Learning and Behavior
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course explores the fundamental principles and theories of learning and behavior in both humans and animals. Emphasizing classical and operant conditioning, observational learning, and cognitive approaches, the course investigates how experiences shape behavior, adaptation, and problem-solving. Students will examine experimental research, analyze case studies, and discuss applications of learning theories in diverse settings such as education, therapy, and behavior modification. Throughout, the emphasis is on understanding the mechanisms underlying learning and their practical implications for influencing and predicting behavior.
Recommended Textbook
Behavior Modification Principles and Procedures 5th Edition by Raymond G. Miltenberger
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Behavior Modification
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Q1) Behavior is defined as what people do and say.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) With training from a behavior analyst, Mark's parents take steps to help him change his behavior of hitting his little brother.The process of developing and implementing techniques to influence behavior is known as:
A) assessment
B) observation
C) modification
D) analysis
Answer: C
Q3) Who is credited with laying the foundation of behavior modification?
A) Freud
B) Skinner
C) Watson
D) Pavlov
Answer: B
Q4) Another term for behavior modifications is _______________________________.
Answer: applied behavior analysis
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Chapter 2: Observing and Recording Behavior
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Q1) Perry's watch beeped every 5 minutes and he recorded whether he was slouched over (bad posture) at the time the watch beeped.This is an example of ___________________ recording.
Answer: time sample
Q2) Which of the following is NOT used in indirect assessment?
A) interviews
B) questionnaires
C) direct observation
D) rating scales
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following can be used as a recording instrument?
A) paper and pencil
B) golf stroke counter
C) stopwatch
D) all of these
Answer: D
Q4) What is it called when two observers record the same behavior of the same person during the same time period and compare the results of their recording?
Answer: interobserver agreement; IOA
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Chapter 3: Graphing Behavior and Measuring Change
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Q1) There are ________ components necessary for a graph to be complete.
A) four
B) six
C) eight
D) ten
Answer: B
Q2) The level of the target behavior is recorded on the:
A) horizontal axis
B) vertical axis
C) x-axis
D) abscissa
Answer: B
Q3) A data point on a graph tells you:
A) when the behavior was recorded
B) the level of behavior
C) what is causing the behavior
D) A and B
Answer: D
Q4) On a graph in behavior modification, the _____ axis shows the units of time.
Answer: X
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Chapter 4: Reinforcement
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Q1) Which of the following are factors that influence the effectiveness of reinforcement?
A) different reinforcers work for different people
B) larger reinforcers are generally more effective
C) A and B
D) none of the above
Q2) Define reinforcement.
Q3) Whenever Matt makes a 3 point shot, his basketball coach makes him run one less lap in practice.As a result Matt is more likely to hit 3 point shots.This is an example of:
A) the Premack Principle
B) respondent behavior
C) negative reinforcement
D) positive reinforcement
Q4) A reinforcer works best when it follows the behavior immediately.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A schedule of reinforcement in which the reinforcer is delivered for the first response occurring after X amount of time on the average is _______________________.
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Chapter 5: Extinction
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Q1) During an extinction burst, the unreinforced behavior can increase in:
A) frequency
B) duration
C) intensity
D) all of these
Q2) Extinction works following positive reinforcement, but does not work following negative reinforcement.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Sarah presses her mouse button while using her computer but nothing happens (the mouse is broken).Sarah presses the mouse button longer and harder before eventually giving up.Sarah's behavior of temporarily pressing the mouse button longer and harder before giving up is an example of a(an):
A) contingency
B) establishing operation
C) novel behavior
D) extinction burst
Q4) In an extinction burst, the behavior temporarily increases before it decreases. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Punishment
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Q1) TFPunishment is a process that decreases or weakens a behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When a punisher is delivered following a target behavior, the target behavior will __________ in the future.
Q3) How does positive punishment differ from negative punishment?
Q4) Which of the following can become a conditioned punisher?
A) the word "no"
B) threats
C) facial expressions
D) all of these
Q5) TFThe behavior modification definition of punishment can be quite different than a nonprofessional definition of punishment.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A conditioned punisher is______________.
Q7) Punishment is defined as_______________.
Q8) Describe the difference between negative punishment and extinction.
Page 8
Q9) Provide an example of positive punishment and an example of negative punishment.
Q10) Describe how the use of punishment can be negatively reinforcing.
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Chapter 7: Stimulus Control: Discrimination and Generalization
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Q1) When a(n) ____________ is present the behavior is more likely to occur.
Q2) In behavior modification, when a certain behavior occurs in the presence of stimuli that are similar to the discriminative stimulus during stimulus discrimination training, ____________ has occurred.
A) expansion
B) refinement
C) discrimination
D) generalization
Q3) Which of the following shows the correct sequence in a three-term contingency?
A) discriminative stimulus, response, consequence
B) consequence, response, discriminative stimulus
C) response, consequence, discriminative stimulus
D) discriminative stimulus, consequence, response
Q4) A stimulus that precedes a behavior is referred to as a(n) ________________.
Q5) Provide an example of stimulus discrimination training.Identify the S and the S-delta.
Q6) Behaviors usually occur at random and are rarely under stimulus control.
A)True
B)False
Q7) What is an S-delta?
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Chapter 8: Respondent Conditioning
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Q1) One pairing between a neutral stimulus and a US is often sufficient to establish the neutral stimulus as a CS.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an example of an unconditioned response?
A) an eye blink in response to a puff of air in the eye
B) pupil constriction due to bright light in the eye
C) salivation in response to food in the mouth
D) salivation in response to the sound of a dinner bell
Q3) A less intense stimulus will be a more effective US.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _______________ is an example of a conditioned emotional response.
Q5) CERs are always negative.
A)True
B)False
Q6) If Pavlov occasionally (1 out of 10 times) gave the dogs the meat powder following the sound of the metronome, the dogs would be more or less likely to salivate to the metronome.
Q7) List 5 factors that influence respondent conditioning.
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Chapter 9: Shaping
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Q1) When using shaping, each step should be ____________ to the target behavior.
A) identical
B) a closer approximation
C) irrelevant
D) B and C
Q2) Shaping involves reinforcement of a closer approximation and extinction of a previous approximation of a target behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q3) People are often well aware of how shaping can develop problem behaviors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Reinforcement and punishment are the two principles involved in shaping.
A)True
B)False
Q5) If the individual already engages in the target behavior at least occasionally, shaping is the best procedure to use.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Define shaping.Provide an example.
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Chapter 10: Prompting and Transfer of Stimulus Control
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Q1) If a person who used to engage in a behavior now refuses to, prompting and transfer of stimulus control is an appropriate procedure to get the person to engage in the behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is (are) necessary for prompting and transfer of stimulus control to be considered complete?
A) prompts have been completely removed
B) behavior is under control of the natural discriminative stimulus
C) behavior consistently occurs when the prompt is presented
D) A and B
Q3) In which of the following situations would it be appropriate to use prompting and transfer of stimulus control?
A) the person has not learned the behavior
B) the person has learned the behavior but refuses to do it
C) the person does not do the behavior in the correct situation
D) A and C
Q4) Verbal, gestural, modeling and physical prompts are all examples of what category of prompts? ___________
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Chapter 11: Chaining
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Q1) Forward chaining and backward chaining differ in terms of:
A) which component is taught first
B) whether the terminal step in the chain is completed on every learning trial
C) whether the learner receives the natural reinforcer on every learning trial
D) all of these
Q2) TFThe difference between forward chaining and backward chaining is where you begin training.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Andrew just got a new puppy, and his Mom is going to use a chaining procedure to teach Andrew all the steps involved in feeding the puppy.If his Mom teaches him the last behavior in the chain first and then teaches him each previous behavior she would be using:
A) forward chaining
B) total task presentation
C) backward chaining
D) B and C
Q4) What type of prompt is most often used to guide the learner through the chain of behaviors in total task presentation? ___________
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Chapter 12: Behavioral Skills Training Procedures
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Q1) Which of the following is(are) true concerning the component of modeling?
A) the learner must have an imitative repertoire
B) it is usually sufficient to produce long term change
C) it may be live or symbolic
D) A and C
Q2) Which of the following is an advantage of using BST in groups
A) receiving substantial attention from the trainer
B) watching other members rehearse and receive feedback
C) receiving criticism from other group members following behavioral rehearsal
D) B and C
Q3) The use of modeling is more likely to be effective when the:
A) model's behavior is reinforced
B) the model is dissimilar to the learner
C) model has low status
D) all of these
Q4) What are 4 components of behavioral skills training procedures?
Q5) After every rehearsal, the trainer should praise some aspect of the learner's performance.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Understanding Problem Behaviors Through Functional Assessment
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a method used in conducting a functional assessment?
A) experimental manipulation
B) indirect assessment
C) direct observation
D) systematic assessment
Q2) When a person engages in a problem behavior (taking drugs) and this behavior is reinforced by decreasing tension or anxiety that the person is feeling, this is an example of:
A) social negative reinforcement
B) automatic positive reinforcement
C) social positive reinforcement
D) automatic negative reinforcement
Q3) Which method of ABC observation is typically used after the behavior, antecedents, and consequences have already been identified?
A) checklist method
B) descriptive method
C) interval recording method
D) A and C
Q4) When an observer records the three-term-contingency, this is called
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Chapter 14: Applying Extinction
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Q1) If a target behavior is maintained by negative reinforcement, extinction involves __________________________ escape from the aversive stimulus when the problem behavior occurs.
Q2) The increase in the problem behavior at first when extinction is used is referred to as:
A) generalization
B) an extinction burst
C) spontaneous recovery
D) behavioral escalation
Q3) When the problem behavior is maintained by a(n) schedule, extinction will be more rapid.
Q4) An extinction procedure should be used in conjunction with a(n) ___________ procedure.
Q5) When the problem behavior no longer occurs in all relevant circumstances following extinction, ___________ is said to have occurred.
A) discrimination
B) fading
C) shaping
D) generalization
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Chapter 15: Differential Reinforcement
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Q1) In a DRO procedure, the reinforcer is contingent on ___________.
Q2) TF DRA is an effective way to increase a desirable behavior. A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the difference between a whole interval DRO procedure and a momentary DRO procedure?
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a strategy used in identifying the reinforcer to use in the DRO procedure?
A) experimental manipulation of potential reinforcers
B) observing individuals to determine their preferences
C) selecting a stimulus that is reinforcing for most people
D) choosing the reinforcer that is maintaining the problem behavior
Q5) DRA involves using ____________ for desirable behaviors and ___________ for undesirable behaviors.
A) reinforcement; extinction
B) reinforcement; punishment
C) extinction; reinforcement
D) extinction; punishment
Q6) Provide an example of DRO.
Q7) What is the difference between spaced responding DRL and DRO?
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Chapter 16: Antecedent Control Procedures
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Q1) Antecedent control procedures involve a change in the antecedents that evoke the occurrence of a problem behavior or the occurrence of _________________________ to replace the problem behavior.
Q2) In behavior modification, an event that alters the value of a stimulus as a reinforcer is referred to as a(an):
A) extinction burst
B) three-term contingency
C) discriminative stimulus
D) motivating operation
Q3) TFAntecedent manipulations involve the use of aversive procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q4) TFIt is important to collect data before and after an antecedent manipulation procedure is used.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Antecedent control procedures involve a change in the ___________ that evoke the occurrence of a problem behavior or the occurrence of competing behaviors to replace the problem behavior.
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Chapter 17: Using Punishment: Time-Out and Response
Cost
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Q1) Time-out is a _______________________ punishment procedure.
Q2) Punishment procedures should be used in conjunction with ____________ procedures.
A) chaining
B) extinction
C) shaping
D) reinforcement
Q3) In behavior modification, an aversive stimulus is defined in terms of:
A) how painful it is
B) its effect on behavior
C) how unpleasant it is
D) all of these
Q4) The use of response cost involves the consideration of:
A) whether interactions can be avoided
B) which reinforcer to remove and when the loss will occur
C) whether escape can be prevented
D) when the punishing stimulus will be presented
Q5) ___________ involves removal of a child from a reinforcing situation in which the child loses access to reinforcing activities or interactions.
Q6) When is nonexclusionary time-out most likely to be used? Page 20
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Chapter 18: Positive Punishment Procedures and the Ethics of
Punishment
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Q1) Physical restraint may be a reinforcer for some individuals. A)True
B)False
Q2) Which form of positive punishment is based on the Premack Principle?
A) exclusionary time-out
B) response cost
C) application of aversive activities
D) application of aversive stimulation
Q3) In guided compliance, what must the learner do following the problem behavior?
A) correct the environment damaged by the behavior
B) comply with the task that was requested prior to the problem behavior
C) repeatedly engage in the correct behavior
D) engage in an effortful behavior that is not related to the problem behavior.
Q4) Two major categories of aversive events used in positive punishment procedures are ___________ and ___________.
Q5) What is the difference in terms of the aversive activity between contingent exercise and overcorrection?
Q6) SIBIS is a type of positive punishment procedure. A)True B)False Page 22
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Chapter 19: Promoting Generalization
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Q1) Identifying target stimulus situations and natural contingencies of reinforcement for the target behavior should take place:
A) prior to training
B) after training is complete
C) once training has begun
D) only if training is unsuccessful
Q2) Promoting generalization through the use of multiple training examples that sample from the range of relevant stimulus situations and response variations is referred to as ____________ programming.
A) higher order
B) multiple case
C) situational
D) general case
Q3) Which of the following is an example of self-generated mediators of generalization?
A) self-instructions
B) using notes to cue appropriate behavior
C) self-recording
D) all of these
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Chapter 20: Self-Management
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Q1) A target behavior that is occurring too much that you would like to decrease is called a___________________.
Q2) One reason for the existence of self-management problems is that the occurrence of excess and deficit behavior is influenced by:
A) immediate contingencies
B) long-term outcomes
C) delayed contingencies
D) B and C
Q3) What is the first step in a self-management plan?
A) goal setting
B) functional assessment
C) making the decision to engage in self-management
D) defining the target behavior and competing behaviors
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a self-management strategy?
A) arranging punishing contingencies
B) self-instructions
C) goal setting
D) respondent contitioning
Q5) List the steps involved in developing a self-management plan.
Q6) When does social support become a self-management strategy?
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Chapter 21: Habit Reversal Procedures
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Q1) A psychologist teaches Matt to put his hand in his pocket whenever his habit of cracking knuckles occurs or is about to occur.Training an individual to engage in a behavior that is incompatible with the habit behavior is referred to as ____________ training.
A) contingent response
B) awareness
C) operant
D) competing response
Q2) What is the main way in which the habit reversal procedure varies across the different types of habit disorders?
Q3) A habit behavior becomes a habit disorder when:
A) the individual has no control over the behavior
B) the behavior is distressing to the individual
C) the frequency of the behavior is extreme
D) B and C
Q4) A nervous habit most often involves:
A) oral behavior
B) twisting of the neck
C) use of the hands
D) facial grimacing
Page 26
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Chapter 22: The Token Economy
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true concerning the use of response cost in a token economy?
A) it should be implemented at the beginning of the program
B) clients should be aware of the number of tokens lost for undesirable behavior
C) it involves the loss of tokens for engaging in undesirable behavior
D) the number of tokens lost should depend on the severity of the problem
Q2) Why wouldn't the use of pencils in a school setting be an acceptable item for a token?
Q3) A token must be tangible, practical, and convenient to carry and dispense.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Clients may accumulate tokens but not keep them in their possession.
A)True B)False
Q5) Most often the token exchange rate remains stagnant throughout the token economy program.
A)True B)False
Q6) How does a token become a conditioned reinforcer?
Q7) What is the purpose of a token economy?
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Chapter 23: Behavioral Contracts
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Q1) A behavioral contract in which the behavior change of one individual functions as the reinforcer for the behavior change of another individual is called a:
A) quid pro quo contract
B) functional agreement
C) parallel contract
D) two-party contingency
Q2) Mark writes a behavioral contract with his roommate stating that Mark will tear up one baseball card from his prized collection each week that his television viewing exceeds the level in the contract.Which contingency in a behavioral contract involves the loss of a reinforcer when an undesirable behavior occurs?
A) positive punishment
B) negative reinforcement
C) positive reinforcement
D) negative punishment
Q3) What is another name for a behavioral contract?
A) participant contract
B) modification contract
C) contingency contract
D) agreement contract
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Chapter 24: Fear and Anxiety Reduction Procedures
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Q1) Fear and anxiety reduction procedures are used to treat ____________ behavior.
A) operant
B) respondent
C) autonomic
D) all of these
Q2) A therapist teaches an individual to decrease autonomic arousal by breathing deeply in a slow rhythmic fashion.This type of breathing is referred to as ____________ breathing.
A) diaphragmatic
B) focused
C) systematic
D) progressive
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a step in the use of systematic desensitization?
A) learning relaxation skills
B) practicing relaxation skills
C) developing a hierarchy
D) exposure to the fear-producing stimulus
Q4) Ellen is afraid of snakes.Whenever she sees a picture of a snake or sees one on TV her heart races and she immediately turns her head.The operant behavior involved in Ellen's fear of snakes is ________________.
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Chapter 25: Cognitive Behavior Modification
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Q1) An undesirable cognitive behavior that an individual wants to decrease is referred to as a(an) __________ behavior, and a desirable cognitive behavior that an individual wants to increase is referred to as a(n) __________ behavior.
A) operant; respondent
B) excess; deficit
C) overt; covert
D) dysfunctional; functional
Q2) Provide 2 examples of cognitive behavior.________________
Q3) Cognitive restructuring is typically done by parents trying to help their children.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The cognitive restructuring procedure involves helping an individual to do all of the following except:
A) identify distressing thoughts and situations
B) avoid situations in which distressing thoughts occur
C) identify the response that follows the thoughts
D) decrease the distressing thoughts
Q5) What is involved in cognitive coping skills training?
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