challenges; do not have unlimited patience
B) peremptory challenges; have unlimited patience
C) challenges for cause; have limited patience
D) challenges for cause; have unlimited patience
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Chapter 6: Section 3: Child Sexual Abuse: Interviewing
Children and the Recovered Memories of Adults
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Q1) In civil cases, the standard of proof for being held liable is _____, while in criminal cases, it is _____.
A) beyond a reasonable doubt; clear and convincing evidence
B) clear and convincing evidence; preponderance of the evidence
C) preponderance of the evidence; beyond a reasonable doubt
D) reasonable person standard; clear and convincing evidence
Q2) Iris works as a trial consultant. The majority of cases she is likely to be hired for are:
A) criminal trials.
B) civil trials.
C) capital trials.
D) cases involving the government.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the broad personality tendencies associated with jury verdicts, mentioned in Chapter 6?
A) locus of control
B) extraversion
C) authoritarianism
D) belief in a just world
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Chapter 7: Section 1: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony
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Q1) How does human memory operate? How is it different from a video recording? If people are sure they remember the situation well, does it mean their memories are more accurate than memories of those who are not as sure?
Q2) Describe three research findings regarding improving eyewitness accuracy.
Q3) Describe the post-identification feedback effect and give an example. What is the role of cognitive dissonance in this process?
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Chapter 7: Section 2: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony
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Q1) According to the text, the cross-race effect is present in babies as young as:
A) 6 months.
B) 9 months.
C) 12 months.
D) 18 months.
Q2) When describing memory, _____ is the first component required in the process necessary for retention.
A) storage
B) retrieval
C) top-down processing
D) encoding
Q3) As described in the text, techniques for refreshing witness memories include:
A) hypnosis and cognitive interview.
B) hypnosis and hypnotic hypernesia.
C) lineups and photo spreads.
D) lineups and meta-analysis.
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Chapter 7: Section 3: Eyewitness Identification and Testimony
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Q1) Which one of the following Manson criteria CONTRADICTS research findings?
A) The witness's level of attention.
B) The amount of time between witnessing the crime and making the identification.
C) The degree of certainty asserted by the witness.
D) The witness's opportunity to view the perpetrator.
Q2) Research findings indicate that there are several drawbacks to using hypnosis in forensic settings. Which of the following statements about the use of hypnosis is INCORRECT?
A) People remember less but what they do recall under hypnosis is more accurate.
B) Hypnosis can elicit false memories.
C) The effects of suggestive questioning are amplified under hypnosis.
D) After hypnosis, eyewitnesses are more confident about what they remember.
Q3) To improve eyewitness accuracy, social scientists can assist the legal system in improving _____ variables.
A) dependent
B) system
C) predictor
D) estimator
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Chapter 8: Section 1: Competency to Stand Trial
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Q1) Explain what is malingering and why some defendants might be compelled to resort to it. Would it be in their best interests? Why or why not?
Q2) What does research show about the competencies of children and adolescents? Should there be specific requirements for competency to stand trial for juveniles as different from the ones for adults?
Q3) Explain why competency to stand trial (CST) is a legal and not a psychological term. What are the key elements of CST?
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Chapter 8: Section 2: Competency to Stand Trial
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Q1) An advantage of performing competency evaluations on an inpatient basis is that additional information can be gathered:
A) by the psychiatrist.
B) from third parties.
C) from family members.
D) by the attorney through interviewing the defendant safely.
Q2) If restoration to competence cannot be accomplished, proceedings may be held to issue a(n):
A) voluntary civil commitment.
B) involuntary criminal commitment.
C) voluntary criminal commitment.
D) involuntary civil commitment.
Q3) When performing competency evaluations within an institution, collateral sources of information can be gathered regarding the defendant's behavior. Some of the individuals that might be able to provide this additional information include:
A) prison guards, nurses, and mental health professionals.
B) prison guards, sisters, and the minister.
C) nurses, ministers, and siblings.
D) mental health professionals, prison guards, and family members.
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Chapter 8: Section 3: Competency to Stand Trial
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Q1) In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court limit the period of confinement to the time necessary to determine if the defendant could be returned to competence in the foreseeable future?
A) Jackson v. Indiana (1972).
B) Washington v. Harper (1990).
C) Sell v. United States (2003).
D) Ford v. Wainwright (1986).
Q2) Which one of the following forensic assessment instruments (FAIs) is considered to be a gold standard for determining competency to stand trial?
A) The Competency Screening Test.
B) The Fitness Interview Test-Revised.
C) The MacArthur Judgment Evaluation Tool.
D) No test or combination of tests can assess CST with certainty.
Q3) CST refers to several types of functions a defendant should be able to perform. Which of the following is NOT one of these functions?
A) Understanding the charges against you.
B) Acting appropriately during the trial.
C) Ability to trust your prosecutor.
D) Ability to trust and communicate with your defense counsel.
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Page 26
Chapter 9: Section 1: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure
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Q1) What major changes were instituted to the insanity defense after the trial of John Hinckley?
Q2) Why is it difficult to evaluate insanity? What factors make it different from the evaluation of competency to stand trial?
Q3) How do jurors view the insanity defense?
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Chapter 9: Section 2: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure
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Q1) The M'Naghten rule lists three components to be used as a defense in criminal cases. One of the components is that at the moment of the crime, the accused must have:
A) been laboring under a defect of reason.
B) had an irresistible impulse.
C) been possessed by a demon.
D) been unable to exercise self-control.
Q2) On several occasions, Andrea Yates tried to kill _____, and still the jury at her first trial found her _____.
A) her children; not guilty
B) herself; guilty
C) her husband; not guilty
D) her parents; not guilty
Q3) According to the text, the _____ is when the impulse is so overwhelming that the criminal would have committed the act even if a police officer stood beside the criminal at the time of the crime.
A) affirmative defense
B) the policeman at the elbow test
C) the policeman at the corner test
D) the "wild beast" test
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Chapter 9: Section 3: Jury Selection and Trial Procedure
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Q1) Andrea Yates was diagnosed with:
A) schizophrenia.
B) dissociative identity disorder.
C) postpartum mental illness.
D) bipolar disorder.
Q2) Which definition of insanity includes both a cognitive prong and a volitional prong?
A) Durham test
B) "wild beast" test
C) M'Naghten rule
D) ALI standard
Q3) What definition of insanity is used in most states currently?
A) the Durham test.
B) the ALI standard.
C) the M'Naghten rule.
D) the "wild beast" test.
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Chapter 10: Section 1: The Insanity Defense
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Q1) What are the disadvantages of using PTSD over RTS and BWS in court?
Q2) What are the advantages of using PTSD over RTS and BWS in court?
Q3) What are rape shield laws and when do they not apply in court? Can expert testimony be problematic in this regard?
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Chapter 10: Section 2: The Insanity Defense
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Q1) Several factors need to be considered in legal settings to understand how the dynamics of violence works and why battered women stay with their abusers. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
A) How charming and charismatic was the abuser?
B) How much support did the victim receive from family and friends?
C) Did the victim make previous efforts to leave and what happened then?
D) Is the victim economically dependent on her abuser?
Q2) Judges often refuse to allow experts present information about RTS to the jury. All of the following would be typical reasons for such a decision on the part of a judge EXCEPT:
A) RTS testimony biases the jury against the defendant.
B) RTS testimony may lead to more invasive questioning of the victim.
C) Possible prejudicial impact of RTS testimony.
D) RTS testimony may improperly bias the jury against the victim.
Q3) According to the text, men in intimate relationships are _____ the victims of physical assault.
A) never
B) sometimes
C) often
D) as frequently as women become
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Chapter 10: Section 3: The Insanity Defense
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Q1) According to responses to the National Crime Victimization Survey, intimate partner violence has been _____ in the last 15 to 20 years.
A) increasing
B) staying the same
C) decreasing
D) fluctuating (going up and down)
Q2) Ibn-Tamas v. United States (1979) was one of the first cases in which:
A) expert testimony was offered on rape trauma syndrome (RTS).
B) expert testimony was offered on battered woman syndrome (BWS).
C) a battered woman was acquitted for killing her husband.
D) expert testimony was offered on posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD).
Q3) Which of the following is NOT commonly associated with rape trauma syndrome?
A) Depression.
B) Anxiety.
C) Self-blame.
D) Impulsivity.
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Chapter 11: Section 1: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape
Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
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Q1) Which allegations of recovered memories should be suspect?
Q2) Should anatomically detailed dolls be admissible in court? Why or why not?
Q3) How are child witnesses perceived by jurors? What kind of measures do the courts take to protect child witnesses?
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Chapter 11: Section 2: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape
Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
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Q1) Aisha has been going through an emotionally tough time after the separation from her long-term partner, and her psychotherapist suggested some hypnotic sessions. During these sessions, Aisha has started vaguely recalling being fondled by her father as a baby while he was giving her baths. Memories of this type are referred to as:
A) unconscious memories.
B) regressed memories.
C) recovered memories.
D) unknown memories.
Q2) The repression hypothesis posits that traumatic memories can be maintained in the _____ for years.
A) postconscious
B) preconscious
C) consciousness
D) unconscious
Q3) Suggestive questions can best be described as _____ leading questions _____.
A) excluding; not volunteered by the child.
B) including; not volunteered by the child.
C) excluding; that were unsolicited.
D) including; that were solicited.
Page 34
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Chapter 11: Section 3: Battered Woman Syndrome, Rape
Trauma Syndrome, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
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Q1) In sexual abuse cases, jurors are more likely to believe _____ because younger children _____.
A) younger children than adolescents; are less likely to lie or make things up
B) younger children than adolescents; seem unsophisticated about sexual matters
C) adolescents than younger children; tend to easily mix reality and fantasy
D) adolescents than younger children; could have been easily misled by adults
Q2) Substantial research now shows that the interviewers in many of the preschool cases ____, and this made the interviewers question children more _____ to confirm their preexisting suspicions.
A) strongly believed that children were sexually abused; coercively
B) strongly believed that children were sexually abused; gently
C) did not believe that children were sexually abused; gently
D) did not believe that children were sexually abused; coercively
Q3) All of the following are the reasons for underreporting of child sexual abuse EXCEPT:
A) very young children may not be able to talk and explain what happened.
B) young children may not interpret what's happening as sexual abuse.
C) children's allegations of sexual abuse are not taken seriously.
D) children may fear retaliation of the abuser.
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Q1) How does legal custody differ from physical custody? Which custody arrangement are common and which are not?
Q2) How do the best interest of the child standard (BICS) and the tender years doctrine differ?
Q3) What are the advantages of mediation over litigation? Who is more likely to seek litigation?
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Chapter 12: Section 2: Juries and Judges As Decision
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Q1) Shared legal custody is also known as:
A) physical custody.
B) child custody.
C) joint legal custody.
D) parental competence.
Q2) The goal of the approximation rule is to:
A) maintain as much stability for the child as possible.
B) make sure the right parent has custody.
C) keep the preferred custody arrangement set in place by the court previously.
D) uphold judicial rights in determining custody.
Q3) One problem with the BICS is that it can:
A) reduce conflict between the judge and the parents.
B) escalate conflicts between parents.
C) adequately predict the future.
D) promote healthy development in children.
Q4) A projective test measures an individual's response to:
A) well-defined stimuli.
B) objective material.
C) ambiguous stimuli.
D) an interview.
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Chapter 12: Section 3 Juries and Judges As Decision Makers
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Q1) Which response style is more common in child custody evaluations?
A) Faking good.
B) Acquiescence.
C) Malingering.
D) Learned helplessness.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true about mediation?
A) It leads to custody agreements more quickly.
B) It is conducted in a non-adversarial setting.
C) It is more costly than litigation.
D) It is faster than litigation.
Q3) A majority of children whose parents divorce:
A) show serious adjustment problems throughout life.
B) manage to adapt and to grow into psychologically healthy adults.
C) show externalizing problems throughout life.
D) have difficulty in forming relationships throughout life.
Q4) The case of Painter v. Bannister (1966) illustrates:
A) the doctrine Pater familias.
B) the wide discretion the courts have in awarding custody.
C) the tender years doctrine.
D) the reasonable parent standard.
Page 38
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Chapter 13: Section 1: Child Custody Disputes
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Q1) How does inadmissible evidence influence juror decision making?
Q2) What kind of reforms would you suggest to improve the jury trial process?
Q3) How does the mathematical model of jury decision making differ from the story model of jury decision making?
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Chapter 13: Section 2: Child Custody Disputes
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Q1) When jurors change their minds through the compelling arguments of other jurors, this phenomenon is also referred to as:
A) open conflict.
B) informational influence.
C) normative influence.
D) leniency bias.
Q2) _____ occurs when group pressure results in holdout jurors changing their votes.
A) Open conflict
B) Informational influence
C) Normative influence
D) Reactance influence
Q3) Jurors that create a causal chain of events are said to be utilizing the _____ of decision making.
A) story model
B) mental meter model
C) mathematical model
D) bias model
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Chapter 13: Section 3: Child Custody Disputes
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a factor likely to lead to a hung jury?
A) Unanimous decision rules.
B) Ambiguity of evidence.
C) Length of trial.
D) Attorney skills.
Q2) For centuries, English law dictated that a jury should have _____ people. In the United States, the minimum constitutionally allowed number of jurors is _____.
A) 12; 6
B) 8; 12
C) 8; 6
D) 6; 12
Q3) In which of the following conditions would a defendant be judged more harshly?
A) When the defendant is badly injured during the commission of a crime.
B) When the moral character of the defendant is superior to that of the victim.
C) When the defendant uses his or her attractiveness to commit a crime.
D) When the defendant is the same race as a juror.
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Chapter 14: Section 1: Workplace Law: Harassment, Discrimination, and Fairness
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Q1) What criteria must an individual meet to be involuntarily civilly committed? Do these criteria differ for sexually violent predators?
Q2) What are the ethical issues involved in risk assessment?
Q3) How does clinical risk assessment differ from actuarial risk assessment?
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Chapter 14: Section 2: Workplace Law: Harassment, Discrimination, and Fairness
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Q1) There are two aspects of the sexually violent predator civil commitment laws (SVP laws). One is the state's authority to protect the citizenry, also referred to as _____. The second component is the state's duty to protect those who cannot protect themselves, sometimes referred to as _____.
A) police power; parens patriae power
B) parens patriae power; police power
C) police state; parental control
D) coercive power; vulnerable self
Q2) In Kansas v. Hendricks (1997), the Supreme Court ruled that sexually violent predator civil commitment laws did NOT violate double jeopardy. Double jeopardy means that:
A) an individual was punished for two separate crimes in one sentence.
B) an individual was punished two times for the same crime.
C) a defendant was tried twice.
D) the convicted was subjected to two forms of punishment.
Q3) Placing someone in a psychiatric facility against his or her will is known as:
A) voluntary civil commitment.
B) involuntary civil commitment.
C) involuntary criminal commitment.
D) deinstitutionalization.
Page 43
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Chapter 14: Section 3: Workplace Law: Harassment, Discrimination, and Fairness
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Q1) Many states and the federal government have passed sexually violent predator civil commitment laws. The basis of these laws is to protect vulnerable citizens, or exercise the _____ power, and to restrain violent individuals, or exercise the state's _____ power.
A) parens patriae; police
B) police; parens patriae
C) double jeopardy; substantive
D) substantive; double jeopardy
Q2) Although _____ produce(s) more accurate predictions, most research on jurors' reactions to risk assessment evidence finds that _____ impact on juror's ratings of dangerousness.
A) actuarial methods; clinical testimony has a greater
B) clinical judgement; actuarial predictions have a greater
C) combined clinical and actuarial testimony; neither method has much
D) neither clinical nor actuarial methods; actuarial methods have a greater
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an example of a historical, or "static", marker?
A) Major mental disorder.
B) Personality disorder.
C) Impulsivity.
D) Age at first offense.
Page 44
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Chapter 15: Section 1: Predicting Violent Behavior: the Psychology of Risk Assessment
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Q1) What do studies show about racism in the United States? How does the modern-era racism differ from the older forms of racism?
Q2) What is psychological injury as it applies to sexual harassment? Which standards of injury are currently applied in sexual harassment cases?
Q3) What steps can be taken to reduce prejudice?
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Chapter 15: Section 2: Predicting Violent Behavior: the Psychology of Risk Assessment
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Q1) It has been found that in jobs dominated by men, women are _____ to experience sexual harassment when compared to other working groups.
A) less likely
B) more likely
C) equally as likely as men
D) similarly likely
Q2) Regarding judgments about fairness, we tend, as a group, to feel some level of distress when not getting as much as we think we deserve. Conversely, individuals seldom have any sense of concern when getting more than is deserved. Interestingly though, males and females differ in their applications of principles of fairness. According to the text, when asked to work as long as they think is fair for a set amount of money, women worked _____ than their male counterparts. Women also tend to _____ when dividing the money between themselves and a co-worker.
A) 20-25% longer; give themselves more
B) 20-25% less; give themselves less
C) 20-25% longer; give everybody an equal amount
D) 20-25% less; give themselves more
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Chapter 15: Section 3: Predicting Violent Behavior: the Psychology of Risk Assessment
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Q1) Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964:
A) outlawed discrimination based on race.
B) outlawed discrimination based on gender.
C) specifically addressed the issue of sexual harassment in the workplace.
D) outlawed discrimination based on race and gender.
Q2) The reasonable woman standard was first proposed in:
A) Harris v. Forklift Systems (1993).
B) Ellison v. Brady (1991).
C) Oncale v. Sundowner Offshore Services, Inc. (1998).
D) Burlington Industries, Inc. v. Ellerth (1998).
Q3) "Sleep with me if you want to be promoted" is an example of which type of sexual harassment, as identified by Catherine MacKinnon?
A) Quid pro quo.
B) Sexual discrimination.
C) Hostile work environment.
D) Sexual categorical remarks.
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Chapter 16: Section 1: Corrections: Sentencing,
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Q1) What was the goal of determinate sentencing and how does it work? What are the main problems with mandatory sentencing in general and with one of its versionsthree-strikes laws - in particular?
Q2) Discuss three alternatives to prison.
Q3) Describe the four goals of imprisonment.
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Chapter 16: Section 2: Corrections: Sentencing, Imprisonment, and Alternatives
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Q1) The requirement that criminals receive an extended or life sentence when convicted of a third felony is commonly called the:
A) repeat offender guideline.
B) career criminal sentencing rule.
C) three-time loser rule.
D) three-strikes laws.
Q2) The _____ theory implies that the repulsive nature of prisons will increase individuals' desire to maintain a law-abiding lifestyle.
A) deterrence
B) incapacitation
C) retribution
D) avoidance
Q3) It was not until the _____ that prisons began to reflect the influence of medicine and social sciences.
A) 1800s
B) 1850s
C) 1900s
D) 2000s
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Chapter 16: Section 3: Corrections: Sentencing, Imprisonment, and Alternatives
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Q1) Studies find that there are several factors that lead to disparities in sentencing decisions. Which of the following is NOT one of these findings?
A) Male judges give significantly lighter sentences to women than to men.
B) For violent crimes, women receive shorter sentences than men.
C) African American male juveniles receive harsher sentences in politically conservative jurisdictions.
D) Young Hispanic men are least likely to be incarcerated for their crimes.
Q2) Which of the four goals of imprisonment did the creators of early prisons in the United States aspire to fulfill?
A) Incapacitation.
B) Deterrence.
C) Retribution.
D) Rehabilitation.
Q3) Criminal behaviors that are attributed to _____ causes evoke the strongest punitive response.
A) internal, controllable, and stable
B) external, less controllable, and unstable
C) external, controllable, and unstable
D) internal, less controllable, and unstable
Page 50
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Chapter 17: Section 1: The Death Penalty
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Q1) Discuss the racial disparities in administering the death penalty.
Q2) Is the death penalty an effective deterrent to murder?
Q3) What are Americans' views on the death penalty? Why is it important to consider public opinion on this issue?
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Chapter 17: Section 2: The Death Penalty
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Q1) The majority of democracies in the Western hemisphere do not recognize the death penalty. The United States, however, still does. In fact, _____ states have the death penalty.
A) 11
B) 23
C) 32
D) 45
Q2) Interestingly, there appears to be a tendency for an increase in murders for a short while following an execution. As with the preponderance of violence seen in the media, there may be desensitization to killing. This phenomenon is referred to as the _____ effect.
A) copycat
B) replication
C) simulation
D) brutalization
Q3) The definition of aggravated murder _____ across jurisdictions.
A) is consistent
B) varies
C) overlaps with other types of crimes
D) is not universally recognized
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Chapter 17: Section 3: The Death Penalty
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Q1) Baldus, Woodworth, and Pulaski (1990) analyzed 594 homicides in Georgia and found that blacks convicted of killing whites were sentenced to death in _____ of capital cases, while whites convicted of killing blacks were sentenced to death in _____ of capital cases.
A) 100%; 25%
B) 22%; 3%
C) 31%; 52%
D) 50%; 63%
Q2) The brutalization effect refers to the:
A) tendency of juries to give more weight to aggravating factors in capital cases.
B) conclusion that executions increase murder rates.
C) suggestion that brutal methods of execution like the electric chair decrease murder rates.
D) likelihood that repeat offenders are more likely to be sentenced to death.
Q3) The two parts of a bifurcated trial are:
A) defense arguments and prosecution arguments.
B) aggravating factor presentation and mitigating factor presentation.
C) trial presentation and jury deliberation.
D) guilt phase and penalty phase.
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Page 53