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This course explores the fundamental principles of effective leadership and the dynamics that shape high-performing teams. Students will examine various leadership styles, strategies for motivating and inspiring others, and the critical role of communication in fostering collaboration. Through case studies, group projects, and self-assessment activities, participants will learn how to navigate challenges such as conflict resolution, diversity, and change management within teams. By the end of the course, students will be equipped with practical tools and frameworks to enhance their leadership capabilities and build cohesive, productive teams in diverse organizational settings.
Recommended Textbook
Organizational Behavior Managing People and Organizations 11th Edition by Ricky W. Griffin
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18 Chapters
2257 Verified Questions
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Q1) Identify, discuss, and give examples of the contextual perspectives on Organizational Behavior.
Answer: Answers will vary.
Q2) Performance evaluation, reward systems, and motivation all apply to __________.
Answer: controlling
Q3) If Kenyatta is interested in understanding why her colleagues behave as they do, which of these can help?
A)Operations
B)Decision analysis
C)Organizational behavior
D)Marketing
E)Finance
Answer: C
Q4) By designing jobs and establishing patterns of authority, the manager is performing the _________ function.
Answer: organizing
Q5) The __________ helps to allocate budget requests. Answer: resource allocator
Q6) Resolving a dispute between employees would be part of the __________ role.
Answer: disturbance handler
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Q1) _________ orientation is tied to values that are oriented toward the past and the present and include respect for traditions and social obligations.
Answer: Short-term
Q2) The downside of information technology includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A)It has resulted in less personal communication.
B)Has increased a sense of urgency vis-à-vis decision-making.
C)It has resulted in more time spent on ethical decision-making for managers.
D)It has resulted in less down time for managers.
E)It has resulted in less down time for employees.
Answer: C
Q3) Which of these best defines stereotypes?
A)Favoring people similar to you
B)Focusing on differences among people
C)Grouping people into different categories
D)Judgments about others that reinforce beliefs about superiority and inferiority
E)Making generalizations about groups of people
Answer: E
Q4) Orientation to authority is another name for the cultural value ___________. Answer: power distance
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____ usually requires an organization to hire a substitute to perform work for an employee.
A)Absenteeism
B)Perceptual attitude
C)Turnover
D)Performance behavior
E)Workplace behavior
Answer: A
Q2) __________ is the degree to which a person believes that he or she can perform a specific task effectively.
Answer: Self-efficacy
Q3) Basic perceptual processes include selective perception and stereotyping.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Unfortunately, personality attributes are usually considered to be unstable and fluctuating.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False

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Q1) __________ is the set of forces that cause people to engage in one behavior rather than some alternative behavior.
Q2) The equity theory describes the equity comparison process in terms of a(n) __________ ratio.
Q3) Requesting a pay raise is an attempt to reduce inequity by changing one's own
Q4) Discuss four of the six common ways in which individuals respond to perceived inequity and provide an example of each. How do you think individuals might respond to overpayment inequity?
Q5) For various reasons, Tamarra is unable to move ahead into a higher position at work. According to Alderfer's ERG theory, which of the following sets of needs will become more important to Tamarra?
A)Existence
B)Growth
C)Relatedness
D)Security
E)Belongingness
Q6) __________ involves the presentation of aversive consequences after an undesired behavior has occurred.
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following methods can be used to enhance individual performance at work EXCEPT:
A)Job design
B)Employee participation
C)Goal setting
D)Performance management
E)Groupthink
Q2) ________ is an approach to job design that relies on positive job experiences and feelings of achievement and responsibility to motivate workers.
Q3) Quality circles are an example of organizational attempts at
A)applying reinforcement theory.
B)OB modification.
C)behavior modification.
D)empowerment.
E)motivational training.
Q4) ______ determine what jobs will be performed in their organizations and how those jobs will be performed.
Q5) A(n) ___________ involves volunteer employees who meet to identify and propose solutions to quality-related issues.
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Q1) An organization provides, in exchange for employee contributions, rewards such as pay and insurance benefits. These kinds of rewards are combined to create
A)compensation packages.
B)intangible compensation.
C)symbolic rewards.
D)system rewards.
E)resource exchanges.
Q2) Which of these is at the core of the balanced scorecard approach to performance management?
A)360-degree feedback
B)Forced distribution
C)Paired comparison.
D)Vision and strategy
E)Ranking
Q3) Goals are used for two purposes: as a framework for managing motivation and as mechanism for accomplishing organizational goals with individual goals.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An organizational policy that mandates pay __________ is illegal.
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true about the general adaptation syndrome model EXCEPT:
A)everyone has a stress threshold.
B)some people cannot tolerate much stress at all.
C)prolonged exposure to stress results in a greater tolerance for future stress.
D)some people can tolerate a great deal of stress.
E)each person has a normal level of resistance to stressful events.
Q2) The exhaustion stage of the general adaptation syndrome occurs as a result of prolonged exposure to a stressor without resolution.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Unfortunately, people with Type A behavior patterns are likely to be passive and more balanced in life.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A(n) _______ is a set of expected behaviors associated with a particular position in a group or organization.
Q5) A group of family members or friends whom a person can use to combat stress is called a(n) ________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person's beliefs about what constitutes right and wrong behavior are called
A)hypervigilance.
B)ethics.
C)self-reactions.
D)rationalizations.
E)escalations of commitment.
Q2) In general, ______ for managers may center on direct personal gain, indirect personal gain, or simple personal preferences.
Q3) One important method for enhancing creativity is to make it a part of the organization's
A)standard operating procedures.
B)decision-making processes.
C)culture.
D)strategic plans.
E)mandate.
Q4) _______ is a skill that allows people to see differences between situations, phenomena, or events.
Q5) ______ is the capacity to generate new ideas.
Q6) A programmed decision occurs frequently enough for a(n) _______ to be developed.
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Q7) The most crucial step in the decision-making process is selecting a(n) _______.
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Q1) Highly cohesive groups will be more productive for the organization than groups with low cohesiveness.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following are true regarding social loafing EXCEPT
A)it is often a problem in very small groups.
B)how much of a problem social loafing depends in part on the nature of the task.
C)it often results from the assumption that other members will pick up the slack.
D)some members put forth less effort in a group.
E)the amount of social loafing depends in part on the group leader's awareness of it.
Q3) Present the three-phase model of group dynamics as a diagram. Describe the outcomes of interpersonal behaviors.
Q4) The _________ technique is a decision-making method designed for groups that do not meet face to face.
Q5) The Delphi technique is a method of systematically ________ for use in developing forecasts.
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Q1) ______ are usually smaller than groups.
Q2) Which of these is a specific benefit of enhanced performance with a team environment in organizations?
A)Improved customer service
B)Lower stress
C)Lower turnover
D)Increased innovation
E)Increased groupthink
Q3) What is the difference between work groups and teams with regard to job categories?
A)Teams have fewer and broader job categories than groups.
B)Job categories for teams and groups depend on the reward system.
C)Teams and groups have the same number of job categories.
D)Groups have fewer and narrower job categories than teams.
E)The authority structure in teams is much more hierarchical.
Q4) _______ plans are similar to gain-sharing plans except the unit of performance and pay is the team.
Q5) Describe the three essential issues in promoting team success: top management support, understanding the time frames, and changing organizational reward.
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Q1) The isolated dyad tends to work alone and to interact and communicate little with others.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Recent studies identified ______ communication skills as the number-one criterion for hiring new college graduates.
Q3) Describe, discuss, and give examples of the various elements of nonverbal communication.
Q4) International communication problems include all of the following sources EXCEPT: A)colors.
B)body language.
C)new forms of communication technology.
D)exchange rates.
E)language.
Q5) _______ is the social process in which two or more parties exchange information and share meaning.
Q6) The receiver responds with _______ to the original source in order to verify receipt and understanding of the message.
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Q1) In LPC theory, ________ is the second most important determinant of situational favorableness.
Q2) In Vroom's decision tree approach, there are five basic decision styles that correspond to five levels of subordinate participation in decision making.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Because Vroom's decision-tree approach is relatively new, it has not been fully and _______ tested.
Q4) Position power refers to the personal relationship that exists between subordinates and their leader.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The highest numbers on the LPC scale are associated with a positive evaluation of the least-preferred coworker.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The horizontal axis of the Leadership Grid represents concern for _______.
Q8) The Leadership Grid was originally called the _______. Page 14
Q7) Describe, discuss, and give two examples of the path-goal theory.
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Q1) A(n) ______ is a person who helps a less-experienced person learn the ropes and to better prepare him or herself to advance within the organization.
Q2) In the wake of recent corporate scandals, the behaviors of top leaders
A)have lost much of their impact.
B)are now matters of public record.
C)are being scrutinized more closely than ever.
D)have become synonymous with greed.
E)have become almost forgotten history.
Q3) Self-confidence, firm confidence in their beliefs and ideals, and a strong need to influence people are all characteristics of _______ leaders.
Q4) Faith in top leaders has been shaken due to recent corporate scandals.
A)True
B)False
Q5) All of the following describe transactional leaders EXCEPT:
A)assigns work.
B)executes change.
C)evaluates performance.
D)makes decisions.
E)oversees routine work.
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Q1) When ________, managers simply work within the rules of the organization to increase the probability that their preferred outcomes will come about.
Q2) In most cases expert power tends to follow exact lines of authority.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ____ power exists when a person has the ability to punish or harm someone else.
A)Legitimate
B)Reward
C)Coercive
D)Expert
E)Referent
Q4) Which power is the most difficult form of power to exercise?
A)Referent
B)Expert
C)Coercive
D)Legitimate
E)Reward
Q5) _______ power usually surfaces as imitation.
Q6) Game playing is a type of a technique of _______.
Q7) Political behavior can be limited if the manager can reduce _______.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Unfortunately, the Win-Win approach still generates winners and losers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In which of these is interdependence activities flow both ways between units?
A)Pooled interdependence
B)Sequential interdependence
C)Reciprocal interdependence
D)Intergroup interdependence
E)Intrapersonal interdependence
Q3) Excessively competitive employees will not generally continue to have conflict after the "competition" is over.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Compromise includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A)the parties goals are not completely compatible.
B)the parties interact with others to achieve goals.
C)it can lead to new and innovative ideas.
D)goals are not aggressively pursued.
E)interactions are not that important to goal attainment.
Q5) Describe, discuss, and give the advantages and disadvantages of game theory.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Large-batch production is also known as _______ production.
Q2) What is an economy of scale?
A)Paying off variable costs as soon as possible
B)Spreading fixed costs over a large number of units
C)Introducing products into as many countries as possible
D)Attracting the most customers as possible
E)Avoiding finance charges by assuming less debt
Q3) Organizational technology consists of mechanical and intellectual processes that are used to create outputs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The organizational _______ comprises all the elements outside the boundaries of the organization.
Q5) Dynamism and complexity combine to create
A)organizational structure.
B)uncertainty.
C)management.
D)the environment.
E)strategy.
Q6) Typically, large companies create _______ organizations.
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Q1) There is generally no difference between organization culture and climate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The second step a manager must take to create organization culture involves developing cultural values.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Ouchi proposed that Japanese and Type Z U.S. firm use an employee evaluation process that was
A)semiannual.
B)quantitative.
C)fast.
D)qualitative and quantitative.
E)annual.
Q4) _______ are the values that employees need to have and act on for the organization to act on the strategic values.
Q5) Emile Durkheim was an early sociologist who studied myths and _______.
Q6) The values that make up an organization's culture are often taken for granted. A)True B)False
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Q1) The third stage of the survey feedback process, _______, involves examining group decision making and communication.
Q2) The last step in Lewin's change process is ______.
Q3) According to the continuous change process model, the final step is
A)measurement, evaluation, and control.
B)OB model.
C)a system audit and modification.
D)the change agent.
E)transition management.
Q4) The number of people born between 1945 and 1960 was _____.
A)38 million
B)27 million
C)100 million
D)56 million
E)38 million.
Q5) The first step of Lewin's model of planned change involves refreezing.
A)True
B)False
Q6) _______ is the process of planned change and improvement of the organization through application of scientific knowledge.
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