Law Enforcement Psychology Exam Preparation Guide - 787 Verified Questions

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Law Enforcement Psychology Exam Preparation Guide

Course Introduction

Law Enforcement Psychology explores the application of psychological principles within law enforcement settings, focusing on the unique mental health challenges and occupational stressors faced by police officers and related professionals. The course examines topics such as stress management, resilience, crisis intervention, decision-making under pressure, and the psychological impact of police work on individuals and organizations. Students will also learn about psychological screening, fitness-for-duty evaluations, training strategies, and the role of psychologists in promoting ethical conduct and well-being within law enforcement agencies. Through case studies and evidence-based practices, learners gain a comprehensive understanding of how psychological science can enhance the effectiveness and welfare of law enforcement personnel.

Recommended Textbook

Criminal Behavior A Psychological Approach 10th Edition by Curtis R. Bartol

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16 Chapters

787 Verified Questions

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Chapter 1: Introduction to Criminal Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) The psychodynamic approach explains behavior in terms of:

A) motives and drives.

B) personality traits.

C) free will.

D) logic.

E) heredity and family history.

Answer: A

Q2) Sigmund Freud is most associated with which one of the following fields?

A) Traditional psychiatric criminology

B) Sociological criminology

C) Psychological criminology

D) Contemporary psychiatric criminology

E) Molecular criminology

Answer: A

Q3) Criminology is the psychological study of crime.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Chapter 2: Origins of Criminal Behavior: Developmental Risk Factors

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Q1) Several studies suggest that parental monitoring is especially important between the ages of:

A) nine to sixteen.

B) six weeks to five.

C) five to eighteen.

D) twelve to seventeen.

E) thirteen to sixteen.

Answer: A

Q2) IQ refers to a broad, all-encompassing ability.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q3) Research has shown that children who are both physically aggressive and _____ have a high probability of becoming serious delinquents.

A) living in poverty

B) emotionally aggressive

C) socially rejected by peers

D) struggling in school

E) living in a single parent home

Answer: C

Page 4

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Chapter 3: Origins of Criminal Behavior: Biological Factors

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Sample Questions

Q1) The MAOA-L gene has been nicknamed the:

A) warrior gene.

B) apocalyptic predictor.

C) mood enhancer.

D) zen master.

E) terminator gene.

Answer: A

Q2) Most contemporary researchers of temperament focus on:

A) school-aged children.

B) incarcerated males.

C) families with two or more children.

D) infants.

E) pre-school girls.

Answer: D

Q3) Most adolescent risk taking behaviors tend to continue throughout adulthood.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q4) Compare and contrast behavior and molecular genetics.

Answer: NOT ANSWERED

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Chapter 4: Origins of Criminal Behavior: Learning and Situational

Factors

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to Julian Rotter, whether a particular pattern of behavior will occur depends on:

A) operant conditioning.

B) classical conditioning.

C) our ability to control biological drives.

D) biological programming.

E) our expectancies and how much we value the outcome.

Q2) Milgram's famous studies on obedience to authority indicate that:

A) people pay little attention to authority figures once they become adults.

B) in general, Americans are not obedient or conforming.

C) most people are obedient to authority even if it causes pain to others.

D) children are less obedient to authority than adults.

E) adults are more obedient to authority than children.

Q3) Describe Zimbardo's prison experimen

Q4) For most people, becoming part of a group encourages feelings of anonymity.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Describe the process of operant conditioning and give an example of how criminal behavior is acquired.

Q6) Briefly explain Bandura's theory of moral disengagement. Page 6

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Page 7

Chapter 5: Human Aggression and Violence

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to Berkowitz, high levels of arousal _____ aggressive behavior in certain situations.

A) completely dissipate

B) cause

C) slightly reduce

D) dramatically reduce

E) facilitate

Q2) After getting into a physical altercation with a co-worker at his job site, George tailgates two cars on the drive home and throws a cell phone at his wife when he arrives home to find that dinner is not ready. The above scenario is an example of :

A) excitation transfer theory.

B) Medea complex.

C) road rage.

D) rumination.

E) weapons effect.

Q3) Extremely high levels of arousal seem to mitigate aggressive behavior in certain situations.

A)True

B)False

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Page 8

Chapter 6: Juvenile Delinquency

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Q1) A boy who hits at age three, shoplifts at age ten, commits burglary at age 19 and rapes at 26 would be considered a(n):

A) life-course persistent offender.

B) ADHD offender.

C) adolescent-limited offender.

D) antisocial offender.

E) incorrigible delinquent.

Q2) We know far too little about girls' crime, the reasons it is committed, and the social and developmental factors that precipitate it.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Research suggests that serious juvenile offenders:

A) demonstrate poor social skills.

B) have relatively low recidivism rates.

C) have are highly motivated to change their behavior.

D) specialize in one offense throughout their delinquent careers.

E) are destined to become violent offenders in later years.

Q4) Summarize the five characteristics of successful treatment programs.

Q5) Briefly describe the three categories of prevention and give an example of each.

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Chapter 7: Criminal Psychopathy

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Q1) Robert Hare's research focuses on the _____ of the psychopath.

A) family background

B) neurological features

C) socioeconomic status

D) intelligence

E) antisocial tendencies

Q2) What has been learned about a) recidivism and b) treatment of the criminal psychopath?

Q3) Define each of the following as proposed by Hare: Primary psychopath; secondary psychopath; dyssocial psychopath; criminal psychopath.

Q4) Generally speaking, the autonomic nervous system of the psychopath appears to be:

A) deformed.

B) insufficient.

C) ineffective.

D) overreactive.

E) underaroused.

Q5) Suicidality is a common characteristic of older adult psychopaths.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 8: Crime and Mental Disorders

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Q1) In the Supreme Court ruling Sell v. U.S. (2003), the Court ruled that:

A) in cases that did not involve violence, courts should be very careful in ordering medication to treat mentally disordered offenders who refuse the medication.

B) mentally disordered offenders should be sedated in the courtroom.

C) psychoactive drugs should not be ordered by any court against the wishes of the defendant, even if the mentally disordered offender tends to be violent.

D) mentally disordered offenders should be institutionalized until cured.

E) mentally disordered offenders cannot be given psychotropic medication during their trial.

Q2) Delusional disorders are also called:

A) paranoid disorders.

B) psychotic disorders.

C) believe disorders.

D) schizophrenia.

E) paranoid schizophrenia.

Q3) Compare and contrast actuarial measures and clinical measures of risk assessment.

Q4) Briefly describe four legal standards for of insanity and their requirements.

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Chapter 9: Homicide, Assault, and Family Violence

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Q1) "The intentional inflicting of serious bodily injury on another" is a sufficient definition of which of the following offense(s)?

A) Simple assault

B) Aggravated assault

C) Assault with a deadly weapon

D) Murderous assault

E) Simple malice

Q2) The Violent Crime Control and Law Enforcement Act of 1974 made what activity a federal crime?

A) Trading in unregistered guns for cash.

B) Ownership of assault-type weapons

C) Juvenile possession of handgun ammunition

D) Shooting animals without a license.

E) Owning a pistol without a license.

Q3) Males are more likely than female to perpetrate which act of family violence?

A) Munchausen Syndrome by proxy

B) Neonaticide

C) Elderly abuse

D) Filicide

E) Shaken baby syndrome

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Chapter 10: Multiple Murder, School, and Workplace

Violence

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Q1) The strongest determining factor of victim selection for most serial murders is the _____ of the victim.

A) availability

B) appearance

C) sexuality

D) psychological characteristics

E) social isolation

Q2) Explain why the case of Jack the Ripper is relevant to criminal profiling.

Q3) A term coined by Havelock Ellis that refers to self-arousal and the self-gratification of sexual arousal is:

A) autoeroticism.

B) authochthonous.

C) autoplasty.

D) autophagy.

E) autopagnosia.

Q4) There has been an overabundance of research directed at mass murderers.

A)True

B)False

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Q5) What type of psychological autopsy are insurance companies interested in and why?

Chapter 11: Psychology of Terrorism

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Q1) Which statement is not true of lone wolf terrorists?

A) They operate individually.

B) They act without the direct influence of a leader.

C) Their acts of violence are spontaneous and haphazard.

D) They demonstrate poor interpersonal and social skills.

E) They are more likely than other terrorists to be emotionally disturbed.

Q2) In 1846, Henry David Thoreau refused to pay six years of delinquent taxes in opposition to the Mexican-American War and slavery. Thoreau was engaging in:

A) moral conformism.

B) anarchal passivity.

C) civil disobedience.

D) moral righteousness.

E) passive resistance.

Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of Staub's terrorist groups?

A) Hierarchal submission

B) Superiority complex

C) Equality

D) Cultrual devaluation

E) Randomized violence

Q4) Describe the process of becoming a terrorist.

Page 14

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Chapter 12: Sexual Assault

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Sample Questions

Q1) Summarize the research on the prevalence of acquaintance rape.

Q2) The original MTC had five major classifications and ten subtypes. A)True B)False

Q3) How did Groth classify child molesters? Describe all of his classifications.

Q4) Abel and his associates found that men convicted of rape:

A) show high and nearly equal sexual arousal to portrayals of both violent, nonconsenting sexual acts and nonviolent, consenting sexual acts.

B) were more sexually aroused toward attractive victims than nonattractive victims. C) felt they had little control over their sexual impulses.

D) have a very limited ability to fantasize.

E) were using drugs at the time of the crime.

Q5) MDSO is an acronym for:

A) manic depressive sex offender. B) mentally disabled sex offender. C) multiple diastolic sex offender.

D) morally dissuaded sex offender.

E) mentally disordered sex offender.

Q6) What does research tell us about resistance and rape.

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Chapter 13: Sexual Assault of Children and Youth and Other

Sexual Offenses

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Sample Questions

Q1) The majority of exhibitionists prefer that their victims are strangers.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Donna Vandiver and Glen Ketcher have proposed a clinically useful typology of female sex offenders. How many categories did they identify?

A) three

B) four

C) six

D) ten

E) fourteen

Q3) Compare and contrast effective treatment for juvenile sex offenders and adult sex offenders.

Q4) Discussed the child offender patterns and classification system identified by the Massachusetts Treatment Center (MTC).

Q5) Identify some of the notable characteristics of male juvenile sex offenders and their victims.

Q6) Identify some of characteristics of female juvenile sex offenders and their victims.

Q7) Describe the cognitive and intellectual characteristics of child molesters.

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Chapter 14: Property and Public Order Crime

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Sample Questions

Q1) Discuss the conceptual difficulty in defining white collar crime.

Q2) The standards, perceptions, and values the work group establishes for itself with or without approval by the organization is referred to as:

A) work ethic.

B) employee principle.

C) unionization.

D) normative support.

E) subversive culture.

Q3) In addition to the other negative effects of victimization, victims of fraud and identity theft are most likely to experience:

A) post-traumatic stress.

B) feelings of self-blame.

C) uncontrollable anger.

D) clinical depression.

E) homicidal thoughts.

Q4) Summarize the current research on kleptomania. What does research tell us about the prevalence of kleptomania?

Q5) Describe the process burglars use to select their targets.

Q6) Explain why children in foster care may be easy targets for identity theft.

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Chapter 15: Violent Economic Crime and Crimes of Initimidation

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Sample Questions

Q1) The impetus for California's 1990 antistalking legislation was:

A) the stalking of Steven Spielberg's seven children.

B) the murder of actress Rebecca Schaeffer.

C) the stalking of actress Rebecca Schaeffer.

D) the murders of four Orange County women who were killed despite restraining orders against their assailants.

E) the stalking and homicide of two government officials, Peter Brown and Louise Cooke.

Q2) Who was George Metesky? What was he responsible for? What does he have in common with Theodore Kaczynski?

Q3) The use of the Internet or other forms of online communications to threaten, frighten, or engage in unwanted advances toward another person is specifically called:

A) Internet crime.

B) Internet abuse.

C) cyberstalking.

D) cybernetics.

E) computer stalking.

Q4) Explain the motivations and situational dynamics behind street robbery.

Q5) Define Stockholm Syndrome and London Syndrome. Provide examples of each.

Page 18

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Chapter 16: Substance Abuse, Alcohol, and Crime

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements best characterizes the relationship between alcohol and aggression?

A) The majority of crimes are caused by alcohol use.

B) There is no relationship between alcohol use and violence.

C) There is no empirical research linking alcohol and violence.

D) Alcohol facilitates aggressive behavior.

E) Long term and excessive alcohol consumption is linked to violent behavior.

Q2) Discuss the issues involved in addressing illegal drug use as a health problem. What are the implications for prisons and jails?

Q3) Available evidence on cannabis indicates:

A) a moderate relationship between cannabis and crime.

B) a strong relationship between cannabis usage and crime.

C) no significant relationship between cannabis and crime.

D) a weak, but significant relationship between cannabis and crime.

E) none of the above.

Q4) Define and explain drug tolerance and dependence.

Q5) Cocaine use has been steadily increasing since 2009.

A)True

B)False

Q6) Discuss the relationship between alcohol and crime.

Page 19

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