Legal and Criminal Justice Psychology
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Course Introduction
Legal and Criminal Justice Psychology explores the intersection of psychology with the law and the criminal justice system. The course examines psychological theories, principles, and research as they apply to legal processes, including investigations, court proceedings, victim and offender profiling, jury decision-making, eyewitness testimony, competency evaluations, and rehabilitation. Students gain an understanding of how psychological knowledge informs law enforcement practices, the assessment and treatment of offenders, witness reliability, and the rights of individuals within the justice system. Through case studies and analysis, this course emphasizes ethical considerations, the impact of mental health on criminal behavior, and the role of psychologists in legal contexts.
Recommended Textbook
Forensic Psychology 4th Edition by Joanna
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30 Chapters
927 Verified Questions
927 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2037
Page 2
Chapter 1: A: An Introduction to Forensic Psychology
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40501
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the correct pairing of psychologist to their work?
A)Munsterberg - On the Witness Stand
B)Varendonck - La Suggestibilite
C)Von Schrenck-Notzing - Measurements of Accuracy of Recollection
D)Cattell - retroactive memory falsification
E)Wigmore - Kriminal Psychologie
Answer: A
Q2) What is the significance of the case of R.v.McIntosh and McCarthy (1997)?
A)It dealt with racial segregation.
B)It raises potential problems with the Mohan criteria.
C)It dealt with issues associated with the insanity defence.
D)It highlighted the importance of voluntary (i.e.,non-coercive)confessions.
E)It established guidelines for cross-examination.
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 1: B: An Introduction to Forensic Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Provide a comprehensive (i.e.,broad)definition of forensic psychology.
Answer: According to Bartol and Bartol (2006),forensic psychology is defined as (a)the research endeavour that examines aspects of human behaviour directly related to the legal process and (b)the professional practice of psychology within or in consultation with a legal system that embraces both civil and criminal law.
Q2) What are the four specific Daubert criteria defined by the U.S.Supreme Court that determine when scientific evidence is considered reliable?
Answer: 1.The research has been peer reviewed.
2.The research is tes (i.e.,falsifiable through experimentation).
3.The research has a recognized rate of error.
4.The research adheres to professional standards.
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4
Chapter 2: A: Police Psychology
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) As discussed in the textbook,what was the main issue in the case of Paul Boyd?
A)the rights of mentally disordered offenders
B)police use of force
C)police discretion in situations involving domestic disturbances
D)the use of inappropriate police discretion in cases involving youths
E)the negative effects of police stress
Answer: B
Q2) Possible consequences associated with police stress fall into three general categories.These are:
A)physical health problems/psychological problems/job performance problems
B)occupational/organizational/criminal justice
C)adaptive/maladaptive/neutral
D)proactive/reactive/inhibitory
E)psychological/physical/mental
Answer: A
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5
Chapter 2: B: Police Psychology
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7 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) List four reasons why police discretion is necessary,as indicated by Sheehan and Cordner (1989).
Q2) What are the main conclusions from Butler and Hall's (2008)study of use of force using data from the Calgary Police Service?
Q3) Name and describe two of the three most common types of police selection procedures.
Q4) You are a police officer who has encountered a mentally ill person causing a disturbance.What are the three main options available to you in this situation? Identify a disadvantage associated with each.
Q5) In general,there are two stages involved in developing a valid police selection process.Name these stages and explain them briefly.
Q6) Name four main sources of police stress and provide an example of each.
Q7) Define "police discretion" and name three areas of policing in which discretion is often used.
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Chapter 3: A: The Psychology of Police Investigations
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50 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Pinizzotto and Finkel (1990),the process of profiling described in equation form is:
A)WHO + WHY = WHAT
B)WHAT + WHY = WHO
C)WHAT + WHEN = WHO
D)WHO + WHERE = WHAT
E)WHAT + WHO = WHY
Q2) While interrogating Sam Suspect,Officer Sipowitz states,"Look,they should never leave liquor in a store window to tempt honest guys like you and me." Officer Sipowitz's statement is an example of which category of interrogation tactic?
A)minimization
B)maximization
C)a scare tactic
D)a baiting question
E)good cop-bad cop
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Chapter 3: B: The Psychology of Police Investigations
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12 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the interrogation model that is most often taught to police officers in North America? Briefly describe the model's three stages.
Q2) List five background characteristics that are assumed to relate to organized offenders and five background characteristics that are assumed to related to disorganized offenders.
Q3) What does the acronym for the PEACE model of interrogation stand for? Briefly describe the primary goal of this model,and provide one example of how Canadian police officers are not adhering o the principles advocated by the PEACE model.
Q4) Define criminal profiling in general terms and provide four main goals of criminal profiling.
Q5) What are the three main categories of false confessions proposed by Kassin and Wrightsman (1985)? Describe each and identify the circumstances under which each are likely to arise.
Q6) List five crime scene behaviours that are assumed to relate to organized offenders and five crime scene behaviours that are assumed to related to disorganized offenders.
Q7) Distinguish between a retracted confession and a disputed confession.
Q8) State four general criticisms of criminal profiling.
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Chapter 4: A: Deception
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60 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) One advantage of using laboratory studies to test the accuracy of the polygraph is that __________; one disadvantage is __________ as compared to field studies.
A)you have better control over the variables; ground truth cannot be established
B)ground truth is known; the motivational level of the subject
C)you can randomly assign subjects to innocent and guilty conditions; you have more control over the variables
D)university students are used; the motivational level of the subject
E)you can randomly assign subjects to innocent and guilty conditions; it is unethical
Q2) A study by Hillman,Vrij,and Mann (2012)found that _____________ were more associated with truth-telling relative to lying.
A)illustrators
B)shrugs and indications of "I don't know"
C)head nodding
D)rhythmic hand gestures
E)smiling
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9
Chapter 4: B: Deception
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Sample Questions
Q1) Give two explanations for poor performance in deception detection.
Q2) Provide four criticisms of the Comparison Question Test (CQT).
Q3) Your text identifies several cues of malingered psychosis.Identify three cues associated with hallucinations and three cues associated with delusions.
Q4) What concern has been raised regarding use of brain-imaging evidence in court? Discuss research that has examined this concern.
Q5) Describe the four phases of a Comparison Question Test (CQT).Make sure you identify the purpose of each phase.
Q6) Describe how event-related brain potentials (ERPs)have been used to detect deception.
Q7) Provide two verbal and two nonverbal cues (variables)demonstrated to be reliable indicators of deception.
Q8) According to your text,what are the two key components of malingering? List four reasons why an individual might be motivated to malinger.
Q9) What are the eight strategies that a person may employ when malingering identified by the Structured Interview of Reported Symptoms (SIRS)?
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Chapter 5: A: Eyewitness Testimony
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of decision is not possible with a target-present lineup?
A)correct identification
B)foil identification
C)false rejection
D)false identification
E)All of the above are possible identification decisions with the target-present lineup.
Q2) What is another term for the misinformation effect?
A)post-event information effect
B)free narrative effect
C)direct question recall
D)open-ended recall
E)closed ended recall effect
Q3) What is the most common research method for studying eyewitness issues?
A)field study
B)archival research
C)laboratory simulation study
D)recall study
E)recognition study
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11
Chapter 5: B: Eyewitness Testimony
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Sample Questions
Q1) In general terms,how does the enhanced cognitive interview differ from the original cognitive interview? Name and define three of the five techniques specific to the enhanced cognitive interview.
Q2) Distinguish between recall versus recognition tests of memory as dependent variables in research.Describe how recall and recognition responses made by witnesses can be examined.
Q3) What is the cross-race effect? Describe the three common explanations as to why the cross-race effect occurs.
Q4) State two difficulties with the use of hypnosis in the eyewitness context.
Q5) Describe the three major types of biases that have been found to increase false positives in lineup identifications.
Q6) Define the misinformation effect within the context of eyewitness research.In addition,fully describe the three most common explanations for this effect
Q7) Distinguish between a system variable and an estimator variable as related to eyewitness research.Provide one example of each.
Q8) Distinguish between the cue-utilization hypothesis and the unusualness hypothesis as explanations for the weapon focus effect.
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Chapter 6: A: Child Victims and Witnesses
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45 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Recent research by Pozzulo,Dempsey,Bruer,and Sheahan (2010)reported that children perform with nearly 100% accuracy at identifying familiar faces in target-present lineups; however,in target-absent lineups they display a significantly lower correct rejection rate than adults.This finding suggests that ________________ may be more influential for children viewing target-absent lineups and lead to greater erroneous identifications.
A)emotional factors
B)memory problems
C)social factors
D)cognitive factors
E)all of the above factors
Q2) Which of the following is not part of the criteria specified by Lindsay and Read (1995)when determining the veracity of a recovered memory?
A)age of complainant at the time of the alleged abuse
B)age of abuser at the time of the alleged abuse
C)techniques used to recover memory
D)similarity of reports across interview sessions
E)motivation for recall
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Chapter 6: B: Child Victims and Witnesses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name and briefly explain the first five steps of the Step-Wise Interview.
Q2) What are the five criteria identified by Lindsay and Read (1995)that should be considered when determining the veracity of a recovered memory?
Q3) Distinguish between the incidence and the prevalence of child maltreatment.Provide an example of each.
Q4) Describe the four categories of child maltreatment defined by the Child Maltreatment Section (CMS)of Health Canada.
Q5) What is the narrative elaboration interview procedure? Describe how this procedure works and what the research on this procedure suggests in terms of its usefulness in interviewing children?
Q6) Discuss the prevailing view regarding child witnesses from the 1600-1900s.Identify the four factors outlined by Ceci and Bruck (1993)that led to the renewed interest in child witnesses.
Q7) List four risk factors associated with physical abuse and four risk factors associated with sexual abuse.
Q8) Name and briefly describe the two directions that have been taken to understand children's greater propensity toward suggestibility when recalling events (Bruck & Ceci,1999).
Page 14
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Chapter 7: A: Juries: Fact Finders
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56 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term used to describe a juror who is unbiased is:
A)representative
B)impartial
C)naïve
D)immature
E)partial
Q2) You have been summoned as a prospective juror,and are being asked questions by the Crown and defence.When the defence finds out you are taking a course in forensic psychology,he argues that you should be excused on this basis and not eligible to be a juror in this case.What type of challenge is the defence council using in this situation?
A)Ex-post-facto challenge
B)Challenge for cause
C)Nullification challenge
D)Voir dire challenge
E)Peremptory challenge
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15
Chapter 7: B: Juries: Fact Finders
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) List four proposed reforms for judges' instructions aimed at facilitating juror understanding.
Q2) Besides the method of placing a ban on pretrial publicity,name and explain two other methods that courts can employ to increase the likelihood of jury impartiality.
Q3) In the context of jury decision making,distinguish between the terms polarization,leniency bias,and black sheep effect.
Q4) List two proposed advantages and two proposed disadvantages associated with the asking of questions by jurors as a courtroom comprehension aid.
Q5) List one advantage and one disadvantage of using simulation studies to investigate jury decision making.Briefly outline a simulation study to study the effects of victim characteristics in a sexual assault case on juror decision making.Make sure you clearly identify your independent variables (and/or person characteristics)and dependent variables.
Q6) What is meant by the juror characteristic of impartiality? What are two of the issues surrounding impartiality?
Q7) List four functions of a jury.
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Page 16
Chapter 8: A: The Role of Mental Illness in Court
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Sample Questions
Q1) Richard has been found not criminally responsible in regards to an assault on his landlord.The judge orders that he be released into the community,but that he is to stay away from his former landlord,not possess any weapons,and must take his medication.What type of disposition did Richard receive?
A)Psychiatric facility detention
B)Absolute discharge
C)Conditional discharge
D)Incarceration
E)Community sentence
Q2) Research by Crocker,Braithwaite,Cote,Nicholls,and Seto (2011)found that review boards charged with assessing NCRMD cases relied more heavily on assessment of ______________ factors to determine if the individual should be detained or released.
A)psychotic
B)static
C)demographic
D)dynamic
E)employment
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Chapter 8: B: The Role of Mental Illness in Court
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the context of a defendant found NCRMD,what are the four main criteria considered by courts and review boards when deciding a disposition? Explain the term capping and specify the consequence of capping for mentally ill offenders with respect to their dispositions.
Q2) What are the three dispositions that can be made following a finding of NCRMD?
Q3) Peter is on trial for sexual assault.He claims he was in a blackout state due to consumption of two bottles of whisky.Based on the information in your text on intoxication and automatism,what type of disposition would Peter most likely get from a judge and why?
Q4) What is the name of the current insanity defence in Canada? According to the Canadian Criminal Code,what are the criteria for insanity? Assuming you are the Crown prosecutor,identify two situations in which you may raise the issue of insanity.
Q5) You have been hired by a Canadian lawyer to assess a defendant for competency to stand trial.As a first step,you have decided to conduct a competency screener.Describe the screener that you will use and justify your choice.
Q6) Name two of the three changes to legislation resulting from Brian's Law (Bill 68).
Q7) What are the four main objectives of mental health courts?
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Chapter 9: A: Sentencing and Parole in Canada
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aboriginal courts in Canada are sometimes referred to as:
A)Gladue courts
B)drug courts
C)Bill C-41 courts
D)Gregory courts
E)restorative justice courts
Q2) Restorative justice refers to:
A)An approach that focuses on restoring the balance between right and wrong-doing and employs harsh punishment techniques
B)An approach that emphasizes access to rehabilitation resources while offenders are in prison to minimize future offending.
C)An approach used to heal those affected by the criminal act (victims,offenders,and community)
D)An approach that recognizes that life factors need to be addressed throughout corrections in order to restore a person to a law-abiding citizen.
E)An approach that employs a mandatory program in prison called "recover and restore" to address offender remorse,reparations,and positive behavioural changes.
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19
Chapter 9: B: Sentencing and Parole in Canada
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the difference in success rates and parole failures across offenders released on day and full parole relative to those granted statutory release.
Q2) What is the Aboriginal overrepresentation problem in Canadian corrections? What factors contribute to this overrepresentation,and what measures have been taken in Canada to reduce this problem?
Q3) Many purposes of sentencing exist,including specific and general deterrence.State four additional purposes of sentencing.
Q4) What is unwarranted sentencing disparity? List and describe the two major sources of unwarranted sentencing disparity.
Q5) Identify and describe the four major types of parole in Canada.
Q6) Provide at least six of the factors that are available to be considered when the Parole Board of Canada assesses risk and parole options.
Q7) Identify and describe the five main sentencing options utilized in Canada.
Q8) State the fundamental principle of sentencing as defined in Canada's Criminal Code.In addition,specify four other principles of sentencing.
Q9) Define the need principle,risk principle,and responsivity principle.
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Chapter 10: A: Risk Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following civil rights cases was significant in calling into question the accuracy of mental health professionals in predicting violence?
A)Barefoot v.Estelle
B)Currie v.United States
C)W.v.Egdell
D)Baxstrom v.Herald
E)Smith v.Jones
Q2) One advantage of using the unstructured clinical judgment approach to assess risk of violence is ______________,whereas one disadvantage is _______________.
A)it is idiographic/it is nomothetic
B)it lacks consistency/it lacks transparency
C)it is flexible/it is subjective
D)it is accurate/it is idiographic
E)it is nomothetic/it lacks consistency
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21
Chapter 10: B: Risk Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify and explain the three main weaknesses of research on the prediction of violence.
Q2) Name and define the two components of the risk assessment process.
Q3) What is desistance and why is age related to declines in criminal offending? What interpersonal moderators also have been proposed to aid in the transition between criminal offending and desistance?
Q4) What are the three types of judgment errors or biases that clinicians make when assessing risk?
Q5) Describe the coping-relapse model of criminal recidivism proposed by Zamble and Quinsey (1997),including the four levels of the model that can lead to criminal behaviour.
Q6) What was the main issue raised in the Baxstrom and Dixon cases/studies? What are the two key findings to emerge from this research?
Q7) What is actuarial risk assessment? Provide two advantages and two disadvantages associated with this method.What new method of risk assessment was developed in an attempt to address certain limitations associated with the actuarial approach?
Q8) Name at least four ways in which female offenders differ from male offenders.
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Chapter 11: A: Psychopaths
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Sample Questions
Q1) A diagnosis of psychopathy does fulfill the disease of the mind requirement but it has never fulfilled the second requirement of:
A)knowing the victim
B)not appreciating the nature or quality of the act
C)previously having been committed in a psychiatric institute
D)having spent a night in a psychiatric facility
E)having a diagnosed mood disorder
Q2) The terms "psychopathy" and "sociopathy" are:
A)the same
B)completely unrelated
C)always used interchangeably
D)related but distinct concepts
E)used to describe the same concept
Q3) The tendency for mental health experts to be biased toward those who hire them refers to:
A)Expert bias
B)Adversarial allegiance
C)The hired gun approach
D)The Mr.Big technique
E)Juror bias
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Chapter 11: B: Psychopaths
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Sample Questions
Q1) List the five recommendations identified by Quayle (2008)to use when interviewing a psychopathic suspect.
Q2) Explain how psychopaths differ from nonpsychopaths and more specifically how psychopaths' use of violence differs from nonpychopathic offenders.
Q3) Name and describe the most widely used assessment tool for measuring psychopathic traits in adults.
Q4) Name and describe different study designs used involving twins and siblings when trying to isolate the effect of genes or environment on psychopathic traits.
Q5) Identify the ten myths associated with psychopathy.
Q6) Describe the cognitive and affective models of psychopathy in terms of the two predominant theories about the development of psychopathy.
Q7) Explain who Clifford Olson is and why he is famous.What changes have been made to Canadian legislation as a result of his request?
Q8) Define psychopathy,Antisocial Personality Disorder,and sociopathy and give three examples of differences between these disorders.
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Page 24
Chapter 12: A: Assessment and Treatment of Young Offenders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Youth regularly engaging in antisocial acts are more likely than non-antisocial youth to:
A)have a greater degree of frontal lobe inhibition
B)have a biological mother that engaged in antisocial behaviour
C)misattribute hostile intent to negative situations
D)demonstrate cognitive deficits
E)all of the above
Q2) In what way(s)are protective factors effective?
A)They reduce negative outcomes by changing the risk level of the child's exposure to a risk factor.
B)They change the negative chain reaction following exposure to risk.
C)They help to develop and maintain self-esteem and self-efficacy.
D)They provide opportunities to children that they would not otherwise have.
E)all of the above
Q3) Strategies that attempt to reduce the frequency of violence are known as:
A)primary intervention strategies
B)class-one intervention strategies
C)secondary intervention strategies
D)class-two intervention strategies
E)tertiary intervention strategies
Page 25
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Chapter 12: B: Assessment and Treatment of Young Offenders
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Sample Questions
Q1) State three main objectives of the Youth Criminal Justice Act.
Q2) Describe the difference between internalizing problems and externalizing problems.Provide examples of each and identify which is more difficult to treat.
Q3) Provide three criticisms of the Juvenile Delinquents Act (JDA).
Q4) Name the two types of adolescent offenders described by Moffitt.Provide two characteristics associated with each type of adolescent offender.
Q5) What is the difference between reactive aggression and proactive aggression? Which is related to an earlier onset of problems?
Q6) Three childhood psychiatric diagnoses occur with some frequency in young offenders.Identify the three disorders,describe each,and discuss the relationship between these disorders (i.e.,is diagnosis with one type likely to result in the diagnosis with another?).
Q7) What is the relationship between youth gang involvement and delinquency? Discuss using research to back up your points.
Q8) Compare the key changes to the youth criminal justice system associated with the Juvenile Delinquents Act (JDA),the Young Offenders Act (YOA)and the Youth Criminal Justice Act (YCJA).
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Chapter 13: A: Intimate Partner Violence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following scales was included in the revised version of the Conflict Tactics Scale,but not present in the original scale?
A)Sexual coercion scale
B)Physical assault scale
C)Negotiation scale
D)Psychological scale
E)Injury scale
Q2) Within Carla and Mark's relationship,they tend to communicate poorly about issues affecting them and cope with conflict in maladaptive styles (i.e.,Carla withdraws,Mark gets angry).According to the nested ecological model,what level do these problems belong to?
A)ontogenic level
B)exosystem
C)macrosystem
D)microsystem
E)external level
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Chapter 13: B: Intimate Partner Violence
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Rosenfeld (2004),what variables are significantly related to violence amongst stalkers (relative to those who pose a low risk of behaving violently)? What two factors are specifically associated with the greatest risk for continuing stalking behaviour after release from prison?
Q2) Name and briefly describe the levels that influence intimate violence in the nested ecological model proposed by Dutton (1995).Provide one example for each level.
Q3) The National Family Violence Prevention Programs developed by the Correctional Service of Canada contain 6 components.Name and briefly describe each of these,and discuss which component has been associated with the best treatment outcomes in research.
Q4) Name and briefly describe the three components included in Albert Bandura's Social Learning Theory of intimate violence.
Q5) Identify and explain the two most common forms of intervention for male batterers.According to the meta-analysis conducted by Babcock,Green,and Robie (2004),which is the most effective in terms of recidivism?
Q6) Name and briefly describe the three-phase cycle of abuse proposed by Lenore Walker (1979).Discuss what happens at each phase.
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Page 28
Chapter 14: A: Sexual Offenders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sexual assault with a weapon or causing bodily harm carries what maximum sentence in Canada?
A)2 years
B)5 years
C)10 years
D)14 years
E)life imprisonment
Q2) According to Groth's rapist typology,which type of rapist is not motivated primarily by sexual gratification?
A)anger
B)vindictive
C)power
D)sadistic
E)both a and c
Q3) Which of the following is not one of the features of the fixated child molester?
A)Their sexual interest in children begins in adolescence and is persistent.
B)Their offences are planned.
C)Male children are their primary targets.
D)They are emotionally immature.
E)They usually have a history of alcohol or drug abuse.
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Chapter 14: B: Sexual Offenders
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Q1) Knight and Prentky (1990)developed the Revised Rapist Typology (MTC: R3)which consists of five primary subtypes of rapists.Name and briefly define each of these types of rapists,focusing on each rapist's motivational differences.
Q2) Groth (1979)proposed a threefold rapist typology.Name and briefly define each of these types of rapists,focusing on each rapist's goals,the amount of force used,and the primary motivations.
Q3) List four characteristics of the fixated child molester and four characteristics of the regressed child molester.
Q4) Identify and discuss the five main myths associated with sexual assault discussed in your text,including facts that challenge these false beliefs.
Q5) Describe the primary method used to assess deviant sexual interests,as well as two approaches used to treat deviant sexual interests.
Q6) List the four types of female sexual offenders identified by Atkinson (1996).Describe each in terms of their offending behaviour and their backgrounds.
Q7) According to Finkelhor's (1984)theory of child molesting,what are the four preconditions in order for sexual abuse to occur?
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Chapter 15: A: Homicidal Offenders
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mariticide refers to:
A)the killing of men.
B)the killing of women.
C)the killing of a wife by her husband.
D)the killing of a husband by his wife.
E)the killing of a married couple.
Q2) James believes that all prostitutes are scum and taint the world with their "sins".As a result,he desires to eliminate them all,and begins targeting prostitutes as his murder victims.According to the typology proposed by Holmes and Holmes (1998),what type of serial killer is James?
A)the mission-oriented serial murderer
B)the comfort serial murderer
C)the visionary serial murderer
D)the power/control serial murderer
E)the thrill serial murderer
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Chapter 15: B: Homicidal Offenders
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) List four of the six key differences that were identified by Hickey (2006)between female and male serial murderers.
Q2) Describe the General Aggression Model (GAM),including the inputs,the internal states they influence,and behavioural outcomes.
Q3) Distinguish between a reactive and an instrumental homicide.
Q4) Distinguish between serial,mass,and spree murderers.Discuss the key elements that distinguish these types of multiple murderers from one another.
Q5) Identify the two types of familicide murderers described by Wilson,Daly,and Daniele (1995),and discuss the features of both.
Q6) Holmes and Holmes (1998)proposed a four-fold classification system of serial murderers.Describe the four major types of serial murderers and their motivations.
Q7) Differentiate between filicide,familicide,femicide,and mariticide.
Q8) Holmes and Holmes (1998)proposed a four-fold classification system of serial murderers,with one being a hedonistic serial murderer.What motivates a hedonistic serial murderer? List the three subtypes of the hedonistic serial murderer and distinguish between them.
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