Leadership and Team Dynamics
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Course Introduction
This course explores the theories and practices of effective leadership and the dynamics of team interaction within organizations. Students will examine various leadership styles, motivational strategies, and conflict-resolution techniques, while also analyzing the stages of team development and factors that influence team performance. Through case studies, group projects, and reflective exercises, participants will develop practical skills in communication, decision-making, and problem solving, preparing them to successfully lead and collaborate in diverse professional environments.
Recommended Textbook
Organizational Behavior 17th Edition by Stephen P. Robbins
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18 Chapters
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2016 Flashcards
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2
Chapter 1: What Is Organizational Behavior?
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Q1) With reference to a basic OB model, ________ are determined in advance of the employment relationship and refer to variables such as personality, group structure, and organizational culture that lead to processes.
A)actions
B)inputs
C)outcomes
D)processes
E)goals
Answer: B
Q2) What are conceptual skills? How are they different from human skills?
Answer: Conceptual skills comprise the mental ability to analyze and diagnose complex situations.The abilities to integrate new ideas with existing processes and innovate on the job are crucial conceptual skills for today's managers.On the other hand, the ability to understand, communicate with, motivate, and support other people, both individually and in groups, defines human skills.For instance, many people are technically proficient, but they are poor listeners.They are unable to understand the needs of others or are weak at managing conflicts.Managers should have good human skills because they need to get tasks done by people.
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Chapter 2: Diversity in Organizations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stacy Hanes is an African-American woman who has recently taken her first job and does not seem to like the work environment at all. Her colleagues put down her ideas at team meetings and refer to them as "stupid." In addition, they make fun of her race and often ask her if she is educated enough to work for the company. Which of the following kinds of discrimination is Hanes most likely subject to?
A)mockery
B)sexual harassment
C)stalking
D)deception
E)subterfuge
Answer: A
Q2) ________ is a dimension of intellectual ability which involves using logic to assess the implications of an argument.
A)Deductive reasoning
B)Spatial visualization
C)Haptic perception
D)Multistable perception
E)Lateral masking
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Attitudes and Job Satisfaction
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Sample Questions
Q1) The exit-voice-loyalty-neglect framework expands employee response to include voice and loyalty-constructive behaviors that allow individuals to ________.
A)revolt against the management
B)reject unionization and focus on team-building activities
C)identify psychologically with their jobs
D)tolerate unpleasant situations or revive satisfactory working conditions
E)decrease emotional contagion
Answer: D
Q2) A satisfied workforce does not guarantee successful organizational performance. In order to improve organizational effectiveness, managers ________.
A)must use 360-degrees appraisal procedures
B)must provide classroom training
C)must make jobs easier and targets achievable
D)must offer periodic salary increments
E)must try to improve employee attitudes
Answer: E
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Chapter 4: Emotions and Moods
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following mood dimensions is a pure marker of high negative affect?
A)depression
B)relaxation
C)fatigue
D)boredom
E)nervousness
Q2) ________ refers to feelings that tend to be less intense than emotions and that lack a contextual stimulus.
A)Affect
B)Cognition
C)Mood
D)Thought
E)Reaction
Q3) ________ refers to individual differences in strength with which individuals experience their emotions.
A)The Hawthorne effect
B)Affect intensity
C)Intelligence quotient
D)Positivity offset
E)Ambiguity effect
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Chapter 5: Personality and Values
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Sample Questions
Q1) As compared to high self-monitors, low self-monitors ________.
A)tend to be more adaptable to external situations
B)pay closer attention to the behavior of others
C)have low consistency between personalities and actions
D)are less likely to emerge as leaders
E)show less commitment to their organizations
Q2) According to the Big Five model, a person who scores ________ is easily distracted, disorganized, and unreliable.
A)low on emotional stability
B)low on openness to experience
C)high on agreeableness
D)high on extraversion
E)low on conscientiousness
Q3) Managers today are less interested in an applicant's ability to perform a specific job than with his or her flexibility to meet changing situations and commitment to the organization.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the personality characteristics of Machiavellianism.
Q5) Describe conscientiousness and explain how it can predict behavior at work.
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Chapter 6: Perception and Individual Decision Making
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Sample Questions
Q1) Victoria Hastings works as a sales manager at a bank and her behavior is characterized by the fundamental attribution error and halo effect. Explain with the help of an example what Hastings' behavior is most likely to be toward her team in such a situation.
Q2) Consumers increasingly choose to purchase goods and services from organizations with effective corporate social responsibility (CSR)initiatives.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A person's tendency to believe he or she can predict the outcome of random events is known as the self-serving bias.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ________ refers to staying with a decision even when there is clear evidence it's wrong.
A)Escalation of commitment
B)Fundamental attribution error
C)Randomness error
D)Risk aversion
E)Availability bias
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Chapter 7: Motivation Concepts
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Sample Questions
Q1) The proponents of reinforcement theory view behavior as ________.
A)the result of a cognitive process
B)environmentally caused
C)a reflection of the inner state of the individual
D)a function of one's power need
E)a product of heredity
Q2) According to the two-factor theory proposed by Herzberg, which of the following is considered a hygiene factor?
A)promotional opportunities
B)quality of supervision
C)achievement
D)recognition
E)responsibility
Q3) Describe the three key elements in the definition of motivation.
Q4) Compare and contrast a Theory X manager and a Theory Y manager.
Q5) Interpersonal justice refers to an individual's perception of the degree to which he or she is treated with dignity, concern, and respect.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Motivation: From Concepts to Applications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sally Peterson, who works as an entry-level editor, wants to go for dental reconstruction surgery and sent a query to her HR department asking for a list of preferred hospitals. The HR looked through her healthcare plan, which provides only a minimum coverage for routine drugs and vision care. Consequently, the HR manager informed her that if she wishes to carry on with the dental procedure, she will have to pay for it on her own. Which of the following benefits plans should she choose to meet her needs?
A)a basic modular plan
B)a standardized benefits package
C)a core-plus plan
D)a fringe benefits plan
E)a 401k plan
Q2) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of flextime.
Q3) On an organizational level, job design and by the extrinsic rewards of pay and benefits are the only ways to motivate employees.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How would you relate skill variety, job rotation, and skill-based pay?
Q5) What are the various dimensions of the job characteristics model?
Q6) Differentiate between bonuses and gainsharing plans.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Foundations of Group Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true with regard to the social identity theory?
A)It proposes that members take personal pride in accomplishments but dissociate from the group in the event of any offenses or failures.
B)It proposes that people have emotional reactions to the failure or success of their group because their self-esteem is tied into the group's performance.
C)It proposes that people develop only one social identity in childhood that becomes more defined and concrete in the course of their lives.
D)It proposes that social identities can never be detrimental as they have no effect on how members of an ingroup view members of an out-group.
E)It proposes that members of an ingroup are viewed as being homogeneous, while members of an out-group are seen as being heterogeneous.
Q2) Greater performance diversity creates greater social loafing the longer a group is together, which decreases satisfaction and performance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain the following terms: role perception and role expectation.
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Chapter 10: Understanding Work Teams
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Sample Questions
Q1) Shane Dermott is a manager at a software design firm that develops software programs for clients using multiple teams of specialists. One of his most successful teams has been performing very well for years and so it came as a surprise to Shane when he noticed a sharp drop in the team's performance. He decided to speak with the team members individually and find a solution. After interviewing all 7 team members, he determined that one of the team members performed routine administrative tasks that were hardly visible to any of the other team members and understood that this was a case of social loafing which demotivated the entire group. Which of the following would most likely improve the performance of the employee who was social loafing?
A)encouraging him to work more independently
B)making him individually responsible for definite and crucial tasks
C)empowering him to make decisions autonomously
D)providing him with administrative training
E)giving him additional assignments to complete
Q2) Explain how organizations can create team players.
Q3) In self-managed teams, supervisory positions may be eliminated.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How do mental models contribute to task conflicts?
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Chapter 11: Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Automatic processing requires a detailed consideration of evidence and information relying on facts, figures, and logic.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are the seven key parts of the communication process?
Q3) As a consequence of the information circulated by the grapevine in an organization, employees experience ________.
A)increased clarity
B)increased power
C)increased member satisfaction
D)increased certainty
E)increased anxiety
Q4) Which of the following modes of communication does not come under the purview of nonverbal communication?
A)physical distance
B)personal e-mails
C)intonations
D)facial expressions
E)body movement
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Chapter 12: Leadership
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Q1) Charismatic leadership places somewhat more emphasis on the way leaders communicate (are they passionate and dynamic?), while transformational leadership focuses more on what they are communicating (is it a compelling vision?).
A)True
B)False
Q2) How do substitutes and neutralizers challenge the effectiveness of leadership?
Q3) In contrast to them, the other five team members did the routine jobs assigned to them, and their interactions lacked the understanding and camaraderie that Eric shared with the others. Joshua, Doug, and Carl make up Eric's ________.
A)out-group
B)reference group
C)nominal group
D)ingroup
E)peripheral group
Q4) Transactional leaders guide their followers toward established goals by clarifying role and task requirements.
A)True
B)False
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Power and Politics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Legitimate power is directly based on ________.
A)charisma of the leader
B)interpersonal trust and commitment of the manager
C)structural position of the manager in the organization
D)personality traits of the manager
E)ability of the manager to serve his or her subordinates
Q2) ________ power is influence wielded as a result of proficiency, special skill, or knowledge.
A)Legitimate
B)Reward
C)Referent
D)Expert
E)Coercive
Q3) Expert power is based on identification with a person who has desirable resources or personal traits.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List and discuss the bases of formal power.
Q5) Discuss how power affects people and consider whether power is corruptive.
Page 15
Q6) Discuss the effectiveness of various influence tactics.
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Chapter 14: Conflict and Negotiation
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Q1) According to a newly added office smoking regulation, only employees who have an enclosed office may smoke at their desks. This leads to a major conflict between various employees as virtually all employees with enclosed offices are higher-level managers and all other employees lack enclosed offices. Therefore, the lower-level employees who smoke argue that they should be offered enclosed offices. Which of the following, if true, strengthens the employees' argument?
A)The company is a zealous supporter of the "Kick the Butt" campaign-a corporate anti-smoking campaign.
B)Higher-level managers, who have enclosed offices, are willing to share their offices with-lower level employees.
C)The smoking regulations allow all employees who smoke an equal opportunity to do so, regardless of an employee's job level.
D)Employees at the higher level, who do not smoke, do not have enclosed offices.
E)The company has a limited budget for infrastructure modifications.
Q2) Negotiators who consistently act in a way that demonstrates competence, honesty, and integrity will usually have better outcomes in the long run.
A)True
B)False
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Foundations of Organization Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The chain of command is an unbroken line of authority that extends from the top of the organization to the lowest echelon and clarifies who reports to whom.
A)True
B)False
Q2) For much of the first half of the twentieth century, managers viewed work specialization as ________.
A)a means to encourage employee satisfaction
B)an effective solution to overcentralization
C)an unending source of increased productivity
D)difficult to implement without automation technology
E)a frustrating cause of reduced efficiency
Q3) Describe the simple structure. Discuss its advantages and disadvantages.
Q4) Explain the approaches successful companies have taken to structuring themselves during growth.
Q5) What is a virtual organization? What elements of organizational structure are important to create and sustain a successful virtual organization? Explain your answer.
Q6) Describe the various characteristics of bureaucracy.
Q7) Describe the five common ways of departmentalization. Give an example of each.
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Chapter 16: Organizational Culture
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Q1) Alcoa headquarters has few individual offices, even for senior executives. The space is essentially made up of cubicles, common areas, and meeting rooms. This informality conveys to employees that Alcoa values ________.
A)autocracy
B)competitiveness
C)rigidity
D)equality
E)formalization
Q2) Describe the characteristics of a strong culture.
Q3) What are the seven primary characteristics that capture the essence of an organization's culture?
Q4) Discuss the difference between strong and weak organizational cultures and discuss the effect that a strong culture can have on an acquisition or merger.
Q5) Sustainability refers to practices that can be maintained over very long periods of time because the tools or structure that support the practices is not damaged in the process.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Human Resource Policies and Practices
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ refers to actions that contribute to the psychological environment of the organization, such as helping others when not required.
A)Citizenship
B)Counterproductivity
C)Satisficing
D)Social loafing
E)Groupthink
Q2) Which of the following is most likely to be the fastest growing training medium?
A)job rotation
B)live classroom lectures
C)apprenticeships
D)formal mentoring program
E)e-training
Q3) Describe and discuss work-sample tests and assessment centers and the contexts in which they can be used effectively.
Q4) What purposes do performance evaluations serve in organizations?
Q5) Letters of recommendation are a form of background check.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Organizational Change and Stress Management
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Q1) Political uncertainties, economic uncertainties, and technological change are examples of the ________ factors of potential stress.
A)structural
B)environmental
C)organizational
D)personal
E)social
Q2) An example of change in competition is ________.
A)U.S. manufactured Toyota vehicles
B)collapse of Enron Corporation
C)Iraq-U.S. war
D)increased interest in urban living
E)a decrease in interest rates
Q3) In order to make their firm a learning organization, managers should ________.
A)increase the number of hierarchical levels in the organization
B)avoid the use of cross-functional teams
C)penalize mistakes
D)increase the degree of departmentalization
E)redesign the organizational structure
Q4) List the eight steps in Kotter's eight-step plan for implementing change.
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