Leadership and Management Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course explores the fundamental principles and practices of effective leadership and management within organizations. Students will analyze various leadership theories, management styles, motivational strategies, and decision-making processes, with an emphasis on understanding the differences and intersections between leading and managing. Through case studies, interactive discussions, and real-world applications, participants will develop skills in communication, team building, conflict resolution, and strategic planning preparing them to lead and manage individuals and teams successfully in diverse professional settings.
Recommended Textbook Management An Integrated Approach 2nd Edition by Ranjay Gulati
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Leadership is defined as the ability to drive change and innovation through inspiration and motivation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following statements best describes scientific management?
A) It focuses on how jobs, work, and incentive schemes could be designed to improve productivity using industrial engineering methods.
B) It involves a clear differentiation of tasks and responsibilities among individuals and coordination through a strict hierarchy of authority and decision rights.
C) It holds the belief that organizations must be understood as systems of interdependent human beings who share a common interest in the survival and effective functioning of the firm.
D) It is a view of the firm where effective organizational structure is based on fit or alignment between the organization and various aspects in its environment.
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: The Global Business Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The factor that distinguishes an internal environment of an organization from an external environment is that:
A) the internal environment consists of the general environment and the task environment.
B) the internal environment includes owners, the board of directors, employees, and culture.
C) the internal environment includes entities that directly affect a firm on a continuous basis.
D) the internal environment consists of the technological, economic, and sociocultural factors.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following entities belongs to the internal environment of an organization?
A) Technology
B) Suppliers
C) Employees
D) Customers
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Ethics and Corporate Social Responsibility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the link between a firm's overall performance and corporate social responsibility.
Answer: A firm's overall performance and corporate social responsibility are linked through the consumer. Consumers not only have a favorable attitude toward companies engaging in CSR, but also make purchasing decisions based on CSR activity. This in turn increases sales revenues, thereby increasing profitability.
Q2) Research supporting Milton Friedman's view on CSR suggests that CSR is detrimental to an organization. Which of the following arguments is most likely to support this theory?
A) CSR is viewed negatively in many societies, and this leads to reduction in sales.
B) CSR reduces the brand value of an organization that leads to erosion of profits.
C) CSR involves extensive legal expenses that are detrimental to profits.
D) CSR leads to a substantial reduction in profits due to rising investment in the long run. Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Introduction to Strategy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The transnational strategy is a cross between global and multinational strategies.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements is true about strategy formulation?
A) The strategy development process typically flows in a linear fashion.
B) Managers should engage in environmental scanning on an ongoing basis.
C) All aspects of a firm's strategy are more susceptible to frequent changes.
D) The formulation of strategy is the last step toward achieving profitability.
Q3) Strategies that combine elements of multinational and global strategies by using foreign subsidiaries to produce and distribute products are known as
A) business-level strategies.
B) international strategies.
C) corporate-level strategies.
D) transnational strategies.
Q4) Outline the features of exporting.
Q5) Describe the business-level strategy.
Q6) What are the three elements a manager should consider when developing a strategy?
Q7) Briefly describe the use of strategy by the Roman military leaders.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Business-Level Strategy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is one of the fundamental questions a manager must answer in developing a business-level strategy?
A) Who do we serve?
B) Who are our competitors?
C) What are our objectives?
D) Where should we do business?
Q2) A substitute could be a competitor's product or some other product that satisfies the same consumer need.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Sara, a manager at DEM Company, is examining all of the activities the firm performs and determining how they interact to form a source of competitive advantage. Sara is using
A) Porter's 5-Forces Model.
B) SWOT analysis.
C) SWAT analysis.
D) value chain analysis.
Q4) Briefly describe the 5-Forces Model.
Q5) Outline the features of SWOT analysis.
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Chapter 6: Corporate-Level Strategy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Coca-Cola Company acquired Honest Tea Company, a producer of bottled iced tea beverages. This is an example of A) unrelated diversification.
B) backward vertical integration.
C) forward vertical integration.
D) related diversification.
Q2) Spot contracts involve a firm's commitment to buy a commodity product at a specific price.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Fine Electronics is a corporation that controls all aspects of its business such as extracting raw materials, manufacturing the products, distributing them, and finally marketing to customers. It manages these activities through several business units, where one unit provides inputs to the other. This is an example of A) unrelated diversification.
B) vertical integration.
C) strategic flexibility.
D) franchising.
Q4) Discuss the results of diversification.
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Chapter 7: Organizational Design
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the most important benefits of the functional structure is the efficiency it creates.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Moonbow, Inc., has a highly formalized structure with extensive rules, procedures, policies, and instructions. Positions are arranged hierarchically with top management dictating the direction and activity of the organization while lower-level managers and employees follow orders. The fundamental mechanism of monitoring involves close personal surveillance of subordinates by superiors. Moonbow, Inc., has adopted a _____ approach to organizational control.
A) clan
B) bureaucratic
C) mutually adaptive
D) totalitarian
Q3) Behaviorists are those who support a more open organizational structure where roles and responsibilities are loosely defined.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Outline the five customer-centric activities of an organization.
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Chapter 8: Organizational Culture
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the best example of an organization with a weak culture?
A) TechPark is a company characterized by low levels of agreement among employees about what is valued in the organization.
B) The employees of Z-Gadgets, a manufacturing company, experience role clarity, in which they operate autonomously with little monitoring.
C) The performance of ElectronicZone tends to fluctuate, wherein it's good under stable environments and very poor under turbulent environments.
D) Z-Furn's organizational culture is very inflexible and cannot be easily changed in response to changing environments.
Q2) The number of values a firm holds is not as important as how strongly held they are and how much organizational buy-in they generate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Discuss the role of founders in influencing a firm's culture.
Q4) Describe three elements that can be helpful in assessing a firm's culture.
Q5) Analyze the ways in which a strong culture can affect a firm's performance.
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Chapter 9: Managing Human Capital
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Sample Questions
Q1) After a recent downsizing, Joe's work responsibilities significantly increased. Joe felt guilty and resentful and became self-absorbed and risk adverse. Joe was suffering from A) survivor syndrome.
B) MBO.
C) post-downsizing disorder.
D) outsourcing envy.
Q2) The main components of MBO are derived from goal setting and participation in decision making.
A)True
B)False
Q3) John, an organization's HR manager, is making plans to offer training to his employees. To effectively proceed with the training process, John should first
A) determine target audience.
B) design the training curriculum.
C) assess the effectiveness of training.
D) understand the goals of training.
Q4) What are the guidelines managers should follow when downsizing?
Q5) Outline the different methods of training.
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Chapter 10: Performance Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) ISO 9000 is a program that focuses on improving the firm's products but not the processes involved.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following balanced scorecard perspectives is used by managers to identify the company's most important customers and how well the company is doing in meeting customers' needs?
A) Internal business process perspective
B) Customer perspective
C) Learning and growth perspective
D) Financial perspective
Q3) DePaul Company has been monitoring the performance of its processes against selected measures. What is DePaul's next step in the control cycle?
A) Identify measures that track the right information to assess performance.
B) Set targets for the selected measures.
C) Take corrective action.
D) Set up a balanced scorecard.
Q4) What is a balanced scorecard? Briefly describe its perspectives.
Q5) Describe the two primary areas in which leaders take corrective action.
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Chapter 11: Organizational Change
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following individuals is the best example of a successful change leader?
A) A change leader who offers rewards in terms of increased pay and promotion to those employees who support the change process
B) A change leader who communicates the positive results of the change process to the employees and hides the negative ones
C) A change leader who engages and listens to employees and motivates them by showing concern and sharing credit
D) A change leader who pays all attention to the structural and procedural changes needed for the transformation
Q2) To motivate change, managers should create effective models that are
A) sophisticated and assessable.
B) desirable, feasible, and relevant.
C) complicated and implementable.
D) clear, structured, and expensive.
Q3) List the characteristics of successful change leaders.
Q4) Define organizational change and briefly explain how change can be driven by external factors.
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Chapter 12: Leadership in Organizations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Jordan has been in the same position for several years. He has a formal relationship with his boss and completes his work according to established procedures. Based on the leader-member exchange theory, Jordan is
A) part of the in-group
B) part of the out-group.
C) in the partnerhip phase of the relationship life cycle with his boss.
D) in the mature phase of the relationship life cycle with his boss.
Q2) Sam sees potential in Alex and offers Alex a chance to increase his responsibility within the group. Based on the leader-member exchange theory, Sam and Alex's relationship is in the _________ phase of the relationship life cycle.
A) stranger
B) acquaintance
C) partnerhip
D) mature
Q3) The best leaders display both transactional and transformational leadership behaviors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Briefly describe task-oriented and relations-oriented leadership styles.
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Chapter 14: Power and Influence
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Sample Questions
Q1) A core network includes
A) people who provide career guidance and help in obtaining visible assignments.
B) the exchange of specific job-related resources such as information and expertise.
C) people who share a common background or interest.
D) relationships that are characterized by close bonds and reciprocity.
Q2) Which of the following is required to sustain power?
A) Willingness to engage in constructive feedback
B) Inflated view of self
C) Sense of entitlement
D) Willingness to use others
Q3) As a response to power, compliance involves employees doing their work because they want to, not because they have to.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Influence refers to the
A) means by which an employee becomes a leader.
B) ability of leaders to achieve organizational goals.
C) means or vehicle by which leaders exercise their power.
D) potential of groups to impact others' behavior.
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Chapter 15: Decision Making
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is the process of identifying issues and making choices from alternative courses of action.
A) Problem solving
B) Environmental scanning
C) Decision making
D) Strategic positioning
Q2) Programmed decisions generally do not require a manager or higher-level employee to execute.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Differentiate between programmed and nonprogrammed decisions.
Q4) Which of the following statements about nonprogrammed decisions is true?
A) These decisions generally do not require a higher-level employee to execute.
B) These decisions are made under conditions of certainty.
C) These decisions are made in response to novel, poorly defined, or unstructured situations.
D) These decisions are made in response to recurring organizational problems.
Q5) List the actions that can help managers "de-bias" their judgments.
Q6) Define the theory of rational choice and list the steps involved in the rational decision-making process.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Conflict and Negotiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of an integrative negotiation?
A) Creating value for both negotiators
B) Lack of interpersonal trust
C) What one wins, the other loses
D) Focus on a single issue
Q2) In a distributive negotiation, the terms that need to be negotiated are experienced as limits by both parties.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Dean is dealing with an issue that must be resolved quickly or yearly goals will not be met. His team is disagreeable and uncooperative regarding the matter. Dean's appropriate response is one of
A) avoidance.
B) accommodating.
C) compromising.
D) forcing.
Q4) Discuss negotiating in egalitarian and heirarchical cultures.
Q5) What is interpersonal and intergroup conflict? Outline the theories explaining intergroup conflict.
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Chapter 17: Leading Teams
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the best example of a self-directed team?
A) Mike, the project head, developed a team of middle managers from the marketing, finance, and production departments to work on a project together.
B) Tom, a manager in the marketing department, had Jim and Jake, team members from the same department, reporting to him on the progress of an ongoing project.
C) Sam, Ben, and Nick are team members working from three different locations on the same project, reporting to their project manager through telephone calls and e-mails.
D) Jane, Jack, and Maria, as members of a team, have the authority and responsibility to make decisions and to participate in processes that help the team succeed.
Q2) What defines a team, and under what conditions is the use of teams appropriate?
Q3) _____ teams are composed of a manager and his or her subordinates in the formal chain of command, usually in one functional department.
A) Collocated
B) Vertical
C) Cross-functional
D) Self-directed
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Chapter 18: Motivation
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Sample Questions
Q1) In contrast to intrinsic motivation, extrinsic motivation is derived from aspects of "doing the job."
A)True
B)False
Q2) According to Herzberg's two-factor theory, hygiene factors
A) correspond to Maslow's hierarchical needs for esteem and self-actualization.
B) are the higher-order needs that motivate people to perform better in their work.
C) are potential dissatisfiers that, when fulfilled, do not cause people to become satisfied.
D) are the direct consequences of doing the job and are the primary cause of satisfaction.
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of an organization's climate with high employee engagement?
A) Negative reinforcement
B) Training and development
C) High power distance
D) Centralized decision making
Q4) Outline the content theories of motivation.
Q5) Describe the features of reinforcement theory.
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Chapter 19: Communication
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Q1) Which of the following statements about verbal communication is true?
A) Verbal communication consists of giving physical attention to a communication partner.
B) Listening and reading are the modes by which verbal communication is sent.
C) Verbal communication consists of sounds, letters, words, pictures, and symbols.
D) In verbal communication, speaking and writing are both driven by sensing information.
Q2) While saying "yes," Mark shook his head no while looking down at the ground. Assuming he meant "yes," his body language represented ______ to the receiver of the message.
A) channel
B) tone
C) approach
D) noise
Q3) Aristotle believed that pathos was the most important element of persuasion.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What can individuals do to bridge cultural differences in linguistics and communication?
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Chapter 20: Networking
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sandy is a very competent technical expert, but her coworkers will not go to her for advice, seeking out the more likable, albeit less competent, Bob instead. From this scenario, we can infer that Sandy is a
A) lovable star.
B) competent jerk.
C) incompetent jerk.
D) lovable fool.
Q2) Weak ties are usually formed among similar individuals who are exposed to the same kinds of information.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Joe has connections with Shelley and Bob, who have similar positions with the organization. In the course of one hour, Joe receives the same piece of new information from both Shelly and Bob. From this scenario, we can infer that
A) both Shelley and Bob are brokers.
B) Shelley and Bob are redundant contacts.
C) Joe is a broker.
D) Shelley and Bob are boundary spanners.
Q4) Briefly describe the strength of ties.
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